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BVetMed3 - Respiratory > Pathobiology And Microboiology Of Respiratory Infections > Flashcards

Pathobiology And Microboiology Of Respiratory Infections Flashcards

1
Q

What are proteobacteria?

A

Phylum of gram negatives including E.coli, Salmonella, Vibrio, Helicobacter

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2
Q

Where are proteobacteria found in the respiratory tract?

A

URT+LRT

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3
Q

What types of infection are more common, primary or secondary?

A

Secondary

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4
Q

How do secondary bacterial infections occur?

A

Facilitated by initial viral or sometimes parasitic infection or by environmental stress

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5
Q

Are bacterial infections most commonly pure or mixed?

A

Mixed

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6
Q

What viruses can cause infections of the URT and spread down to cause bronchitis and bronchiolitis?

A

Influenza virus (horses, pigs, dogs)

Bovine respiratory syncytial virus

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7
Q

What pathogens are associated with feline upper respiratory disease?

A

Usually associated with viral infection - FHV-1 or FCV

Some bacteria can be primary pathogens - Chlamydia felis, Bordatella bronchiseptica

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8
Q

What pathogens are associated with canine upper airway disease (CIRD)

A

Often primary viral infection with

Bordatella bronchiseptica

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9
Q

How severe does small animal upper airway disease tend to be?

A

Self limiting, can usually recover without the need for antimicrobials

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10
Q

What would an URT infection that hadn’t subsided after 10 days indicate?

What could you give?

A

Systemic disease

Doxycycline

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11
Q

Why is culturing from nasal swabs a bad idea?

A

Will culture commensals

Chlamydia and mycoplasma are not culturable

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12
Q

what is the observation period for URT disease?

A

10 days

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13
Q

What is the drug of choice for severe (e.g. bronchopneumonia) or persisting infections?

A

Doxycycline

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14
Q

Describe chlamydia felis

A

obligate intracellular

Gram negative rods

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15
Q

How does chlamydia felis usually manifest in cats?

A

Bilateral conjunctivitis

Possible nasal discharge (can be mucopurulent)

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16
Q

How could you identify chlamydia felis?

A

PCR

Koster’s stain

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17
Q

Outline the reproductive cycle of chlamydia

A

Infection with EB
Reticulate body formation, multiplication and maturation
Elementary body release

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18
Q

What is the difference between elementary and reticulate bodies?

A

EB - infecting particles, metabolically inactive

RB - metabolically active, multiply in cells

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19
Q

Describe Bordatella bronchiseptica

A

Strict aerobes,
Small gram negative rods

Coccobacillus shape

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20
Q

What is Bordatella bronchiseptica associated with in pigs?

A

Atrophic rhinitis

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21
Q

Where is B. Bronchiseptica normally found in dogs?

A

URT (Commensal)

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22
Q

What needs to happen before Bbronchiseptica can cause tracheobronchitis or bronchopneumonia in dogs?

A

Viral infection (e.g. distemper), stress, immunosuppressive drugs

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23
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of B.bronchiseptica

A

Initial trauma
Adherence to respiratory epithelium of trachea
Proliferation
Release of toxins -> irritation and coughing
Epithelial necrosis
Peribronchial inflammation and bronchopneumonia
SECONDARY infection - e.g. beta haemolytic strep

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24
Q

What antimicrobial therapy would you recommend for mild pneumonia?

A

Doxycycline

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25
Q

What antimicrobial therapy would you recommend for severe pneumonia or pyothorax?

A

Fluroquinolone
AND
Penicillin or Clindamycin

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26
Q

Describe pasteurella multocida

A

Gram negative rod
Oral commensal

SMELLS LIKE MICE

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27
Q

In which part of the respiratory tract does P.multocida typically cause disease?

A

LRT

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28
Q

What respiratory pathology is P.Multocida associated with?

A

SUPPURATIVE pneumonia + pleuritis

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29
Q

What gross clues are present in lungs that the cause of the pneumonia is bacteria?

A

Hyperaemic rim

  • increased arterial blood flow delivering inflammatory cells
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30
Q

What causes ‘snuffles’ in rabbits?

A

PASTEURELLA MULTICIDA

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31
Q

What clinical signs are associated with snuffles?

A

Chronic nasal discharge and sneezing
Sinisitis/rhinitis

Respiratory disease

Sometimes head tilt due to otitis media

Lungs - Pulmonary abscesses

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32
Q

Where does P.multocida colonise in rabbits?

A

Resp tract
Middle ear
Genitalia
Occasionally lungs

URT or LRT

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33
Q

Describe actinomyces sp.

A

Gram positive Aerobe
Branching filaments

Responsive to penicillin

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34
Q

Where is actinomyces found normally?

A

Oral cavity

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35
Q

How can actinomyces cause lower respiratory disease?

A

Pyogranulomatous lesions on the pleura (often w/ pyothorax)

Respiratory distress main CS

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36
Q

Where are nocardia found?

A

Soil

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37
Q

Describe nocardia

A

Gram positive
Branching filaments

ACID - FAST

RESISTANT TO PENICILLIN

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38
Q

Why are nocardia sp. resistant to penicillin?

What antimicrobial is indicated?

A

Lipids (mycolic acids) in cell wall mean that penicillin can’t penetrate TMP sulphonamides

39
Q

How can you differentiate actinomyces and nocardia?

A

Atmospheric requirement for culture (A- aerobic, N - 10% CO2)

Nocardia - ZN, dextrose agar

Actinomyces - susceptible to pen

40
Q

What is seen with nocardiosis/ actinomycosis?

A

Red-brown exudate in pleural cavity

SULPHUR GRANULES

May become chronic with adhesion formation

41
Q

What are sulphur granules?

A

Colonies of bacteria surrounded by host protein (Ig and complement)

42
Q

What causes canine aspergillosis?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

43
Q

When does aspergillosis occur?

A

In immunocompromised individuals

44
Q

What are the two types of aspergillosis in dogs?

A

Systemic aspergillosis

Nasal aspergillosis

45
Q

What is systemic aspergillosis?

A

Clinical signs depend on location
— can be in bones - lameness

BAD PROGNOSIS

46
Q

What is nasal aspergillosis?

A

Invasive sinusitis with persistent and profuse sanguino-purulent nasal discharge (usually unilateral)

47
Q

How is nasal aspergillosis treated?

A

Tubes inserted into sinus and antifungal infused

48
Q

Describe a colony of A.fumigatus

A

Blue colony with colourless periphery

49
Q

What breeds are predisposed to nasal aspergillosis?

A

Long nosed breeds - GSDs

Immunocompromised animals

50
Q

Describe the pathology of nasal aspergillosis

A

Nasal turbinates progressively destroyed by chronic granulomatous (and eosinophilic) inflammation

Yellow/green mycotic exudate in caudal nasal cavity

51
Q

What viruses cause respiratory disease in cattle and sheep?

A

Bovine herpesvirus
Respiratory syncytial virus
Bovine parainfluenza virus

52
Q

What bacteria cause respiratory disease in cattle and sheep?

A 
Mannheimia haemplytica 
Pasteurella multocida 
Histophilus somni
Mycobacterium spp.
Mycoplasma Spp
53
Q

What bacteria are associated with Bovine Respiratory disease?

A

Mannheimia
Pasteurella
Histophilus

(+some mycoplasma)

54
Q

What is shipping fever?

A

Bovine Respiratory disease complex (BRDC)

  • viruses - PI3 BVSV IBR
  • Bacteria - Mycoplasma, pasteurella, mannheimia
55
Q

How does PI3 result in BRDC?

A

Less pathogenic but damages the cilia to allow bacteria to colonise and cause disease

56
Q

What area of the respiratory tract is targeted by BHV and BVSV?

A

URT

57
Q

What clinical signs are associated with IBR?

A

Red nose - loss of epithelium over the nose and ulcerated nasal plenum

Trachea filled worth fibrinonecrotising diphtheria material - can cause asphyxiation

58
Q

Compare M haemolytica and P multocida in terms of cell and colony morphology

A

BOTH coccobacilli

M - grey colonies
P- whiter mucoid colonies

59
Q

How could you determine if histophilus is present?

A

Isolate from lung tissues - not distinctive clinical signs - pneumonia

60
Q

What follows respiratory infection in histophilus infections?

A

Septicaemia

Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME0 - HYPERACUTE CALF DEATH

61
Q

What antibiotic therapy is indicated for BRD?

A

Oxytetracycline
Ampicillin
Florfenicol
Macrolides

62
Q

What is seen on the surface of the lungs in Mannheimia and pasteurella pneumonia?

A

Fibrin

From leaky vessels

63
Q

Describe pneumonic pasteurellosis

A

Bronchopneumonia fibrinous to necrotising

Pleuritis frequent

Meningitis sometimes with poly arthritis in 2-4 month old housed calves

Sporadic peracute fatal mastitis in cows - transferred by suckling calves

64
Q

Describe mycobacteria

A 
Aerobic 
Non-motile
Gram positive (with mycolic acid)
Acid fast 
Bacilli
65
Q

Describe the pathology of bovine TB

A

Granulomatous pneumonia and lymphadenitis

Nodules have characteristic caseating cut surface
-multifocal white lesions through lung

66
Q

What are the smallest living bacteria?

A

Mycoplasma

67
Q

Describe mycoplasma

A

Small
NO CELL WALL
Poor survival outside host

68
Q

What disease complexes are mycoplasma involved in?

A

Bovine Respiratory Disease Complex

Porcine Respiratory Disease Complex

69
Q

What can mycoplasma bovis cause in cows?

A

Arthritis
Mastitis
Pneumonia (alone or with other BRDC pathogens)

70
Q

What pneumonia can mycoplasma cause in calves?

A

Cuffing pneumonia

Progressive cranioventral consolidation

Exudate in the main airways

Look similar to mycobacteria BUT tend to involve more neutrophils

71
Q

Describe the microscopic features of cuffing pneumonia

A

Lymphoid nodules and follicles around airways
Follicles may compress bronchial lumen

Cellular exudate in lumen
Slight thickening of alveolar walls with lymphocytes
Partial alveolar collapse

72
Q

What is the important goat mycoplasma?

A

M capricolum

- contagious caprine pleuropneumonia

73
Q

What are the key respiratory viruses of sheep?

Are there vaccines available?

A

PI3
RSV
Adenovirus (ovine and bovine)

NOT IN SHEEP

74
Q

What bacteria cause respiratory disease in horses?

A

Strep equi equi

Rhodococcus

Mycoplasma sp

75
Q

What viruses cause resp disease in horses?

A

Equine influenza

Equine herpes 1+4

76
Q

Describe strep equi

What is its lancefield group?

A

G+ cocci beta haemolytic

C

77
Q

What are the subspecies of strep equi?

Which is associated with strangles?

Which is contagious?

A

equi

78
Q

What is S.equi subsp zooepidemicus associated with?

A

Mastitis, URT+LRT infections navel infections

79
Q

what antimicrobial are all veterinary streptococci susceptible to?

A

Penicillin

80
Q

How can you gain a sample for suspected S. equi equi?

A

Nasal swab

81
Q

Describe the pathology of strangles

A

Suppurative lymphadenitis - LNs can rupture out onto the surface

PUS VERY INFECTIOUS

Guttural pouch empyaema

82
Q

Describe Rhodococcus equi

A

Aerobic non-motile Gram positive rods

83
Q

Where is rhodococcus found?

How is it transmitted?

A

Soil

Inhalation of contaminated dust

84
Q

What does rhodococcus cause?

A

Suppurative bronchopneumonia in foals (1-4 months)

85
Q

How can you treat a rhodococcus infection in foals?

A

Erythromycin with rifampicin

86
Q

What equine influenza subtypes infect the URT?

A

H7N7

H3N8

87
Q

What secondary infections tend to arise from EIV infection?

A

Strep, Staph, Klebsiella

88
Q

What causes guttural pouch mycosis in horses?

A

Aspergillus nidulans

89
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with equine guttural pouch mycosis?

A

Severe bleeding from the nose

Dysphagia

90
Q

What bacteria are associated with enzootic pneumonia in pigs?

A

Mycoplasma hypopneumoniae
Bbronchiseptica
-Multocida
Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

91
Q

What is DNT?

A

Dermonecrotic toxin

92
Q

Describe actinobacillus pleuroneumoniae

A

Aerobic
Gram negative
Rod

93
Q

What is Glasser’s disease?

A

Haemophilus parasuis

Suppurative bronchopneumonia

Polyserositis

94
Q

What causes contagious pleuropneumpnia in pigs?

A

ACTINOBACILLUS

BVetMed3 - Respiratory (5 decks)

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