Patho_onco Flashcards

1
Q

What is a Lipoma?

A

A soft, fatty lump that grows slowly under the skin.

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2
Q

What is a Fibroma?

A

A tumor made up of fibrous or connective tissue; can appear in various organs.

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3
Q

What is an Adenoma?

A

A benign tumor of glandular tissue, often found in glands like the thyroid, pituitary, or adrenal.

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4
Q

What is a Hemangioma?

A

A benign tumor formed from blood vessels; often seen in infants as a red birthmark.

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5
Q

What is a Neuroma?

A

A tumor composed of nerve tissue; may cause pain or discomfort, often found in peripheral nerves.

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6
Q

What is a Chondroma?

A

A benign tumor that develops in cartilage, commonly found in the bones.

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7
Q

What is an Osteoma?

A

A slow-growing bone tumor that can occur on the skull or facial bones.

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8
Q

What is a Meningioma?

A

A tumor that forms in the protective membranes of the brain; usually benign but may cause pressure effects.

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9
Q

What are Cysts?

A

Fluid-filled sacs that can occur in various tissues, such as sebaceous cysts or ovarian cysts.

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10
Q

What is a Myoma?

A

A benign tumor of muscle tissue, commonly found in the uterus.

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11
Q

What is Anaplasia?

A

Loss of cell differentiation and an indication of malignancy. Cells appear primitive and undifferentiated.

Commonly seen in aggressive cancers, like anaplastic carcinoma of the thyroid. Anaplastic features suggest a poor prognosis as cells have lost normal function.

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12
Q

What does Dysplasia refer to?

A

Abnormal growth or development of cells within a tissue, but cells are not yet malignant.

Cervical dysplasia (precancerous changes in the cervix), often detected by a Pap smear, is graded as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the degree of cellular abnormality.

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13
Q

Define Metaplasia.

A

Reversible transformation of one differentiated cell type into another differentiated cell type.

Barrett’s esophagus: squamous cells in the esophagus transform into columnar cells due to chronic acid exposure (GERD). Bronchial metaplasia occurs when normal ciliated columnar epithelium changes to squamous cells in response to smoking or chronic irritation.

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14
Q

What is Hyperplasia?

A

Increase in the number of normal cells within a tissue or organ, often as a response to a stimulus.

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH): enlargement of the prostate gland due to increased cell growth, common in older men.

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15
Q

Explain Hypertrophy.

A

Increase in cell size rather than cell number, typically in response to increased demand or stress.

Cardiac hypertrophy: heart muscle cells enlarge in response to high blood pressure to increase pumping capacity. Skeletal muscle hypertrophy: muscle cells increase in size due to strength training.

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16
Q

What does Neoplasia mean?

A

New, uncontrolled growth of cells that can be benign or malignant (tumors).

Lipoma: a benign fatty tumor, typically non-cancerous. Carcinoma: a malignant tumor arising from epithelial cells, such as in lung or breast cancer.

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17
Q

What are the characteristics of Anaplasia?

A

Cells are irregularly shaped, with high nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratios, abnormal mitoses, and hyperchromatic nuclei.

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18
Q

What are the characteristics of Dysplasia?

A

Cells show variation in size, shape, and organization; nuclear atypia (irregular nuclei) is common.

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19
Q

What happens to cells during Metaplasia?

A

Cells are replaced by a different cell type that is better suited to an abnormal environment; typically reversible if stimulus is removed.

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20
Q

How do cells appear in Hyperplasia?

A

Cells appear normal but are more numerous; can sometimes lead to dysplasia if uncontrolled.

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21
Q

Describe the structural changes in cells due to Hypertrophy.

A

Cells enlarge but remain structurally normal; does not involve cell division.

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22
Q

True or False: Neoplasia can only result in malignant tumors.

A

False.

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23
Q

What are the two types of genes in our body related to cancer?

A

Proto-oncogenes and Tumor Suppressor Genes

These genes play crucial roles in cell growth and division.

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24
Q

What happens when Proto-oncogenes convert into Oncogenes?

A

A problem occurs leading to uncontrolled cell growth

This conversion can lead to cancer development.

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25
Q

What is the normal role of Proto-oncogenes?

A

Promote cell growth and division

They are essential for normal cellular functions.

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26
Q

What is the normal role of Tumor Suppressor Genes?

A

Inhibit cell growth and promote DNA repair

They help maintain normal cell function and prevent cancer.

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27
Q

What is the mutation effect of Proto-oncogenes?

A

Gain-of-function (proto-oncogene → oncogene)

This leads to increased cell division.

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28
Q

What is the mutation effect of Tumor Suppressor Genes?

A

Loss-of-function (cannot stop abnormal cell growth)

This failure contributes to cancer progression.

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29
Q

How do Proto-oncogenes contribute to cancer?

A

Act like a ‘stuck gas pedal’ driving cell division

This uncontrolled division can lead to tumors.

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30
Q

How do Tumor Suppressor Genes contribute to cancer when malfunctioning?

A

Act like ‘broken brakes’ failing to stop cell division

This allows for unchecked cell growth.

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31
Q

Name two examples of Proto-oncogenes.

A
  • RAS
  • HER2
  • MYC

These genes are commonly associated with cancer.

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32
Q

Name two examples of Tumor Suppressor Genes.

A
  • TP53
  • RB1
  • BRCA1
  • BRCA2

These genes play a critical role in preventing cancer.

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33
Q

True or False: Having the BRCA1 gene guarantees the development of Breast Cancer.

A

False

The gene must mutate to increase cancer risk.

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34
Q

How can genes be tested in the body?

A

By scraping, saliva, or any body fluids

This tests for the presence or absence of specific genes.

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35
Q

What is the significance of mutations in Tumor Suppressor Genes?

A

They become a cause for concern when they mutate or turn abnormal

Normal function is critical for cancer prevention.

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36
Q

Fill in the blank: Proto-oncogenes ______ cell growth and division.

A

promote

They play a key role in normal cellular processes.

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37
Q

Fill in the blank: Tumor Suppressor Genes ______ cell growth and promote DNA repair.

A

inhibit

They are essential for controlling cellular functions.

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38
Q

What is the process of transformation in tumor development?

A

Inability to identify where the tumor cell growth is coming from

Transformation refers to the changes in cells that lead to tumor formation, making it difficult to trace their origin.

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39
Q

What characterizes the growth of transformed cells?

A

The uncontrolled proliferation of cells that have undergone transformation

Transformed cells exhibit abnormal growth patterns compared to normal cells.

40
Q

What is the significance of the invasion of tumor cells?

A

Tumor cells invade surrounding tissues

Invasion is a critical step in tumor progression, allowing cancer to disrupt normal tissue architecture.

41
Q

Define metastasis in the context of tumor development.

A

The spread of tumor cells to distant sites in the body

Metastasis is a major cause of cancer morbidity and mortality, as it allows tumors to establish secondary growths in organs far from the primary tumor.

42
Q

What does ‘Level of Differentiation’ refer to in neoplasms?

A

The degree to which the neoplasm resembles mature cells of the tissue of origin.

43
Q

Define a well differentiated neoplasm.

A

A neoplasm that resembles mature cells of the tissue of origin.

44
Q

What characterizes a poorly differentiated neoplasm?

A

It is composed of primitive cells with little differentiation.

45
Q

What is an undifferentiated / poorly differentiated or ‘anaplastic’ tumor?

A

A tumor that shows an aggressive tumor

46
Q

How does the level of differentiation affect prognosis?

A

The poorer the differentiation, the poorer the prognosis.

47
Q

Fill in the blank: A lymphoma that is labelled as a well-differentiated lymphoma is an example of _______.

A

[well differentiated neoplasm]

48
Q

What is the relationship between the differentiation of a neoplasm and its rate of growth?

A

The less differentiated a neoplasm, the faster it grows.

49
Q

What factors influence neoplastic growth?

A

Host factors and the ability of the tumor to develop a blood supply.

50
Q

What is angiogenesis and why is it important for tumors?

A

Angiogenesis is the formation of new blood vessels, which is crucial for tumor growth and can lead to a faster growth rate and poorer prognosis.

51
Q

Name two types of tumors that can grow rapidly.

A
  • Hodgkin lymphoma
  • Thyroid lymphoma
52
Q

How quickly can small cell lung carcinoma metastasize?

A

In a few weeks.

53
Q

What are the characteristics of benign tumors regarding local invasion?

A

Benign tumors are cohesive, have a rim of condensed connective tissue (capsule), and do not metastasize.

54
Q

What distinguishes malignant tumors in terms of local invasion?

A

Malignant tumors invade locally and do metastasize.

55
Q

List the steps involved in the local invasion of malignant tumors.

A
  • Detachment of tumor cells from each other
  • Attachment to matrix components
  • Degradation of matrix components
  • Migration of tumor cells
56
Q

What is the first step in the process of cellular movement?

A

Loosening of intercellular junctions

This step involves the detachment of cells from their neighbors.

57
Q

What are the four key processes involved in cell movement?

A
  • Detachment
  • Attachment
  • Degradation
  • Migration

These processes are crucial for cell migration during events like wound healing and cancer metastasis.

58
Q

What type of collagen is primarily involved in cell attachment?

A

Type IV collagen

Type IV collagen plays a significant role in the structure of the basement membrane.

59
Q

Name a receptor that interacts with fibronectin.

A

Fibronectin receptor

This receptor is essential for cell adhesion and migration.

60
Q

What is the role of cadherins in cellular processes?

A

Attachment

Cadherins are a class of type-1 transmembrane proteins that play a key role in cell-cell adhesion.

61
Q

What is the function of type IV collagenase?

A

Degradation

Type IV collagenase is an enzyme that breaks down type IV collagen, facilitating cell migration.

62
Q

What is a key enzyme involved in the degradation process during cell migration?

A

Plasminogen activator

Plasminogen activator helps convert plasminogen to plasmin, which is involved in breaking down fibrin and other proteins.

63
Q

What term describes the process of cells moving to other organs?

A

Metastasis

Metastasis is a hallmark of cancer, indicating the spread of malignant cells.

64
Q

What are the three pathways through which metastasis can occur?

A
  • Lymphatic
  • Hematogenous
  • Seeding of body cavities

These pathways represent the various ways cancer cells can spread throughout the body.

65
Q

True or False: Metastasis is an unequivocal sign of malignancy.

A

True

The presence of metastasis indicates that cancer has spread, confirming its malignant nature.

66
Q

What is the significance of nodal metastasis?

A

It is prognostic and an important component of the TNM staging system.

67
Q

What does the TNM in the TNM staging system stand for?

A

Tumor, Nodes, Metastasize.

68
Q

What stage is assigned to a small tumor with no spread to regional lymph nodes or metastasis?

A

Stage I.

69
Q

What does the classification T4N1M1 indicate?

A

Large tumor with spread to regional lymph nodes and other organs, considered Stage IV.

70
Q

What is the process called when cancer cells spread from the primary tumor?

A

Metastasis.

71
Q

Fill in the blank: The first step in metastasis is called _______.

A

Intravasation.

72
Q

What is the process where cancer cells attach to other tissues after traveling through the bloodstream?

A

Adhesion (to basement membrane)

73
Q

What term describes the exit of cancer cells from the bloodstream into surrounding tissues?

A

Extravasation.

74
Q

What is the final stage of cancer spread where tumor growth occurs at a distant site?

A

Metastatic Growth.

75
Q

What type of immune cells interact with metastatic tumors?

A

Lymphocytes.

76
Q

What role do platelets play in the process of metastasis?

A

They assist in the survival and spread of cancer cells.

77
Q

Fill in the blank: The process of a transformed cell expanding and diversifying is called _______.

A

Clonal expansion.

78
Q

What does ECOG stand for?

A

Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group

79
Q

What is the highest score on the ECOG Performance Status scale?

A

0

80
Q

True or False: An ECOG score of 4 indicates that a patient is fully active and able to carry on all pre-disease activities.

A

False

81
Q

Fill in the blank: An ECOG score of 2 indicates that a patient is ________ and cannot work but is able to walk and take care of most personal needs.

A

ambulatory

82
Q

What does an ECOG score of 3 signify?

A

The patient is capable of only limited self-care and is confined to a bed or chair more than 50% of the time.

83
Q

Which ECOG score represents a patient who is completely disabled and cannot carry on any self-care?

A

4

84
Q

Multiple Choice: What ECOG score corresponds to a patient who is fully active without restrictions? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3

A

A) 0

85
Q

What ECOG score indicates a patient who is unable to walk and is in a state of coma or severe disability?

A

4

86
Q

True or False: An ECOG score of 1 means the patient is symptomatic but still ambulatory.

A

True

87
Q

What is the purpose of the ECOG Performance Status scale?

A

To assess a patient’s level of functioning and ability to carry out daily activities.

88
Q

What is hypoplasia?

A

Fewer cells than what is deemed a normal amount, usually benign

Example: micromastia (postpubertal female breast underdevelopment)

89
Q

Define dysplasia.

A

A change in the normal shape, size, and organization of cells, usually a response to chronic irritation

Example: cigarette smoke or inflammation

90
Q

What happens to dysplastic changes if the stimulus is removed?

A

Changes are reversible

91
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A

Increased cell number under normal proliferation regulatory mechanisms

Example: callus formation on skin exposed to trauma/pressure

92
Q

What is metaplasia?

A

A change in the cell type, such as ciliated columnar epithelium becoming stratified squamous epithelium due to prolonged irritation

Example: smoking

93
Q

What occurs to metaplastic changes if the stimulus is removed?

A

Changes are reversible

94
Q

Define neoplasia.

A

Abnormal multiplication of cells due to loss of normal proliferation regulation and absence of stimuli

Also known as ‘cells manifesting hyperplasia with atypia’

95
Q

What is anaplasia?

A

A reversal in differentiation and loss of structural & functional differentiation of normal cells

Characteristic of cancerous tumors

96
Q

Are the changes in anaplasia reversible?

A

No, they are not reversible in nature

97
Q
A