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pathophysiology > patho test 3 > Flashcards

patho test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

name the protein responsible for cystic fibrosis and the subcellular location

A

protein: cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR), a cAMP activated, ATP-gated anion
sub-cellular location: plasma membrane

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2
Q

describe two key functions of CFTR

A
  1. secretes chloride into the airway lumen

2. inhibits Enac

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3
Q

name two physiological anions of CFTR conducts

A

Chloride, bicarbonate

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4
Q

describe roles of ATP and cAMP in CFTR functional regulation

A

ion channel allows specific ions to flow across the membrane down the electrochemical gradient. controls the opening of the channel to the ion by gating

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5
Q

recognize two major pathogens in CF airway infection

A 
staphylococcus aureus (first pathogen to infect the airway, common in childeren)
pseudomonas aeruginosa (opportunistic, prevelent in adults, biofilm formation)
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6
Q

name the pathogen that forms biofilm

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

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7
Q

describe ppFEV1 in the context of CF lung disease

A

forced expiration volume in one second. percent predicted FEV1 greater than 80% normal - evidence of pulmonary function tests

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8
Q

describe mucociliary clearance in airway defense against pathogens

A

bacteria will drop on surface and cause infection if no mucus. cilia pushes the mucus together. defense agianst the pathogens

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9
Q

specific defect in mucociliary clearance in CF airway

A

causes an exaggerated immune response of mucus plugging with airway inflammation (pulmazyme, ibprofen) and bacterial infection and colonization (antibiotics)

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10
Q

mechanism of action of pulmozyme

A

DNase cleaves extracellular DNA tor reduce mucus viscosity. pulmozyme opens the lungs by thinning the mucus. extracellular DNA -> mucus from the WBC. Major content of mucus is DNA

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11
Q

describe bronchietasis in CF

A

localized, irreversible dilation of bronchi from adverse inflammatory damage

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12
Q

name the tissue and cell type where CF pancreatic pathophys originates

A

acinar cells - synthesis and secretion of pancreatic enzymes.

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13
Q

name the primary anion that CFTR secretes in the pancreas

A

secretes bicarbonate due to low chloride

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14
Q

describe how CF patients develop pancreatitis

A

there is obstruction to the duct cells from a CFTR deficiency causes an effect on the exocrine pancreas. This affects the Acinar cells to have a synthesis and secretion of pancreatic enzymes (for digestion). These extra lipases and proteases chew on nearby tissue which causes pancreatitis.

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15
Q

describe the distribution of CFTR in the epithelia of the GI (villus vs crypt)

A

crypt is where CFTR is expressed - it is where the basolateral fluid secretion occurs - part of the distal small intestine and colon

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16
Q

describe the primary anion that CFTR secretes in the gut

A

Cl-?

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17
Q

the key GI pathophys of CF

A

impaired chloride secretion leads to intestinal obstruction and chronic constipation because of inadequate hydration in maconium ileus. the cholera toxin can couse GTPase inhibition which can cause CFTR over-activation and diarrhea because of too much cl-

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18
Q

describe cell types that express CFTR in the liver and gallbladder

A

apical membrane of the epithelia of the intra and extra hepatic bile ducts and gallbladder but NOT hepatocytes

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19
Q

describe how CF patients develop diabetes

A

The obstruction on the duct cells from a CFTR deficiency has an effect on the endocrine pancreas (where insulin/glucagon are produced . The inappropriate activation of retained enzymes has an effect on the islets of Langerhans - deficiency in this causes a deficiency in insulin secretion - causes CF-related diabetes

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20
Q

primary functions of the respiratory system

A

to oxygenate and eliminate co2

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21
Q

alveolar space

A

exchange = ventilation

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22
Q

unidirectional blood flow

A

blood flows through the lung to absorb oxygen from the alveoli and loses CO2 to inspired gas

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23
Q

Air enters the upper respiratory tract and passes through

A
  1. pharynx
  2. larynx
  3. trachea
  4. primary bronchi which branch into smaller bronchi
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24
Q

trachea and bronchi

A

semirigid tubes supported by cartilage

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25
Q

bronchioles

A

small collapsible airways with walls of smooth muscle

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26
Q

tidal volume

A

amount of air that moves into the lungs with each inspiration or the amount that moves out with each expiration during quiet breathing

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27
Q

inspiratory reserve volume

A

air inspired with a maximal inspiratory effort in excess of the TV

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28
Q

expiratory reserve volume

A

the volume expelled by an active expiratory effort after passive expiration

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29
Q

residual volume

A

air left in the lungs after a maximal expiratory rate

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30
Q

total lung capacity

A

comprised of residual volume, expiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume

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31
Q

successful external respiration

A

ventilate, perfuse alveolus, allow adequate diffusion of respiratory gases, accomodate several fold increases in demand for oxygen uptake or CO2 elimination imposed by metabolic needs or acid-base disturbances

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32
Q

asthma - 2 components

A

chronic inflammatory condition by dysregulation of:

  1. smooth muscle tone in the airways
  2. immune function in the airways
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33
Q

which airways will be most compromised - why

A

narrow most compromised - why????

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34
Q

main characteristics of asthma

A
  1. smooth muscle hyper responsiveness
  2. airway inflammation
  3. symptomatic bronchoconstriction
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35
Q

hyperresponsiveness

A

propensity for the airways of asthmatic patients to constrict in response to stimuli: allergens, environmental irritants, exercise, cold air and infections

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36
Q

hypersensitivity

A

hypersensitivity is normal response to abnormal low levels of stimuli

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37
Q

hyperreactivity

A

exaggerated response to normal levels of stimuli

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38
Q

T lymphocytes

A

crucial roll in controlling the immune response, major source of cytokines
read and recognize the antigens to coordinate an immune response
Th` switches off Th2

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39
Q

Th1 response

A

cellular immune response - does not involve antibodies

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40
Q

Th2 response

A

humoral immune response - involves antibody production by B-cells - exaggerated response in asthma

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41
Q

IL-4

A

induces B cells to produce exaggerated amounts of IgE antibodies against the allergen - Th2

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42
Q

IgE

A

IgE antibodies bind to IgE receptors on the surface of mast cells in the airways, upon re-exposure to the allergen and binding to the IgE/IgE recepter complex of mast cells: mast cell degranulation triggers an allergic reaction

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43
Q

omalizumab

A

monoclonal antibody directed against IgE and is the first biologic therapy to treat asthma - binds to circulating IgE to decrease the cell-bound IgE, decreases the expression of high affinity receptors. mast cell degranulation will decrease and antigen to receptor will decrease IgE and decrease receptor expression, dec asthma symptoms, allergic inflammation, and exacerbations - normal people have IgG so they do not get this response! Controller!

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44
Q

activated mast cells degranulate and release

A

histamine, leukotrienes, and proteases/proteoglycans

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45
Q

histamine

A

promotes capillary leakage leading to airway edema

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46
Q

leukotrienes

A

establish a delayed yet potent inflammatory effect

  • induce bronchoconstriction (SM contraction)
  • cause mucus hypersecretion
  • cause capillary leakage worsening airway edema
  • recruit inflammatory cells (esinophils)
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47
Q

proteases/proteoglycans

A

induce chronic changes in airway remodeling
hyperplasia (enlargement) of airway smooth muscle cells/mucus producing cells
fibrosis in collagen deposition
causes irreversible narrowing of the airways

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48
Q

montelukast

A

potent and selective antagonist of leukotriene D4 by blocking the physiologic actions of the leukotriene at its receptor (plasma exudation, mucus secretion, bronchoconstriction, and eosinophil recruitment would all be inhibited)

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49
Q

IL-13

A

response to Th2. causes goblet cells hyperplasia (mucus producing in airways) increased mucus production
causes the smooth muscle hyperplasia and/or hypertrophy, enhances smooth muscle contractility, airway remodeling: fibrosis, and stimulates IgE

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50
Q

IL-5

A

recruits eosinophils and promotes eosinophil proliferation, release from bone marrow and survival

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51
Q

mepolizumab

A

monoclonal antibody that targets IL-5. blocks IL-5 from binding to the receptor on the eosinophil surface. all events of creating and recruiting eosinophils will be inhibited

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52
Q

how to describe air flow and air resistance in asthmatics

A

air flow - reduced

airway resistance - increased

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53
Q

factors contributing to reduced airflow

A
  • bronchoconstriction
  • airway edema
  • vascular congestion
  • mucus production
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54
Q

asthma is an obstructive or restrictive lung disease

A

obstructive

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55
Q

FEV1 in asthma

A

FEV1 is forced expiratory volume in the first minute - it is reduced

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56
Q

FVC in asthm

A

reduced, it is the forced vital capacity

57
Q

FEV1/FVC

A

reduced

58
Q

acute asthma you will expect

A

air to be trapped in the lung
increased residual volume
hyperinflation from air trapped in the lungs

59
Q

alveoli distal to the obstructed airways are (under/over) ventilated leading to mild arterial hypoxemia

A

under ventilated - supplementation with oxygen can correct hypoxemia

60
Q

atopy

A

means allergy- strongest genetic risk factor- genetic predisposition to develop specific IgE antibodies directed against common environmental allergens

61
Q

hygiene hypothesis

A

exposure to infections results in a shift towards a predominant protective Th1 immune response. so infections may increase the risk for asthma. infections are however are an important trigger of acute attacks in asthmatic patients

62
Q

asthma risk factors

A

allergens/occupational exposure

obesity increases asthma risk

63
Q

relievers

A

alleviate smooth muscle bronchoconstriction

64
Q

controllers (preventers)

A

reduce airway inflammation, pathophysiologic basis for asthma, reduce acute attacks - anti-inflammatory agents

65
Q

relievers

A

alleviate smooth muscle bronchoconstriction

66
Q

albuterol

A

sympathetic activation - induces broncho dilation by acting on smooth muscle cells - reliever

67
Q

B2 - agonists

A

B2 agonists activate B2 adrenergic receptors which are widely expressed in the airways. B2 receptor activation results in increased intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate, which relaxes smooth muscle cells and inhibits inflammatory cells - mast cells

68
Q

anticholinergic agents

A

parasympathetic cholinergic activation acts on the muscurinic receptors in the airway smooth muscle that are activated by acetylcholine. acting as an agonist causes

69
Q

side effects of anticholinergic

A

dry mouth, increased heart rate, urinary retention

70
Q

why is it important to add a controller medication and not just treat the acute event

A

airway remodeling

71
Q

COPD

A

chronic and progressive inflammatory lung disease in response to noxious particles or gases, preventable and treatable lung disorder. not fully reversible

72
Q

cigarette smoking affects COPD

A

components of tobacco activate inflammatory cells - produce and release inflammatory mediators characteristic of COPD

73
Q

important component in COPD

A

chronic bronchitis
emphysema
small airway disease: small bronchioles are narrowed - bronchoconstriction

74
Q

chronic bronchitis

A
  • long-term condition, inflammation of the bronchial tubes - large airway disease
  • inflammatory condition with chronic or recurrent mucus secretion into the bronchial tree
75
Q

chronic cough and sputum

A

cough present for at least 3 months of the year for 2 consecutive years in a patient whom has chronic cough that’s excluded

76
Q

emphysema

A

abnormal enlargement of the airspaces distal to the terminal bronchioles with destruction of their walls - destruction of lung parenchyma

77
Q

COPD targets which structures

A

primary/secondary bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli

78
Q

underlying problem in COPD

A

exposure to noxious particles that sustain inflammatory response - inflammation targets the large and small airways, pulmonary vasculature and lung parenchyma result in chronic airflow limitation -

79
Q

airflow limitation in COPD from

A

small airway obstruction and emphysema

80
Q

inflammatory response in COPD

A

release elastolytic and proteinases that damage the extracellular matrix of the lung - structural cell death (endothelial and epithelial cells) causes the release of free radicals

81
Q

extracellular matrix

A

tissue-specific macromolecular structure that provides physical support to tissues and essential for normal organ function

82
Q

ineffective repair of structural damage results in

A

emphysema

83
Q

major inflammatory cells in COPD

A

neutrophils

84
Q

major inflammatory cells in asthma

A

mast cells, eosinophils

85
Q

inflammatory mediators

A

leukotriene B4, interleukin 8 and tumor necrosis factor alpha

86
Q

inflammatory mediators in asthma

A

leukotriene D4, IL-4,5,13

87
Q

why wold montelukast be a bad option for COPD

A

potent and selective antagonist to leukotriene D4 not leukotriene B4!!

88
Q

inflammation in large airways or bronchitis cause cough and sputum associated to

A

mucus gland enlargement, goblet hyperplasia (mucus producing cells), cigarette smoke paralyzes the cilia that sweep the mucus and debris out of the airways. as a consequence, patient may be at an increased risk for developing respiratory infection

89
Q

metaplasia

A

bronchi undergo squamous metaplasia - replacement of one differentiated somatic cell type with another in the same tissue. benign non-cancerous change of surface lining cells (epithelium) to squamous morphology - thin flat cells look like fish scales and found in the tissue that forms the surface of the skin - lesions may progress to dysplasia and then to squamous cell carcinoma

90
Q

neutrophil infiltration

A

purulent (discharge or pus) sputum

91
Q

goblet cell metaplasia and in correlation with mucus

A

cells replace surfactant producing Clara cells in the respiratory bronchioles: mucus production will increase - reduced surfactant will increase surface tension at the air-tissue interface predisposing to airway collapse

92
Q

role of surfactant

A
  1. decrease surface tension of fluid lining the alveoli reducing the likelihood that the lung will collapse
  2. increase the compliance of the normal lung so that less work is expended for breathing
  3. surfactant keeps the alveoli dry. high surface tension sucks fluid from alveolar walls with decreased surface tension provided by the surfactant - alveolar space is maintained in a relatively dry state - alveoli are covered with a thin fluid layer rather than filling up with fluid
93
Q

structures compromised in COPD

A
  • thickening of vessels bc hypoxia which inc pulmonary pressure
  • endothelium becomes dysfunctional
  • severe COPD: secondary pulmonary hypertension causing right sided failure
94
Q

COPD host factors

A
  • genetic predisposition
  • airway hyperresonsiveness: condition associated to asthma
  • impaired lung growth associated to low birth weight, prematurity at birth or childhood illness. prevent maximal lung growth
95
Q

COPD environmental factors

A

particle inhalation that results in inflammation and cell injury, environmental tobacco smoke, occupational dust and chemicals, air pollution

96
Q

genetic predisposition to COPD

A

hereditary deficiency of Alpha antitrypsin (AAT) -
AAT protects cells from destruction by elastase as elastase destroys fibers that allows the lungs to inflate and deflate - why pts have emphysema - develop COPD at an early age if they have this genetic disposition

97
Q

inc/dec of forced expiratory flow rate, residual volume, residual volume/total lung capacity, FEV/FVC, FEV

A

dec forced expiratory flow
inc in residual volume (can result in barrel chest)
inc in residual volume/ total lung capacity ratio
dec in FEV and FEV/FVC ratio

98
Q

ventilation in COPD

A

nonuniform distribution of ventilation

ventilation-perfusion mismatching also occur

99
Q

lung hyperinflation

A

positive abdominal pressure during inspiration not applied as effectively to the chest wall. flat diaphragm has harder time doing normal pressure. cage is distended beyond normal resting volume. tidal breathing the inspiratory muscles must overcome the resistance of the thoracic cage to inflate - impairment of inspiration

100
Q

nonuniform distribution of ventilation in COPD - why

A

parenchymal compartments have different rates of ventilation due to regional differences in compliance and airway resistance as a consequence of airway remodeling and parenchyma destruction

101
Q

why does ventilation perfusion mismatching occur

A

low in partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood. supplementation with oxygen is effective

102
Q

exacerbation in COPD

A

exacerbation of the inflammatory response, worsening of the lung, hyperinflation contributing to worsening dyspnea and poor gas exchange - leads to hypoxia and hypercapnia, respiratory acidosis and respiratory failure - can be corrected with oxygen

103
Q

COPD immunological complicatons

A

increased risk for respiratory infections

104
Q

COPD cardiovascular infections

A

pulmonary hypertension and heart failure

105
Q

COPD cancer

A

lung cancer

106
Q

COPD bronchodilators to improve symptoms

A

beta agonists, cholinergic activity

107
Q

What needs to be controlled in COPD and how

A

inflammation - control by inhaled/oral glucocorticoids

108
Q

pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) definition

A

group 1 pulmonary hypertension, progressive disorder, elevation in arterial pressure and pulmonary vascular resistance, may progress to right heart dysfunction and failure. vascular remodeling

109
Q

PAH etiology

A
  1. idiopathic (no known cause)
  2. familial: hereditary
  3. connective tissue disease: scleroderma and RA
  4. congenital heart disease
  5. HIV can play a role in developing PAH
110
Q

portal hypertension

A

increased CO and reduced systemic vascular resistance leading to pulmonary arterial pressure. increased levels of circulating vasoconstrictor substances: endothelin 1

111
Q

anorexigens

A

appetite suppressent. increased serotonin which acted as a growth factor for pulmonary arterial smooth muscle

112
Q

endothelial dysfunction

A

dysfunctional endothelium alters vasodialator/vasoconstriction balance. abnormal proliferation of the smooth muscle cells (normal endo inhibits this). the earliest pathological features of vascular remodeling.

113
Q

procoagulant state

A

reduced lumen favor in situ thrombosis. lung vascular continues with abnormal proliferation and differentiation of fibroblasts and increased extracellular matrix deposition and chronic inflammatory events in the adventitia

114
Q

proliferation of smooth muscle cells leads to

A

medial hypertrophy in pulmonary muscular arteries: muscularization and advanced leads to intimal fibrosis

115
Q

blocking of lumen from

A

disorganized proliferation of apoptosis-resistant endothelial cells, smooth muscle cells, fibroblasts, and macrophages lead to formation of a plexiform lesion: blocks lumen

116
Q

PAH molecular mediators

A

prostacyclin (PGI2), thromboxane, endothelin-1, nitric oxide, 5-HT and coagulation factors

117
Q

PGI2

A

vasodilatory and anti proliferative substance produced by the endothelial cells and the synthesis of PGI2 and its circulating levels are decreased in PAH

118
Q

thromboxane

A

vasodialator, increased in PAH

119
Q

ET-1

A

produced in the edothelium and possesses potent vasoconstrictor and mitogenic effects ( inc mitosis and cell proliferation) levels are increased and clearance is reduced in PAH

120
Q

NO

A

produced in the endothelium via NO synthase and leads to vasodialation through calcium channel inhibition - leads to vasoconstriction and cell proliferation when no NO in PAH

121
Q

NO

A

produced in the endothelium via NO synthase and leads to vasodilation through calcium channel inhibition - leads to vasoconstriction and cell proliferation when no NO in PAH

122
Q

5-HT

A

elevated in PAH and vasoconstriction mediated via the increased expression of the 5-HT receptor seen in PAH

123
Q

PAH coagulation factors

A

increased von willebrand factor
increased plasminogen activator inhibitor-1
reduced levels of tissue plasminogen activator
increased levels of 5-HT
increased thromboxane: vasoconstrictor and stimulus for platelet aggregation

124
Q

signs and symptoms of PAH

A

dyspnea, fatigue, weakness, chest pain, presyncope/syncope, lower extremity edema, abdominal bloating/distension

125
Q

pharmacologic target

A

supplementing endogenous vasodilators
inhibiting endogenous vasoconstrictors
reducing endothelial platelet interaction and limiting thrombosis

126
Q

for efficient gas exchange

A

very high flow of blood at a very low pressure to limit alveolar injury and pulmonary edema - the right ventricle is designed to accept a large blood volume (preload) and pump blood against a low resistance (after load)

127
Q

in PAH Right ventricle

A

RV will need more strength and more muscle to push through the pulmonary artery to a point where the right heart starts to dilate and fail as it is unable to meet the increased demands of the after load (resistance). PAH has a progressive increase in after load or PVR to a point where the right heart starts to dilate and fail. as it is unable to meet the increased demand of after load.

128
Q

know the general anatomy smooth muscle, nerve, specialized cells in GI

A

enteric NS or enteric plexus - regulates movement and secretions

  1. serosa- connective tissue layer, peritoneum
  2. muscularis- circular muscle layer, longitudinal muscle layer
  3. submucosa
  4. mucosa- mucos epithelium, lamina propria, muscularis mucosa

specialized cells: digestive enzymes, mucous, acid, HCO3-, endocrine products
sympathetic (post gang)
parasymp (pregang)

129
Q

name the 4 main saliva functions

A
  1. soften / moisten food: lubricates foot to facilitate swallowing
  2. taste: dissolves food so we can taste it
  3. defense: from pathogens, cell damage, self-digestion (IgA prevents infection, lysozyme prevents bacterial growth)
  4. digestion of starch and some fat: digestion of carbs by amylase and fats by lipase
130
Q

describe the role of the autonomic NS in the regulation of saliva secretion

A

salivary glands regulated by PNS. release of Ach to M3 inc saliva production

131
Q

describe the nervous system control of swallowing and the primary type of motility found in the esophagus

A
  1. voluntary phase of the skeletal muscle controlled by somatic motor NS
  2. involuntary phase controlled by smooth muscle innervated by the ANS. food entering and exiting esophagus controlled by two sphincter, one on top esophagus and upper esophageal sphincter and one at the bottom, the lower esophageal sphincter (barrier between stomach and esophagus)
132
Q

describe the functions of the stomach

A
  1. food storage - gastric emptying rate controlled by pyrolic valve
  2. digestion- mechanical and chemical mixing of food to produce chyme
  3. protection: kills pathogens, denatures proteins
    little absorption of nutrients but asprin and alcohol can both be absorbed
133
Q

describe the function of all products secreted by gastric pits

A

mucus, acid, pepsin, endocrine products

134
Q

gastrin

A

secreted: stomach,
acts in: ECL and parietal cells, stimulates gastric acid secretion and mucosal growth, stimulus of release: peptide and AA, neural reflexes
inhibited by somatostatin

135
Q

CCK

A

secreted: intestine, produced by ENS neurons and endocrine cells of the duodenum and jejunum
acts in: gallbladder, pancreas, and stomach, stimulates gallbladder contraction and decreases motility, stimulates pancreatic secretion and inhibits gastric acid secretion, fatty acid and some amino acids are stimulus

136
Q

secretin

A 
secreted: intestine
acts in: pancreas, stomach
inhibits gastric emptying and motility
stimulates hco3- secretion from pancreas/ inhibits acid secretion from parietal cells
stimulus: acid in small intestine
137
Q

motilin

A

secreted: intestine, endocrine cells
acts: gastric / intestinal smooth muscle
stimulates migrating motor complex
fasting; periodic release every 1.5 hours inhibited by eating

138
Q

GIP “incretin”

A

secreted: intestine
acts: beta cells of pancreas
stimulates insluin release and inhibits acid secretion
inhibits gastric emptying
stimulus: glucose, fatty acids, AA in small intestines

139
Q

GLP-1 “incretin”

A

secreted: intestine
acts: endocrine pancreas
motility: inhibits gastric emptying and inhibits food intake
stimulates insulin synthesis and release, inhibits glucagon release
stimulus: meal of fats / carbs in the lumen

pathophysiology (11 decks)

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