Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nursing school level 2 > patho test 2 drugs > Flashcards

patho test 2 drugs Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

bacteriostatic

A

inhibit growth of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MOA of sulfonamides

A

inhibits bacterial synthesis of folic acid (DNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what cells are not affected by sulfonamides

A

cells requiring exogenous b-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

sulfonamides are highly concentrated in the

A

kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

example of sulfonamides

A

bactrim (Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

adverse effect of bactrim

A

integumentary considerations and immune mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what drugs/disease process can have potential interactions with sulfanomides

A

DM when taking sulfonylureas which can cause hypoglycemia and epilepsy when taking phenytoin which can cause nystagmus, encephalopathy, dysarthria, and ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

examples of sulfonylureas

A

glipizide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MOA of glipizide

A

stimulate beta cells (insulin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

phenytoin does what to clearance

A

reduces it which can increase effects of other drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

bactericidal

A

enter cell wall and lyse bacteria - work on gram positive bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

penicillin is a

A

bactericidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when is PCN IV used

A

for HF, card dys, FVO, CKD - added to Na and/or K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

adverse effects of penicillin

A

urticaria, pruritus, angioedema, rash, anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PCN G

A

IM penicillin - used for uncomplicated syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

if patient is allergic to penicillin they could also be allergic to

A

cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

antibiotic used for meningitis

A

ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

phenazopyridine also called

A

pyridium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

phenazopyridine for

A

topical analgesic. can buy over the counter. for pain, during, and urgency of urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

bacteria that has evolved with beta lactamase

A

E. coli - has figured out how to break the beta lactam ring so we needed to figure out a way to inhibit that actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

antibiotics that bacteria can’t break the beta-lactam ring

A

ampicillin and pipercillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

beta lactase inhibitors are considered

A

time dependent killers in which we have to meet a minimum inhibitory concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cephalosporin beta lactams are similar to

A

penicillins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

cephalosporin beta lactams spectrum

A

broad spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how many generations of cephalosporin beta lactams are there

A

5 and gram negative coverage increases with each generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

cefazolin

A

(ancef) - first generation cephalosporin - most gram positive coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is cefazolin used for

A

surgical prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ceftriaxone

A

(Rocephin) third generation cephalosporin- can cross the blood brain barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how often do you give ceftriaxone

A

long acting (every 24 hr dose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is ceftriaxone given for

A

since it can cross the blood brain barrier it is given for meningitis but also broad spectrum so can be given for UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

cefepime

A

(Maxipime) 4th generation cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is cefepime used for

A

complicated UTI, skin infections, and community acquired PNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

ceftaroline

A

(Teflaro) 5th generation cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is ceftaroline effective against

A

MRSA and used for C-A PNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

carbapenems MOA

A

inhibits cell wall synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

carbapenems spectrum

A

broadest spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

carbapenems are used for

A

acutely ill and complicated infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

carbapenems have cross sensitivity with

A

penicillins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

carbapenems need to be infused over

A

60 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

carbapenems can cause drug induced

A

seizure activity that is more likely in geriatrics and those with CKD and is dependent on dosing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

carbapenems example

A

imipenem/cilastatin (Primaxin), meropenem (Merrem), Ertapenem (Invanz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

cilastatin inhibits _________ from breaking down ________

A

cilastatin inhibits dehydropeptidase from breaking down imipenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

imipenem/cilastatin (Primaxin) is effective against

A

evolved bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

imipenem/cilastatin (Primaxin) indication

A

endocarditis (MRSA), hospital acquired pneumonia, intraabdominal infection, sepsis, UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Macrolides MOA

A

antibiotic - bacteriostatic that inhibits RNA protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Macrolides indication

A

chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, infection of eye, skin, and respiratory infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Macrolides example

A

erythromycin and azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

erythromycin side effects

A

it stimulates GI motility so N/V/D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

azithromycin dosed

A

every 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

aminoglycocides

A

antibiotic used for virulent gram negative bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

aminoglycocides example

A

gentamicin and tobramycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

aminoglycocides has what type of effect

A

synergistic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

synergistic effect

A

the effect of 2 antibiotics used together is greater than each of them used alone. using beta lactams to break down cell wall makes it easier to get another antibiotic in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

aminoglycocides side effects

A

ototoxic, nephrotoxic, and neurotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

aminoglycocides ototoxicity can cause

A

damage to CN 8, dizziness, tinnitus, hearing loss that is permanent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

aminoglycocides nephrotoxicity can cause

A

proteinuria, urine casts, and reversible abnormal renal labs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

aminoglycocides should be dosed based off

A

renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

aminoglycocides neurotoxicity can cause

A

altered level of conscious to paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

clindamycin IND

A

sepsis, PNA, and bone, skin, respiratory, GU infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

clindamycin contraindicated in

A

ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

clindamycin can enhance

A

vecuronium which can lead to respiratory paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

linezolid also called

A

Zyvox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

zyvox has been created to treat

A

VRE and also affective against MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

zyvox indication

A

skin and PNA with resistant bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

zyvox availability

A

great oral availability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

side effects of zyvox

A

N/V/D, decrease platelets, serotonin toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

eating tyramine finds with zyvox can

A

increase blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

zyvox can interact with what drugs

A

it can strengthen vasopressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

vancomycin

A

used to treat MRSA, gram positive, and severe bone/skin infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

oral form of vancomycin used for

A

C. diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

vancomycin side effects

A

ooo-nephron-neuro toxic, can cause additive neuromuscular blockade effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

if vancomycin infused too fast it can cause

A

hypotension or red man syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

how fast should vancomycin be administered

A

over more than 60 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

corticosteroids example

A

methylprednisolone and prednisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

biologics include

A

anti-cancer and anti-TNF drugs

76
Q

anti-TNF drug

A

adalimumab (Humira) and infliximab (Remicade)

77
Q

TNF is a

A

pro inflammatory cytokine

78
Q

IND for humira

A

RA, psoriasis, inflammatory bowel disease

79
Q

BBW of humira

A

infection and cancer risk

80
Q

infliximab (Remicade)

A

anti-TNF drug contraindicated in HF and has BBW of risk of infection and cancer

81
Q

immunomodulator examples

A

methotrexate and cyclosporine

82
Q

cyclosporine is for

A

organ rejection prevention

83
Q

what antibiotics should you take for inflammatory bowel disease

A

ciprofloxacin or metronidazole (flagyl)

84
Q

ciprofloxacin BBW

A

tendon rupture

85
Q

anticholinergics do what

A

slow peristalsis and have a drying effect on secretions

86
Q

anticholinergics example

A

belladonna alkaloids also called donnatal elixir

87
Q

belladonna alkaloids onset

A

1-2 hours

88
Q

side effect of anticholinergics

A

urinary retention

89
Q

opiates for diarrhea

A

slows peristalsis and has anticholinergic effects

90
Q

example of opiates used for diarrhea

A

diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) and loperamide (Imodium A-D)

91
Q

diphenoxylate with atropine (Lomotil) onset

A

45-60 minutes

92
Q

loperamide (Imodium A-D) onset

A

1-3 hours

93
Q

bulk forming laxatives

A

absorb water into the intestines

94
Q

bulk forming laxatives example

A

psyllium (Metamucil)

95
Q

psyllium (Metamucil) is made from

A

seeds

96
Q

emollient laxatives

A

help water and fat into the the stool to soften it and to lubricate intestinal wall

97
Q

emollient laxatives example

A

decusate (colace) and oil enema

98
Q

decusate (colace) useful for

A

fecal impactions and hemorrhoids

99
Q

hyperosmotic laxative

A

draws water into colon

100
Q

hyperosmotic laxative example

A

lactulose

101
Q

lactulose can be given

A

orally or rectally

102
Q

lactulose does what

A

sugar draws water into bowel, converts ammonia into ammonium which cannot be reabsorb so it leaves with the stool

103
Q

stimulant laxative

A

stimulates nerves that innervate intestines to increase peristalsis and inhibits water reabsorption

104
Q

what laxative is most likely to cause dependence

A

stimulant laxative

105
Q

stimulant laxative example

A

bisacodyl (dulcolax) and Senna (senokot)

106
Q

bisacodyl (dulcolax)is given

A

oral or rectal suppository

107
Q

Senna (senokot) does what

A

causes bowel evacuation within 6-12 hours - may cause abd pain and is used for surgery if they want the bowels completely empty

108
Q

most misused over the counter drugs

A

laxatives

109
Q

laxatives are contraindicated in

A

fecal impaction, intestinal obstruction, and abdominal pain

110
Q

what can restore normal flora balance

A

lactobacillus

111
Q

if patient is on _____ of glucocorticoids they will need____

A

taking 10 mg or more of glucocorticoids daily they will need stress dosing in times of trauma

112
Q

exogenous administration of glucocorticoids causes

A

endogenous secretions to stop

113
Q

glucocorticoids do what

A

control inflammatory response by decreasing capillary permeability, decreases migration of WBC, and stabilizing mast cells. they also promote glycogenesis and stimulate bone demineralization

114
Q

glucocorticoids cause a risk for

A

circulatory collapse

115
Q

increased sodium and water cause K+ and H+ to

A

decrease

116
Q

glucocorticoids examples

A

hydrocortisone, solu-medrol, prednisone, and dexamethasone

117
Q

solu-medrol is for

A

rescue IV drug

118
Q

glucocorticoids IND

A

LUPUS, MS, ulcerative colitis, crohns, skin disorders, asthma, COPD, organ transplant, spinal cord injuries

119
Q

glucocorticoids considerations

A 
HF because of sodium and water retention 
psychosis
poor wound healing
hyperglycemia
osteoporosis
120
Q

mineralocorticoid example

A

fludrocortisone

121
Q

fludrocortisone IND

A

adrenocortical insufficiency (Addison disease)

122
Q

adverse effects of fludrocortisone

A

fluid volume overload, HF, HTN, increased intracranial pressure

123
Q

fludrocortisone dosing

A

PO only, small dose of 0.1 mg

124
Q

hydrocortisone has what type of effect

A

effect on mineralocorticoids because t is most similar to cortisol

125
Q

anti-emetic classes

A

anticholinergics, antihistamines, pro kinetics, anti-dopaminergic, serotonin blockers, tetrahydrocanabinoids

126
Q

anticholinergics do what

A

block ACh receptors, antisecretory, antispasmodic

127
Q

anticholinergics examples

A

scopolamine, dicyclomine, atropine, oxybutynin

128
Q

antihistamines do what

A

H1 blockers and anticholinergic effects

129
Q

examples of antihistamines

A

meclizine, diphenhydramine, hydroxyzine

130
Q

adjunct for antiemetics

A

dexamethasone and lorazepam

131
Q

antidopaminergics

A

block dopamine in the brain

132
Q

antidopaminergics have risk for

A

extrapyramidal effects and CNS depression

133
Q

antidopaminergics adverse effects

A

urinary retention, constipation, dry mouth

134
Q

cardiac considerations for antidopaminergics

A

monitor for prolonged QT

135
Q

example of antidopaminergics

A

promethazine (phenergan) and prochlorperazine (compazine)

136
Q

promethazine (phenergan) considerations

A

extreme care with IV route so dilute it

137
Q

promethazine (phenergan) BBW

A

res depression and tissue necrosis

138
Q

how do you administer promethazine (phenergan)

A

deep IM injection and PR

139
Q

prochlorperazine (compazine) BBW

A

geriatric death

140
Q

prokinetics do what

A

dopamine antagonist at the chemo receptor zone and stimulates peristalsis which enhances gastric motility and emptying

141
Q

example of pro kinetics

A

metoclopromide (reglan)

142
Q

metoclopromide (reglan)

A

is a prokinetic and has extrapyramidal effects with long term use

143
Q

is metoclopromide (reglan) okay with pregnancy

A

yes you can use for N/V in pregnancy

144
Q

metoclopromide (reglan) considerations

A

slow IV push or can cause hypotension or Supraventricular tachycardia

145
Q

metoclopromide (reglan) BBW

A

tardrive dyskinesia

146
Q

serotonin does what

A

stimulates vasodilation in GI, secretion, mobility, and sensation of intestine

147
Q

serotonin (5-HT3) blockers do what

A

block receptors in GI tract and brain

148
Q

serotonin (5-HT3) blockers examples

A

granisetron (kytril) and ondansetron (Zofran)

149
Q

when should you give serotonin (5-HT3) blockers

A

30 minutes before surgery ends and 30-60 minutes prior to chemo receptor

150
Q

adverse effects of serotonin (5-HT3) blockers

A

long QT and cardiac dysrhythmias if pushed too fast and headache

151
Q

what should you check before administering serotonin (5-HT3) blockers

A

liver function test

152
Q

how do you administer serotonin (5-HT3) blockers

A

IV push slow for 2-5 minutes

153
Q

examples of tetrahydrocannabinoid

A

Dronabinol (Marinol)

154
Q

what does tetrahydrocannabinoid do

A

inhibitory effects of cerebral cortex and reticular formation

155
Q

is tetrahydrocannabinoid intoxicating

A

no it is nonintoxicating

156
Q

what can tetrahydrocannabinoid stimulate

A

appetite and weight gain

157
Q

adverse effect of tetrahydrocannabinoid

A

drowsiness, anxiety, dry mouth, and dizziness

158
Q

tetrahydrocannabinoid most commonly used for

A

HIV/AIDs, cancer, and 2nd line when other antiemetics fail

159
Q

when should tetrahydrocannabinoid be given

A

1 hour before therapy

160
Q

proton pump inhibitor example

A

omeprazole and pantoprazole

161
Q

proton pump inhibitor does what

A

inhibits all H+ (HCL) secretion for 24 hour

162
Q

proton pump inhibitor is used for

A

stress ulcer prophylaxis

163
Q

achlorhydria

A

absence of hydrochloric acid

164
Q

what can achlorhydria cause

A

bacterial overgrowth, intestinal metaplasia, and speed up of bone mineral loss

165
Q

intestinal metaplasia

A

change the cells within the stomach lining

166
Q

why do proton pump inhibitors speed up bone mineral loss

A

because calcium is used for digestive process so when there is no acid it starts pulling from bones

167
Q

does proton pump inhibitors effect food absorption

A

no

168
Q

proton pump inhibitors put you at risk for

A

osteoporosis and C. diff

169
Q

omeprazole should be given

A

30-60 minutes before meals to prepare stomach for digestion

170
Q

omeprazole can mask

A

symptoms of serious underlying disease

171
Q

omeprazole and NG tube

A

can block tube so ask for liquid form

172
Q

pantoprazole is given for

A

IV infusion for GI bleeding

173
Q

how is pantoprazole given

A

bolus and continuous

174
Q

antithyroid drugs

A

methimazole (tapazole) and propylthiouracil PTU

175
Q

antithyroid drugs impedes

A

formation of TH but does not act on circulating hormone so can take approximately 2 weeks to work

176
Q

widespread side effects of antithyroid drugs

A

bone marrow and liver toxicity and loss of stamina and weight gain

177
Q

levothyroxine

A

works like thyroid hormone which increases metabolism, increase cardiac output, increase blood flow to kidneys

178
Q

side effect of levothyroxine

A

based on giving too much or too little

179
Q

contraindications for levothyroxine

A

MI, cardiac considerations

180
Q

onset of levothyroxine

A

3-5 days usually oral but IV available for myxedema coma

181
Q

elimination of levothyroxine

A

1/2 life of 6-10 days so risk for toxicity

182
Q

levothyroxine is highly

A

protein bond

183
Q

increased metabolism from levothyroxine does what

A

increase oxygen consumption and overall cell reproduction

184
Q

red man syndrome

A

hypotension and erythema

185
Q

extrapyramidal symptoms

A

twitching

186
Q

tardive dyskinesia

A

permanent twitching

Nursing school level 2 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions