Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nursing school level 2 > patho test #1 drugs > Flashcards

patho test #1 drugs Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

opioid agonist analgesics

A

binds to opioid receptor and causes an analgesic response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

opioid agonist analgesics indication

A

moderate to severe pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

opioid agonist analgesics top 3 worries

A

CNS/resp depression, constipation, urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

opioid agonist analgesics side effects

A

nausea due to CTZ, histamine release which can cause itching, and strong abuse potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MS contin

A

ER form of morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

morphine sulfate class

A

opioid agonist analgesic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

morphine sulfate nursing considerations

A

Hypotension and caution with renal disease because it has a metabolite that the kidney needs to get rid of.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

hydromorphone is also called

A

dilaudid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

1 mg dilaudid = how many mg morphine

A

7 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

exalgo

A

ER of dilaudid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

can you give dilaudid to a kidney pt

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

fentanyl

A

very strong opioid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what can you not do to a fentanyl patch

A

expose it to heat or cut it because1 both can accelerate the diffusion of the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

who do you want to be mindful with in giving opioids

A

geriatric population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

indication of fentanyl

A

pain control, balance anesthesia, conscious sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

fentanyl patches

A

for chronic pain management and can be used for 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

can you give opioid naive patients fentanyl patches

A

no only for opioid tolerant because it is like having 8 mg dilaudid or 60 mg of morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

IV fentanyl considerations

A

comes in a glass container so need to use a filtered needed to suck up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Percocet

A

oxycodone with acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

percodan

A

oxycodone with aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

oxycontin

A

sustained release of oxycodone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how long does oxy IR take to work

A

10-15 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Norco

A

hydrocodone with acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

is oxy or hydrocodone weaker

A

hydrocodone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

if patient have liver disease we don’t want them have more than ______ Tylenol

A

2000 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

which opioid is a cough suppressant

A

hydrocodone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

methadone hydrochloride is also called

A

dolophine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how long of duration does methadone have

A

long - 24-48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

methadone indication

A

cancer, chronic back pain, treatment for addicts,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

methadone onset

A

30-60 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

where is methadone absorbed

A

GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

methadone half life

A

longer than its duration because as you repeat dose it accumulates in the tissues and is slowly released thus allowing for 24 hour dosing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

where is methadone eliminated from

A

the liver so it is a safer choice than others for renal impaired pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

concerns with methadone

A

cardiac dysrhythmia with prolonged QT interval so should not be given to pt with cardiac history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

opiate antagonist

A

CNS stimulator and reverses opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

example of opiate antagonist and what else is it called

A

naloxone also called narcan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

naloxone has a higher affinity for

A

Mu receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

indication of naloxone

A

opioid OD such as respiratory depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

adverse effects of naloxone

A

opioid withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

half life and duration of naloxone

A

has a short half life with a duration of 0.5-2 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

nursing considerations for naloxone

A

rebound toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what could happen after giving naloxone

A

ventricular tachycardia if you are giving it to someone addicted to opioids. opioid withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

osmotic diuretics nursing considerations

A

can crystallize in low temp, so store in warmer. in glass vial so always use filter needle. visually inspect for precipitants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what do osmotic diuretics do

A

increase osmotic pressure in glomerulus and bring fluid in from interstitial space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

where does osmotic diuretics work

A

along entire nephron so it causes a major impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

osmotic diuretics example

A

manitol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

osmotic diuretic indication

A

cerebral edema from trauma, AKI, oliguric phase, increased renal blood flow. promotes excretion of toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

when is osmotic diuretics not indicated

A

peripheral edema or chronic heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

are osmotic diuretics absorbable or nonabsorbable

A

non absorbable so decreases cellular edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

if loop diuretics are pushed too fast what can happen

A

can cause permanent hearing loss so control rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what does the patient need to be on if on loop diuretics

A

potassium supplement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

how do loop diuretics work

A

activate renal prostaglandins which causes vessel dilation in the kidney, pulmonary, and systemic and causes a decrease in preload and central venous pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

indication of loop diuretics

A

pulmonary edema, HTN, renal/hepatic/cardiac failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

if a patient has this allergy we do not give them a loop diuretic

A

sulfa allergy

55
Q

potassium sparing diuretics MOA

A

aldosterone inhibitors and are competitive antagonist that excretes water and sodium but reabsorbs potassium

56
Q

potassium sparing diuretics should not be given to

A

end stage renal pt and should not be given with ace inhibitors because of the increase risk of hyperkalemia

57
Q

potassium sparing diuretics are commonly used

A

in heart failure because they are cardio protective

58
Q

thiazides are usually given for

A

HTN and heart failure often in a hydrochlorothiazide combo

59
Q

do not give thiazides to pt with

A

sulfa allergy or decrease renal function

60
Q

thiazide MOA

A

arteriole dilation so decreases preload and after load. potassium, magnesium, and NaCl depletion but reabsorbs calcium

61
Q

what do you want to watch with thiazides

A

calcium levels

62
Q

thiazides have what sort of effect

A

ceiling effect so giving more drugs will not cause a greater effect

63
Q

nursing considerations for diuretics

A

want to monitor daily weight, I&Os, electrolytes, BP, weakness, ALOC, constipation

64
Q

if patient becomes constipated

A

can be given psyllium-based, bulk forming laxative

65
Q

calcium carbonate can cause

A

GI upset - fro, production of CO2

66
Q

calcium carbonate should be given with

A

vit D 30 minutes before meal

67
Q

how much calcium is in calcium gluconate

A

4.65 mEq Ca+/gm

68
Q

calcium glutinate does what to potassium

A

pushes it back into the cell temporarily

69
Q

what does insulin do to potassium

A

binds with it and brings it into the cell

70
Q

permanent treatment for hyperkalemia

A

hemodialysis

71
Q

how much calcium is in calcium chloride

A

13.6 mEq Ca+/gm

72
Q

what do you need for calcium absorption

A

vitamin D

73
Q

what does calcium gluconate cause

A

increase force of contraction in heart

74
Q

indication for calcium replacement

A

hypocalcemia and cardiac resuscitation

75
Q

nursing considerations for calcium replacement

A

prevent extravasation, need to correct Mg first, too much too fast can cause cardiac syncope, peripheral vasodilation, irritating to veins so use vessel high on the arm

76
Q

if you don’t correct the Mg first when administering calcium replacement what can happen

A

increased resistance to Ca+ replacement

77
Q

cardiac syncope

A

temporary loss of consciousness from decrease blood flow to the brain

78
Q

magnesium sulfate does what

A

smooth muscle relaxant

79
Q

magnesium sulfate indication

A

preterm labor/preeclampsia, asthma, hypothermia protocol

80
Q

magnesium oxide is for

A

supplementation

81
Q

magnesium citrate is used for

A

laxative

82
Q

hypothermia protocol

A

bringing pt temp down = cooling pt after MI increases the survival

83
Q

torsades de points

A

ventricular tachycardia that is characterized by party streamer EKG. most commonly associated with hypomagnesium

84
Q

why give antilipemics

A

help decrease the fat

85
Q

DMARDs

A

disease modifying anti rheumatic arthritis drugs

86
Q

DMARDs MOA

A

inhibit movement of neutrophils/macrophages into the joints

87
Q

onset of DMARDs

A

onset of several weeks so we want to give NSAIDs or corticosteroids while waiting for the DMARD to kick in

88
Q

what do you want to watch for while taking DMARDs

A

sign of infection because they knock out immune system

89
Q

example of DMARDs

A

Etanercept

90
Q

what does Etanercept do

A

it is biologic and binds to tumor necrosis factor and stops communication with it

91
Q

administration of Etanercept

A

weekly subQ for RA

92
Q

Etanercept adverse effects

A

infection, weakness, site reaction

93
Q

Etanercept BBW

A

risk for infection and cancer in 6/10,000

94
Q

methotrexate is a

A

folic acid antagonist and is anticancer

95
Q

adverse effects and BBW of methotrexate

A

pregnancy X drug, hepatotoxic so watch liver enzymes, bone marrow suppression. watch CBC and platelets

96
Q

administration of methotrexate

A

weekly admin IM or PO

97
Q

NSAIDs

A

nonsteriodal anti-inflammatory drugs

98
Q

NSAIDs MOA

A

inhibit prostaglandins which causes vasodilation, protecting gastric mucosa, platelet aggregation

99
Q

why would you use NSAIDs over corticosteroids

A

because they have a more favorable AE profile than corticosteroids

100
Q

AE for NSIADs

A

they inhibit mucus secretion which can cause GI bleeding and ulcerogenic (produce ulcers), nephrotoxicity in those who are dehydrated, and CV events related to clotting

101
Q

what type of effects do NSAIDs have

A

analgesic, antipyretic, anti-rheumatic, anti platelet, and ceiling effect

102
Q

aspirin MOA

A

inhibits platelet aggregation and reduces thromboxane

103
Q

what does thromboxane do?

A

promotes aggregation and is a vasoconstrictor

104
Q

adverse effect of aspirin

A

GI intolerance, bleeding, and renal toxicity

105
Q

indication for aspirin

A

CV/CVA/DVT prophylaxis

106
Q

doses of aspirin

A

81 mg - baby aspirin (maintenance) vs 325 mg - chest pain/event

107
Q

commonly used NSAIDs

A

Ketorolac and Ibuprofen

108
Q

ketorolac is also called

A

toradol

109
Q

administration of ketorolac

A

PO, IM, or IV push and for short term use only (5 days) due to adverse effects on renal/GI tract

110
Q

ketorolac has

A

powerful analgesic effects

111
Q

Ibuprofen indication

A

anti-inflammatory which effects may take up to 7 days and analgesia which effects will take 30-60 minutes

112
Q

naproxyn

A

aleve - almost the same drug as ibuprofen

113
Q

if pt has history of ulcers and needs Ibuprofen what can we give them?

A

misoprostol (cytotec) which coats the stomach to help with preventing ulcers

114
Q

Allopurinol is also called

A

zyloprim

115
Q

allopurinol is for and MOA

A

gout by inhibiting xanthine oxidase with prevents uric acid formation

116
Q

adverse effects of allopurinol

A

agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia, potentially fatal skin reaction

117
Q

selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERMs) drug

A

raloxifene

118
Q

raloxifene is also called

A

Evista

119
Q

selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERMs) MOA

A

stimulate estrogen receptors on bone to decrease effectiveness of RANKL and increase bone density

120
Q

indication for selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERMs)

A

postmenopausal osteoporosis when there is a RANKL dominance. also can be used for breast cancer prophylaxis

121
Q

selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERMs) has positive effects on

A

cholesterol

122
Q

adverse effects of selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERMs)

A

hot flashes, DVT, PE, leukopenia

123
Q

pt on selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERMs) should stop taking if

A

they have periods of venous stasis because the drug increases risk of clotting

124
Q

Bisphosphonate drug

A

alendronate

125
Q

alendronate is also called

A

fosamax

126
Q

alendronate is used for

A

is a non hormonal option to potentially reverse bone loss and can reduce fracture risk by 50%

127
Q

alendronate MOA

A

inhibits osteoclastic bone resorption

128
Q

alendronate adverse effect

A

hypocalcemia because the calcium is staying in the bones, esophageal erosion, osteonecrosis of jaw, severe pain

129
Q

nursing considerations for alendronate

A

regurgitation causes bleeding and erosion of esophagus so do not let pt lay down for awhile after taking it. It is a miracle drug for about 5 years and then pain and necrosis will happen

130
Q

half like of alendronate

A

long half life of greater than 10 years so pt doesnt need to take it all the time

131
Q

highest risk of pulmonary embolism

A

raloxifene

132
Q

pt with increase risk of thrombotic event would have the highest risk from which drug

A

ibuprofen

133
Q

pt who is sick should not have

A

etanercept

Nursing school level 2 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions