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Nursing school level 2 > Nurs 353 test 1 > Flashcards

Nurs 353 test 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Skene glands

A

on either side of the urethra and produces mucus that helps lubricate the vagina

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2
Q

bartholin glands

A

for lubrication and produces acidic environment for sperm to travel up

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3
Q

no estrogen =

A

menopause

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4
Q

when a girl is young estrogen helps

A

create opening, pubic hair, and ovarian functioning

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5
Q

cervix

A

bottom of the uterus. not its own organ

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6
Q

what holds everything together

A

ligaments

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7
Q

are the Fallopian tubes actually attached?

A

no just ligaments holding together and little fingers grab the egg

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8
Q

internal stuctures

A

vagina, uterus, cervix, Fallopian tubes, ovaries

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9
Q

external structures

A

mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, sienne glands, bartholinites glands

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10
Q

rugae

A

allows vagina to stretch for child birth

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11
Q

peak of estrogen does what to cervix

A

opens so sperm can fit through

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12
Q

thelarche

A

occurs around 9-11 years. signals ovarian function has begun. breast buds, higher estrogen, and growth spurt

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13
Q

menarche

A

first menstruation. usually 1 year after thelarche. average 13 years old

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14
Q

menstruation is controlled by

A

negative and positive feedback system

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15
Q

first day of bleeding is

A

day 1 of cycle

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16
Q

menstrual cycle does what to the uterus

A

prepares it for pregnancy

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17
Q

typical menstrual cycle is 28-32 days but is can range from

A

21-35 days

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18
Q

4 phases of endometrial cycle

A

menstrual phase, proliferative phase, secretory phase, and ischemic phase

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19
Q

menstrual phase

A

vasoconstriction and sloughing of endometrial tissue- bleeding

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20
Q

proliferative phase

A

ends with ovulation. rapid growth of the endometrium and is restored in 4 days

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21
Q

proliferative phase if dependent on

A

estrogen

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22
Q

secretory phase

A

day after ovulation. increasing amounts of progesterone thicken and vascularize the endometrium

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23
Q

ischemic phase

A

does not occur if you get pregnant. day 27-28. estrogen and progesterone are very low. spiral arteries vasoconstriction and bleeding begins marking day 1 of cycle.

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24
Q

what phase is it when the endometrium reaches full thickness

A

secretory phase where it is 10-12 mm thick

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25
Q

phase of ovarian cycle

A

follicular phase, ovulatory phase, and luteal phase

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26
Q

follicular phase

A

before ovulation 1-30 follicles begin to mature. LH affects a single follicle

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27
Q

the single follicle that is chosen during the follicular phase is called

A

Graafian follicle

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28
Q

ovulatory phase

A

estrogen peaks and ends with the release of the egg from the Graafian follicle

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29
Q

where is LH released and what stimulates it

A

estrogen peaks which stimulates the pituitary gland to release LH around day 12

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30
Q

what do you need to ovulate

A

LH and estrogen

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31
Q

luteal phase

A

cells of the follicle form the corpus luteum.

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32
Q

if pregnancy occurs the corpus luteum

A

continues to release progesterone and estrogen until placenta matures

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33
Q

if no pregnancy occurs the corpus luteum

A

degenerates and the decreased progesterone signals the beginning of menstruation

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34
Q

what produces hormones to sustain pregnancy

A

corpus luteum

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35
Q

4 major hormones of the menstrual cycle

A

follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), estrogen, and progesterone

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36
Q

follicle-stimulating hormone

A

stimulates the development of Graafian follicles and therefore estrogen

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37
Q

luteinizing hormone

A

spikes day 12-13 and stimulates the release of the ovum

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38
Q

where is estrogen produced

A

ovaries

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39
Q

where is progesterone produced

A

corpus luteum

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40
Q

prostaglandins

A

oxygenated fatty acids classified as a hormone

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41
Q

if you do not have any prostaglandins then

A

estrogen cannot peak

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42
Q

what is considered the essential organ of males

A

testes because they produce sperm

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43
Q

what % of sperm are mobile

A

40%

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44
Q

how many sperm are there per mL of ejaculate

A

120 mL

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45
Q

60% of semen volume is produce in _____ and 30% of semen is produced in ______

A

60% produced by seminal vesicles and 30% produced by prostate

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46
Q

why is the 30% produced in the prostate important

A

because they are alkaline and it helps protect the sperm from the acidic environment of the vagina

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47
Q

conception occurs when

A

a sperm nucleus enters the nucleus of the egg

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48
Q

what account for 60% of miscarriages

A

chromosomal anomalies and the miscarriage usually occurs within the first 8 weeks

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49
Q

once the sperm nucleus and egg nucleus combine what begins

A

meiosis

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50
Q

conception occurs in the

A

Fallopian tube

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51
Q

all cells contain ___ chromosomes and how many pairs are inherited from each parent

A

46 chromosomes and 23 pairs and inherited

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52
Q

mitosis

A

cell division

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53
Q

3 days after fertilization the zygote has how many cells

A

16 cells

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54
Q

5 days after fertilization

A

blastocyst and now enters the uterus

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55
Q

once the blastocyst reaches the uterus us becomes

A

an embryoblast (embryo) and trophoblast (placenta)

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56
Q

implantation should occur ______ days after ovulation

A

6-10 days

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57
Q

where does implantation occur

A

upper portion of the uterus where it gets buried underneath the endometrial surface

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58
Q

most critical time for organ system development

A

before 8 weeks

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59
Q

when are all the organ systems and external structures present

A

8 weeks

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60
Q

stage of the embryo

A

day 15 until 8 weeks after fertilization

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61
Q

amniotic fluid

A

cushions the fetus and protects against developmental problems

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62
Q

when does amniotic fluid appear

A

about 3 weeks and increases until about 24 weeks

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63
Q

yolk sac

A

has nutrients and oxygen for embryo until placenta transfer can occur

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64
Q

when does placenta begin to form and when does the transfer occur

A

begins to form at implantation and transfer occurs 2-3 weeks gestation

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65
Q

what does the yolk sac become

A

digestive system

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66
Q

how many arteries and veins does the umbilical cord have

A

2 arteries and 1 vein

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67
Q

placenta function

A

passive diffusion to transfer nutrients and oxygen to the fetus and also helps with metabolic function and waste

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68
Q

where does passive diffusion of placenta occur

A

chorionic villi

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69
Q

when is the placenta complete and how long does it grow for

A

complete at 8-10 weeks and grows until 20 weeks

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70
Q

can bacteria cross the blood placenta barrier

A

no most bacteria are too large

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71
Q

vaginal secretions are was ph

A

4-5 so slightly acidic

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72
Q

bacterial vaginosis

A

normal hydrogen peroxide producing lactobacilli are replaced with high concentrations of anaerobic bacteria

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73
Q

bacterial vaginosis is associated with

A

preterm labor

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74
Q

common signs and symptoms of bacterial vaginosis

A

fishy odor

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75
Q

screening and management of bacterial vaginosis

A

gram stain slide and treatment is flagyl (antibiotic)

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76
Q

candidiasis

A

yeast infection

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77
Q

symptoms of candidiasis

A

itching, vaginal dryness, painful urination, discharge is thick

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78
Q

trichomoniasis

A

STI that is cause by parasite

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79
Q

trichomoniasis is associated with

A

preterm delivery

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80
Q

screening for trichomoniasis

A

saline slide (shows white blood protozoa) and examination

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81
Q

common symptoms of trichomoniasis

A

most will be asymptomatic but some will have yellowish/green frothy foul smelling discharge, inflammation, painful urination and intercourse

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82
Q

malodorous

A

foul smelling

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83
Q

management of trichomoniasis

A

flagyl and male partner should receive treatment

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84
Q

chlamydia is associated with

A

preterm birth and blindness in the baby

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85
Q

gonorrhea is associate with

A

miscarriage, preterm birth, low birth weight, infection of fluid that surrounds fetus, blindness of the baby, and premature rupture of the membranes surrounding the fetus

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86
Q

syphilis is associated with

A

preterm birth, stillbirth, and some deaths after birth. untreated infants tend to develop problems because syphilis may pass from infected mother to fetus

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87
Q

can antibiotics cross the placenta

A

yes

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88
Q

group B streptococcus

A

considered normal flora of the vagina and intestines but is a huge factor in neonatal morbidity and mortality

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89
Q

screening and management of group B streptococcus

A

retrovaginal culture screening at 35-37 weeks and treatment is antibiotic prophylactically for the baby

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90
Q

embryo vs fetus

A

embryo until 8 weeks and fetus 9 weeks on until born

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91
Q

pregnancy lasts

A

40 weeks

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92
Q

pregnancy is computed by

A

nagele’s rule

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93
Q

nagele’s rule

A

LMP subtract 3 months, add 7 days and 1 year

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94
Q

how long is each trimester

A

1st - week 1-13
2nd - week 14-26
3rd - week 27-40

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95
Q

viability

A

refers to capability of the fetus to survive outside the womb

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96
Q

age of viability

A

about 24 weeks gestation when central nervous system functions and lungs of capable of oxygenation

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97
Q

before 24 weeks the lungs dont have

A

enough surfactant to breath on their own

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98
Q

when is the fetus less likely to be effected by environmental teratogens

A

after 9 weeks

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99
Q

4th week vs 5th week of a fetus’s heart

A

week 4 - 2 chamber heart
week 5 - beating heart
end of week 5 - 4 chamber heart

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100
Q

where does the blood travel in the fetus

A

it does not need to travel to the lungs so it goes through ductus arteriosus

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101
Q

fetal heart rate is

A

110-160 beats per minute

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102
Q

if the neural tube does not close what happens

A

defects such as spina bifida anencephaly

103
Q

anencephaly

A

absent brain

104
Q

RBC production in fetus

A

9 weeks liver serves as major site of RBC production then at 12 weeks blood is formed in bone marrow but it is not until 28 weeks that RBC are made in bone marrow

105
Q

fingernails formed

A

11 weeks

106
Q

when is sex identifiable

A

12 weeks but usually not on ultrasound until 18 weeks

107
Q

meconium

A

first bowel movement starts forming at 16 weeks

108
Q

18 weeks

A

vocal cords work and quickening occurs

109
Q

quickening

A

mother starts to feel movement of baby

110
Q

20 weeks

A

hair on head, nose and ears ossify, weighs one pound, and respiratory movements occur

111
Q

when is the GI system complete

A

36 weeks

112
Q

when is the respiratory system fully mature

A

38 weeks but branching only 2-3 complete by birth

113
Q

what hormone helps make the bones in babies head softer

A

relaxin

114
Q

dizygotic twins

A

two mature ovum implant. 2 placentas

115
Q

monozygotic twins

A

one fertilized ovum that divide in two. will always be same sex and same genotype

116
Q

types of monozygotic twin

A

mono-mono twins and mono-di twins

117
Q

mono-mono twins

A

one amniotic sac and one placenta - only a 50% survival rate

118
Q

mono-di twins

A

two amniotic sacs and one placenta

119
Q

gravidity

A

of pregnancies a woman has had

120
Q

parity

A

number of pregnancies in which fetus has reached 20 weeks

121
Q

term

A

of pregnancies that have reached 38-42 weeks (to term)

122
Q

preterm

A

pregnancy that has reached 20 weeks of gestation but before completion of 37 weeks of gestation

123
Q

two digits

A

G- gravida

P- Para

124
Q

5 digits

A

G-T-P-A-L, Gravidity, Term, Preterm, Abortions, Living, Children

125
Q

biochemical marker of pregnancy

A

HCG - human chorionic gonadotropin

126
Q

signs and symptoms of pregnancy

A

presumptive, probable, and positive

127
Q

presumptive symptoms

A

changes felt by the woman

128
Q

probable symptoms

A

changes observed by health care provider

129
Q

positive symptoms

A

signs only by the presence of a fetus such as ultrasound, movement felt by practitioner, doppler of heart beat

130
Q

Goodell sign

A

increased vascularity and hypertrophy of the cervix

131
Q

luekorrhea

A

increased discharge due to increased estrogen

132
Q

Chadwicks sign

A

deepening color of the vulva by 6-8 weeks

133
Q

montgomery tubercles

A

where milk comes out and are all around the nipples

134
Q

colostrum

A

thought of as the first vaccine. first form of milk produced immediately following delivery of the newborn. has a lot of antibodies

135
Q

what happens to blood volume during pregnancy

A

it increases by 1500 mL to support utero-placental circulation

136
Q

what happens with RBC during pregnancy

A

RBC increase by 20-30% in response to increased O2 requirements

137
Q

what happens to cardiac output during pregnancy

A

increases by 30-40%

138
Q

breathing during pregnancy

A

there is a shift from abdominal to thoracic breathing and may be more shallow/short/fast breaths

139
Q

what occurs with the renal system during pregnancy

A

GFR increases and bladder tone decreases so there may be frequency, urgency, and needing to pee multiple times at night

140
Q

chloasma

A

mask of pregnancy - brownish pigmentation of skin over cheeks and forehead

141
Q

linea nigra

A

darkening line of abdomen

142
Q

striae gravidarum

A

stretch marks

143
Q

palmar erythema

A

red hands

144
Q

relaxin hormone can do what to joints

A

cause joint pain because it makes bones softer

145
Q

lordosis

A

abnormal anterior curvature of the spine

146
Q

diastasis recti

A

separation of the abdominal muscles

147
Q

PICA

A

cravings for non-food substances. usually a sign of iron or magnesium deficiency

148
Q

edema of the peripheral nerves can cause

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

149
Q

what does progesterone do to the GI system

A

it slows food that is going through the stomach so that more nutrients can be taken in for the baby but this can cause bloating and constipation

150
Q

HCG should be _____ every 72 hours

A

doubled

151
Q

progesterone is made in

A

placenta and corpus luteum but if not pregnant than in the ovaries

152
Q

estrogen does what

A

main thing: decrease contractions so they don’t happen too early

153
Q

human placental lactogen

A

acts as a growth hormone. produced by placenta and helps fetus grow

154
Q

relaxin hormone

A

decreases contractions early in pregnancy and at the end of pregnancy relaxes the muscles for labor. produced in the corpus luteum and placenta

155
Q

2 major need from the partner

A

feeling loved and having the child accepted by the partner

156
Q

maternal adaptation to pregnancy includes

A

accepting the pregnancy, identifying with the mother role, establishing a relationship with the fetus, and preparing for childbirth

157
Q

paternal adaptation to pregnancy

A

accepting the pregnancy, identifying with father tole, reordering personal relationships, establishing relationship with fetus, and preparing for childbirth

158
Q

sibling adaptation to pregnancy

A

dependent one child’s age and development level but can include encouraging children to participate in care of infant, sibling jealousy, and sometimes regressive behaviors in younger siblings is normal

159
Q

prenatal care is an emphasis on

A

preventative care and optimal self care

160
Q

inadequate prenatal care is associated with

A

problems with low birth rate and infant mortality

161
Q

some prenatal care barriers include

A

lack of motivation, inadequate finances, lack of transportation…

162
Q

traditional model of prenatal care

A

initial visit, monthly visits through week 28, bi weekly until week 36, then weekly visits until delivery

163
Q

post party follow up

A

6 week is vaginal birth and 2 weeks in C-section birth

164
Q

what happens during the initial prenatal visit

A

confirm pregnancy, interview, assessment, medications such as prenatal vitamins

165
Q

lab tests during prenatal visit

A

HIV testing, blood type, H&H, HCG levels, rubella, Hep B, urinalysis, alpha Fetoprotein

166
Q

alpha Fetoprotein (AFP)

A

15-20 weeks
if elevated -NTD, anencephaly, omphalocele, gastroschisis
if decreased - trisomy 21

167
Q

what is included in follow up visit

A

interview, assessment, ultrasound, and Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)

168
Q

Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)

A

300 mcg IM for RH women at 28 weeks

169
Q

amniocentesis

A

Needle inserted through abdominal wall into the uterine cavity to obtain amniotic fluid sample
indicated for women over 35, history of genetic or hemolytic disorders, or + alpha fetoprotein

170
Q

follow up visit labs

A

Urine dip stick (glucose, albumin, & ketones)
1hour glucose test (24-28 weeks)
3 hour glucose testing…done if high reading on 1 hour screen
Vag/rectal GBS (35-37 weeks)
H&H (repeated 36 weeks) to check for anemia

171
Q

tests for fetal well being

A

umbilical artery doppler flow, amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, non-stress test, amniotic fluid index, and biophysical profile

172
Q

amniotic fluid index

A

Measures the volume of amniotic fluid via ultrasound in four quadrants of the uterus. Used to detect fetal hypoxia and kidney function

173
Q

amniotic fluid index levels

A

normal 8-24 cm
oligohydramnios- less than 5 cm
polyhydramnios- greater than 24

174
Q

Biophysical profile (BPP)

A

Assessment of fetal breathing movements, gross body movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and heart rate activity via ultrasound (2 points each)

175
Q

Biophysical profile (BPP) levels

A

reassuring - 8-10
score of 6 = delivery depending on gestational age
non-measuring = 4 or less and warrants delivery

176
Q

true labor contractions

A

are regular, frequent, and hard

177
Q

births settings

A

hospital, birth centers, and home birth

178
Q

nutrient needs during pregnancy

A

folate or folic acid and iron supplements

179
Q

when is folic acid important

A

during pre conceptual period

180
Q

when is iron supplements most important

A

begin by the 13th week of gestation to prevent anemia and take about 30 mg per day

181
Q

because of mercury content pregnant women should

A

limit all fish to 12 oz per week

182
Q

food to avoid during pregnancy

A

unpasteurized dairy, raw cookie dough, certain kids of fish, and raw fish

183
Q

normal weight gains during pregnancy

A

of you are underweight - 28-40 lbs
if you are average weight - 25-35 lbs
if you are overweight - 15-25 lbs
if you are obese - 11-20 lbs

184
Q

caffeine has been found to increase risk of

A

miscarriage or IUGR (fetal growth restriction)

185
Q

adolescent pregnancy needs

A

increased need for calcium, possibly more weight gain, and they may have a smaller pelvis size

186
Q

strict vegetarians who become pregnant may need

A

so supplement with B12 for healthy pregnancy

187
Q

AMA

A

advanced maternal age. also called geriatric pregnancy

188
Q

advanced maternal age

A

any pregnancy that ends when a woman is over 35

189
Q

when risk factors are identified the patient is referred to

A

a perinatologist

190
Q

risk factors for high risk pregnancies

A

high or low age, multiple gestation pregnancies, genetic or nutritional considerations, medical disorders, psychosocial factors, socioeconomical factors

191
Q

hyperemesis gravidarum

A

nausea and vomiting that leads to weight loss, electrolyte imbalance, nutritional deficiency, and ketonuria

192
Q

treatment of hyperemesis gravidarum

A

IV fluids, combination of pyridoxine (B6) and doxylamine (Unisom), antiemetics, ginger root

193
Q

nursing care for hyperemesis gravidarum

A

assessment including weight and VS, strict I&O, oral hygiene, small frequent meals with bland food, sipping fluid through a straw, little to no odors

194
Q

PIH

A

hypertension in pregnancy

195
Q

gestational hypertension

A

onset of hypertension without proteinuria after 20 weeks

196
Q

chronic hypertension

A

hypertension that is present before pregnancy, develops before 20 weeks, or persists longer than 12 weeks postpartum

197
Q

preeclampsia

A

pregnancy specific syndrome in which hypertension and proteinuria develop after 20 weeks of gestation in previously normotensive women

198
Q

signs and symptoms of preeclampsia

A

elevated BP, epigastric pain that is worse at night, sudden weight gain, peripheral edema, hyperactive DTRs, proteinuria, headaches, heartburn

199
Q

mild to moderate preeclampsia treatment

A

managed at home- complete partial bedrest, normal diet. will need to do 24 hour urine collection, CBC, liver enzymes, kidney function, and biophysical profile

200
Q

severe preeclampsia treatment

A

treated in hospital immediately- bedrest, oral antihypertension medication, magnesium sulfate, corticosteroids, possible C-section

201
Q

magnesium sulfate

A

high risk medication - requires 2 rn check. drug to prevent and manage seizures

202
Q

loading dose vs maintenance dose of magnesium sulfate

A

loading dose - 4-6 g IV

maintenance 1-2 g/hr IVPB

203
Q

side effects of magnesium sulfate

A

may cause relaxation of uterus, diaphoresis. fatigue, weakness, slurred speech

204
Q

if severe toxicity of magnesium sulfate is suspected what do you do

A

stop infusion and administer calcium gluconate or calcium chloride which are the reversal agents of magnesium sulfate

205
Q

HELLP syndrome

A

severe preeclampsia. H= hemolysis, EL= elevated liver enzymes, LP= low platelet

206
Q

when does HELLP syndrome usually develop

A

third trimester or within 48 hours postpartum

207
Q

signs and symptoms of HELLP syndrome

A

flu-like symptoms, malaise, N/V, HA, shoulder pain, bruising, and hematuria

208
Q

treatment of HELLP syndrome

A

FFP transfusion, platelet transfusion, PRBC, immediate delivery

209
Q

FFP tranfusion

A

fresh frozen plasma

210
Q

HA

A

headache

211
Q

eclampsia

A

onset of a seizures or coma in a women with preeclampsia with no history of seizure disorder

212
Q

eclampsia treatment

A
  1. airway and safety
  2. check fetal heart rate, note duration of seizure
  3. side rails up, oral suction, 10L of O2, fetal heart rate tracing
  4. if patient is on magnesium need to administer more or start a magnesium infusion
213
Q

placenta previa

A

the placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment - can be complete, marginal, partial, or low lying

214
Q

how does placenta previa present

A

painless, bright red bleeding during the second or third trimester

215
Q

treatment of placenta previa

A

observe and bed rest. always need a C-section if complete or partial

216
Q

abruptio placentae

A

the prematures separation of a normally implanted placenta. can be graded 1 (mild), 2 (moderate), 3 (severe)

217
Q

signs and symptoms of abruptio placentae

A

dark vaginal non-clotting bleeding, severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, hypovolemia, abnormal FHR

218
Q

treatment for abruptio placentae

A

emergency C-section, replace blood loss, O2

219
Q

incompetent cervix

A

painless cervical dilation in the second trimester that can progress to premature birth

220
Q

incompetent cervix treatment

A

cerclage, administer tocolytics, monitor mother for infection, vaginal bleeding, and preterm labor

221
Q

cerclage

A

purse string suture placed in the cervix to reinforce and prevent dilation

222
Q

tocolytics

A

drugs used to suppresses uterine activity and contractions

223
Q

GDM

A

gestational diabetes

224
Q

gestational diabetes

A

metabolic changes during pregnancy lower glucose tolerance so blood glucose levels rise and more insulin is produced

225
Q

how does gestational diabetes effect baby

A

maternal glucose will cross the placenta but maternal insulin does not. baby tries to compensate by producing its own insulin and when it is born makes too much insulin for glucose amount causes baby to be hypoglycemic and will be a big baby

226
Q

gestational diabetes treatment

A

self glucose testing, can try to control with diet/exercise, but 40% need to treat with insulin

227
Q

normal fasting glucose levels vs levels after meals for pregnant women

A

fasting glucose = below 95 mg/dL.

after meals = 120-135 mg/dL

228
Q

appendicitis and pregnancy

A

signs are mistaken for pregnancy because during pregnancy the appendix is pushed back

229
Q

how to treat pregnant women who have been through trauma

A

treat the mother to treat the fetus

230
Q

not accepting pregnancy by third trimester will indicate

A

conflict in maternal role

231
Q

when does mother/child bond happen

A

very quickly but especially during the first heart beat

232
Q

dad bounds with baby through

A

ultrasound and presence of fetus (kicks and movements)

233
Q

fetal heart at 8 weeks

A

fully formed with all vessels and its beating

234
Q

what age is considered low for pregnancy

A

19

235
Q

first thing you will do to treat hyperemesis gravidarum

A

IV fluids

236
Q

why is antiemetics third line treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum

A

because antiemetics have side effects that will effect the fetus

237
Q

how can hyperemesis gravidarum effect the baby

A

intrauterin growth restriction - baby undernourished

238
Q

chronic hypertension vs gestational hypertension

A

chronic - had before 20 weeks

gestational - got after 20 weeks

239
Q

risk factors of preeclampsia

A

less than 19 yr old, older than 40, first pregnancy, having preeclampsia before, obesity, and multiple gestations

240
Q

what does corticosteroids do for baby

A

stimulates surfactant and develops lungs

241
Q

DIC

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation. bleed from everywhere because clotting factors all used up from forming little clots

242
Q

indication of magnesium sulfate

A

HTN, seizes, and preterm labor to stop contractions because it relaxes smooth muscle

243
Q

normal magnesium levels

A

1.7-2.2

244
Q

what can magnesium sulfate do to fetal heart rate

A

decrease it

245
Q

therapeutic range of serum magnesium for seizure or HTN patient

A

4-7 mEq/L

246
Q

why is the blood during placental previa bright red

A

because it is coming from the maternal side and is oxygenated

247
Q

why is blood during abruptio placentae dark red

A

it is non oxygenated blood

248
Q

placental previa causes an increase risk for

A

abruptio placentae

249
Q

common cause of abruptio placentae

A

drug use or seat belt laceration from car accident

250
Q

when can you test for gestational diabetes

A

23-24 weeks

251
Q

treatment for appendicitis during pregnancy

A

ultrasound needed, fluids, and antibiotics. if bad might need a appendectomy

252
Q

treatment of cholelithiasis during pregnancy

A

fluids, bowel rest, NG tube, and antibiotics

253
Q

effect of trauma on pregnancy influenced by

A

length of gestation, type and severity of the trauma, degree of disruption to uterine and fetal features

Nursing school level 2 (15 decks)

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