Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Chelsea's Advan Patho & Pharm 2018 > patho test 2 > Flashcards

patho test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes causes what common infections?

A 
strep throat
acute pharyngitis (pharyngitis with confirmed strep A)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

H flu/ Haemophilus influenzae

commonly caused infections

A

otitis media
sinusitis
bronchitis
conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Mycoplasma commonly caused infections

A

URI - (upper resp inf)
LRI (lower)
CAP (community acquired pneumonia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

e.coli – Escherichia coli commonly causes what infections?

A

UTIs!

bacterial gastroenteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cellulitis is commonly caused by what pathogen/s?

A

usually strep or staph (Streptococci or Staphylococcus aureus)
*often community-acquired MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tinea capitis commonly caused by

A

dermatophytes (fungus)

infection also known as - ringworm of the scalp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

staph aureas/Staphylococcus aureus commonly caused infections?

A

MRSA abcess

impetigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

staph aureas/Staphylococcus aureus

commonly caused infections?

A

MRSA abcess

impetigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Adenovirus

commonly caused infections

A

respiratory illness - most infections are not severe.

sore throat
bronchitis 
pneumonia
diarrhea
conjunctivitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

commonly causes what infections?

A

community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)
otitis media
sinusitis
bacterial meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis

cause….?

A

Chlamydia and gonorrhea DUH!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Acetylcholine general functions

A

movement control, cognition
“Cholinergic response”

CNS – memory, focus, learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Acetylcholine receptors

A

Muscarinic or Nicotinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Sympathetic Beta Receptors

A

Beta 1
beta 2
beta 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sympathetic Alpha Receptors

A

alpha 1

alpha 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Alpha 1 functions

A

Vascular smooth muscles
Arteries - Peripheral constriction**
GI and urinary sphincters, decreased
GI motility
Dilatates eye
Arrector pili

think - alpha & arterials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Alpha 2 functions

A

CNS “The regulator”

slows brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sympathetic Neurotransmitters

A

Norepinephrine

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Dopamine general functions

A

affect, reward, movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Structural differences between parasympathetic and sympathetic

A

P - targeted organ response
(d/t Few post ganglionic branching)

S - multiple organ response at once
(multiple post ganglionic branching)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

“Fight of Flight”

A

Sympathetic

s = stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

“Rest and Digest”

A

Parasympathetic

p = pleasure
eating and sleeping <3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Beta 1 receptors activation

A

increased HR and contractility
release renin from kidney
decrease salivation

1 heart*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Beta 2 receptor activation

A

Bronchial dilation
GI and urinary bladder
Skeletal muscle arteries

2 lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cold feet are caused by what function?

A

alpha - arterial constriction moves blood away from periphery and to large muscle groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Beta 3 receptor activity

A

gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Parasympathetic Receptors

A

Muscarinic

Nicotinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Parasympathetic Receptors effects

A

decreased HR
- SA and VA node stimulation

skeletal muscle relaxation
Increased GI motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

GABA general function

A

general inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Glutamic Acid/glutamate general function

A

general excitation!!!

sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Substance P function

A

pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

glutamate’s off switch

A

GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Serotonin general regulatory function

A 
mood
appetite 
sexual behavior 
sleep
memory
learning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Dopamine general function

A 
Control of coordination in movement
Enhances memory and learning
Focus and attention
Released during pleasurable situations
Stimulates  seeking additional  pleasurable activities  (food, sex)
Control of nausea and vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

endogenous morphine aka…

A

endorphins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

CNS neurotransmitters

A 
Serotonin
Dopamine
Norepinephrine
Acetylcholine (Ach)
Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid
Glutamic Acid (Glutamate)
Substance P
Endorphins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

endorphin general function

A

Reduces perception ofpain
modulation of appetite, release of sex hormones, and enhancement of the immune response.
Ameliorates effects of stress
induced by exercise, excitement,
sex, love and spicy foods
(Produces feelings ofeuphoria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Acetylcholine CNS general function

A

Triage
Rest, digest, and learn
Neuromodulator, not directily excitatory or inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Norepinephrine general function

A

affect, alertness
concentration
memory recall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Contact dermatitis characteristics

A

papule/s
erythematous
localized
asymmetrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Psoriasis characteristics

A 
Plaque 
silver/white
thickened skin
Chronic
often associated joint pain
common on the scalp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

urticaria characteristics

A 
wheal/s
pink with surrounding erythema 
irregular 
raised
well-defined 
pruritic
angioedema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

melanoma characteristics

A

change in shape, diameter, color, thickness, irregular border

44
Q

another word for moles

A

nevi

singular -nevus

45
Q

AcneProgression (4 step process)

A

Androgen MediatedSebumProduction
Keratinous Obstruction of sebaceous follicle outlet (Results in formation of comedones aka whiteheads)
Bacterial Colonization of trapped sebum (with Propionibacterium acnes)
Inflammatory reaction (Papules,Nodules and cysts)

46
Q

Erythema multiforme characteristics

A 
pink-red center with pale ring
acute, and self-limited 
type IV hypersensitivity
d/t meds or infection
can be painful or itchy
47
Q

Skin lesion descriptions to document

A 
Form and structure
Size
Borders
Configuration
Distribution
48
Q

Primary infection definition

A

occurs in an otherwise healthy host

49
Q

Secondary infection definition

A

a host already compromised by a primary infection

50
Q

Opportunistic infection definition

A

caused by host’s normal flora

51
Q

major difference between gram + and gram - bacteria

A

the cell wall!

gram + have thick layer of peptidoglycan

52
Q

Atypical bacteria

A

Chlamydia (lack peptoglycan in cell wall, multi-phased)
Mycoplasma (no cell wall, highly pleomorphic)
Legionella (does not grow on traditional media)

53
Q

Lipoteichoic acid effects in host?

A

causes fever
Inflammatory process - released from the bacterial cells mainly after bacteriolysis
induced by interleukin 1 -stimulates endogenous pyrogens
causes acute inflammation
recruits leukocytes and chemokine secretion

54
Q

Lipoteichoic acid is in what kinds of bacteria?

what is its effect?

A

gram +

pyrogenic

55
Q

Beta lactamase producers

A

S. epidermidis
Pseudomonas
Klebsiella
E. coli
S. aureus (impetigo,cellulitis, folliculitis, carbuncles, toxic
shock, pneumonia, meningitis, osteomyelitis)

56
Q

if patient presents with recurrent and unexpected candidiasis what should we think?

A

High blood glucose

yeast eats sugar - yummmmmmm

57
Q

Subcutaneous mycoses characteristics

A 
cysts or granulomas
Localized, dermis, muscle, fascia
Eosinophilia
Usually introduced through trauma 
     - rose gardener's thumb
58
Q

Deep mycoses characteristics

A

Usually seen in immunosuppressed patients

acquired by inhalation

59
Q

Deep mycoses/ disseminated candidiasis characteristics

A

Usually seen in immunosuppressed patients
acquired by inhalation or contamination of wounds
indwelling catheters, IVs, peritoneal dialysis = risk

60
Q

General rule where + or - bacteria can be found

A

above the belt = gram +

below the belt = gram -

61
Q

General rule where + or - bacteria can be found

A

above the belt = gram +
ex impetigo - S aureus

below the belt = gram -
ex gonorrhea

62
Q

what is an example of the failure of above the belt or below the belt rule ?

A

Cellulitis

63
Q

why is periorbital cellulitis an emergency?

A

possible CNS complications

64
Q

periorbital cellulitis possible causes?

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
H. flu

  • organisms that cause upper respiratory infections, particularly sinusitis.
65
Q

patho of seizures

A

Excessive excitation – Glutamate

Los of inhibition - GABA

66
Q

underlying causes of seizures

A 
Increased ICP (ex: Eclampsia, tumor, edema)
Stroke
Infection
Hypoxia
Drugs or withdrawl
biochemical:
       too much or too little Na+ or Glucose
       too little Ca+ or Mag
       too much Urate
67
Q

partial seizures characteristics

A

one hemisphere

68
Q

generalized seizure characteristics

A

both hemispheres

69
Q

post ictal state seen in what kind of seizure?

A

tonic-clonic

70
Q

A person experiences a unilateral, focal seizure and maintains consciousness. Which term is appropriate to describe this type of seizure?

A

Partial seizure

71
Q

Anticholinergic Agents caused the opposite of effect of which system?

A

Parasympathetic

72
Q

Anticholinergic Agents cause the opposite of effect of which system?

A

Parasympathetic

73
Q

what is penumbra?

A

an area of limited circulation surrounding the area of infarction in ischemic stroke

74
Q

why penumbra is critical?

A

for 2 to 4 hours it is not in an infarcted state
this gives us the critical window for treatment
penumbra is larger than the infarcted area - if perfusion is restored quickly = better outcomes/less deficits

75
Q

patho of ischemic stroke

A

Atherosclorsis = damaged vessel walls
Platelet-activating factor is released from endothelium as inflammatory response causing micro- thrombi = occlusion, decreased O2…
inflammatory cascade activated…
glutamate levels rise in response to low energy stores…
rapid depolarizations and movement of ions = release of cytokines and Inflammation increases

76
Q

posterior stroke sx

A 
nystagmus! 
Dizziness
unilateral limb weakness
ataxia
HA
nausea/vomiting
acute persistent vertigo
unsteadiness
head motion intolerance
77
Q

posterior stroke evaluation

A

HINTS

Horizontal Head Impulse Test, Nystagmus, Test of Skew - cover/uncover test

78
Q

ABCD scoring system is used when and for what?

A

to determine the risk for stroke in the days following a TIA

age
BP
clinical features (weakness etc)
DM hx and duration of event

79
Q

Neuro work should include

A 
bedside neuro exam
    HINTS, motor &amp; sensory &amp; vision, finger to nose, 
    heel to shin, reflexes
BMP - electrolytes imbalances 
Tox screen
Coags
CBC with diff
MRI
EKG
80
Q

Radiating pain is indicative of

A

nerve root involvement or damage

81
Q

Mononeuropathy characteristics

A 
well defined d/t innervation 
- single nerve
weakness
paresthesia
pain
numbness within the nerve boundaries

example = carpal tunnel syndrome

82
Q

Polyneuropathy characteristics

A

Degeneration of nerves
Usually symmetrical and distal
Sensory loss
motor and autonomic can be effected

83
Q

polyneuopathy causes

A

chronic disease
DM
ETOH
HIV

84
Q

Excess of some exogenous neurotransmitters triggers the brain to produce less, eventually depending on exogenous alone
defines what disorder?

A

substance abuse

85
Q

Low levels of _____ can raise the risk of addiction

A

serotonin

86
Q

feel good/statisfaction neurtrnsmittter

A

serotonin

87
Q

focus neurotransmitter

A

norepinephrine

concentration and memory

88
Q

rest,digest,learn neurotransmitter

A

acetylcholine

89
Q

energetic neurotransmitter

A

dopamine

alertness*

90
Q

relaxation neurotransmitter

A

gamma aminobutyricacid

91
Q

pain neurotransmitter

A

substance P

92
Q

feel GREAT neurotransmitter

A

endorphins

93
Q

the frontal lobe is only as good as ….

A

the data it receives

94
Q

we rely on the ____ to provide good input/data

A

limbic system

emotional brain

95
Q

Reward Pathway

A

Ventral Tegmental Area (VTA) determines whether a stimulus is rewarding or aversive

Nucleus Accumbens - mediates the rewarding effects

Anterior cingulate gyrus – navigates rewards and consequences

Pleasure releases dopamine

96
Q

deficit in brain norepinephrine, dopamine, and/or serotonin is the underlying cause of _____

A

depression

97
Q

chronic activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) system and elevated glucocorticoid secretion has be noted in _____

A

major depression

98
Q

______ is a collection of illnesses characterized by thought disorders that reflect a break in reality or a splitting of the cognitive from the emotional side of a person’s personality.

A

Schizophrenia

It is characterized by positive and negative symptoms. Hallucinations, delusions, and cognitive defects are components of schizophrenia.

99
Q

Drugs that increase ______ transmission such as levodopa or cocaine may produce psychosis at high doses.

A

dopamine

100
Q

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Delusions (false beliefs)
Hallucinations (auditory, olfactory, visual)
Disorganized speech
Disorganized behavior

  (Too much dopamine )
101
Q

Negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A 
Anhedonia (inability to experience joy)
Affect (flat)
Apathy
Loss of cognitive function
Loss of motivation
Attention deficit
102
Q

unopposed ACh causes what symptoms?

A

Parkinsonian movements: rigidity, bradykinesia, tremors, akathisia and dystonia

103
Q

4 cardinal symptoms characterize this disease
: resting tremor, rigidity, akinesia or bradykinesia, and postural instability. Another hallmark feature of __ is asymmetrical symptom onset

A

Parkinson’s

104
Q

Olfactory disturbance may the earliest sign of this disease

A

Parkinson’s

105
Q

Parkinson’s Disease is due to the loss of ____

A

dopamine

Chelsea's Advan Patho & Pharm 2018 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions