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Q&A > Patho Part 2 > Flashcards

Patho Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

A male client with the history of gastric esophageal reflux GERD presents to the emergency department with dysphasia weight loss, chest pain and blood emesis. Which of the following with the nurse anticipate the client is experiencing?

A

Esophageal Cancer

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2
Q

Which of the following occurs with hepatitis B?

A

The liver is inflamed and enlarged

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3
Q

Which of the following is an early symptom of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

A

Muscle twitching

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4
Q

The client with epilepsy developed stiffness of the muscles, and of the arms and legs, followed by an immediate loss of consciousness, and jerking of all extremities, how can the nurse document the seizure activity?

A

Generalized a-tonic clone seizure

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5
Q

Loss of motor and sensory control of the trunk of the body and lower extremities as a result of spinal cord injury describes which of the following?

A

Paraplegia

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6
Q

An inherited disorder in which the individual displays abrupt bizarre, involuntary dance like movements, and a decline in mental function is known as which of the following?

A

Huntingtons Chorea

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7
Q

Which type of seizures results in abnormal neural activity in both hemispheres of the brain?

A

Generalized Seizures

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8
Q

What is the most sensitive indicator of altered brain functioning?

A

Altered level of consciousness

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9
Q

The client experiences excruciating pain that radiates along the side of their face induced by shaving and while eating, what disorder does the nurse suspect?

A

Trigeminal Neuralgia

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10
Q

Which of the following is a component of the pathophysiology of shock which causes lactic acid to accumulate in the body?

A

Tissue Hypoxia

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11
Q

Which of the following is the earliest sign of decreased cardiac output?

A

Oliguria

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12
Q

Identify which clinical manifestation is a common finding in all forms of heart failure.

A

Reduced Cardiac output

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13
Q

Vasospatic Disease of the fingers, hands or feet resulting in pain, numbness and sometimes discoloration is known as which of the following?

A

Raynauds Disease

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14
Q

A pulsating mass that is noted in the mid-abdomen may indicate which of the following?

A

Aortic Aneurysm

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15
Q

What is characteristic of coronary artery disease?

A

Insufficient delivery of oxygenated blood to the myocardium

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16
Q

Infective endocarditis is an infection that affects which part of the cardiovascular system?

A

Endocardium or heart valves

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17
Q

When arterial blood pressure declines, the kidneys secretes a hormone to increase the blood pressure and peripheral resistance. What is this hormone called?

A

Renin

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18
Q

Valve stenosis results in which of following alternations in blood flow through the heart?

A

Blood is unable to flow easily OUT of the valve because it does NOT OPEN FULLY.

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19
Q

Which type of cardiomyopathy causes thickened hyperkinetic ventricular heart muscles?

A

Hypertrophic

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20
Q

Which of the following factors is not modifiable for clients with hypertension?

A

Increasing age

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21
Q

Which of the following is a cause for cardiogenic shock?

A

Myocardial infraction

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22
Q

Which type of hepatitis is commonly transferred via fecal-oral route??

A

Hepatitis A or E

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23
Q

The following clients would be at most risk for an intestinal obstruction?

A

An elderly individual on bed rest because of post operative abnormal surgery

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24
Q

Which of the following are the most common culprits of bacterial skin infection?

A

Staphylococcus

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25
Q

Which of the following are common early signs of acute prostatitis?

A

Soft tender enlarged gland

Dysuria

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26
Q

Which of the following terms describes painful menstruation?

A

Dysmenorrhea

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27
Q

Which of the following hormones helped to raise the blood sugar level to maintain hemostasis?

A

Glucagon

28
Q

Which of the following conditions may cause immunosuppression?

A

Cushing Syndrome

29
Q

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism?

A

Heat tolerance
Tachycardia
Weight loss

30
Q

Which of the following will the nurse do to identify a client with kidneys disease?

A

Percuss the costovertebral angle for pain.

31
Q

Which of the following is true regarding polycystic kidney disease?

A

It results in the gradual degeneration of the kidneys

32
Q

With severe kidney disease either hypokalemia or hyperkalemia may occur and cause which of the following?

A

Cardiac Arrhythmia

33
Q

What is the phase of acute kidney injury that results in a decrease urine output?

A

Oliguric Phase

34
Q

What statement is true concerning scabies infection?

A

BURROWS and PAPULES are characteristics of scabies infection

35
Q

Which of the following causes a client to have a mechanical bowel obstruction?

A

Intussusception

36
Q

Which of the following would be expected findings in the client with Pediculosis?

A

The presence of nits at the base of the hair shaft.

37
Q

What skin change is caused by the release of histamines?

A

Erythema

38
Q

Deficiency of Vitamin B-12 can lead to which type of anemia?

A

Pernicious Anemia

39
Q

Which disease is also known as the kissing disease?

A

Infectious Mononucleosis

40
Q

Periodic severe headaches that may be completely incapacitating are known as which of the following?

A

Migraines

41
Q

The client with advanced dementia would exhibit which of the following symptoms?

A

The inability to problem-solve

42
Q

A college student living in the local dormitory enters the urgent care center with a fever, headache, confusion, and a stiff neck. The headache gets worse when the student leans their head forward. Which of the following is required for the nurse wearing a mask and this assessment?

A

The student is showing symptoms of bacterial meningitis

43
Q

The nurse assesses a 27-year-old female client who presents with muscle weakness and decreased coordination in the past few months. What nervous system disease is she most likely suffering from?

A

Multiple Sclerosis

44
Q

What is the term for paralysis of all four extremities?

A

Quadriplegia

45
Q

Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when assessing a client with diabetes insipidus? SATA

A

Deep, fast respirations
Lethargy

46
Q

Which of the following places a client at risk for neutropenia? SATA

A

Chemotherapy

Congenital Conditions

Infection

47
Q

Which of the following factors describes Virchow triad? SATA

A

Sluggish blood flow
Endothelial injury
Hyper-coagulability

48
Q

A teenage athlete experiences, a sudden impact on his shoulder during a football game, causing it to move out of its original position. Which of the following musculoskeletal dislocation is his client most likely experiencing?

A

Shoulder dislocation

49
Q

Which condition is a cause of rickets?

A

Vitamin D deficiency

50
Q

Intracellular fluid contains higher concentrations of which of the following?

A

Magnesium and potassium

51
Q

Metabolic Acidosis is associated with all of the following except?

A

Vomiting

52
Q

Which type of white blood cells play a role in cell-mediated immunity in the production of immunoglobulins?

A

Lymphocytes

53
Q

What clinical manifestations will the nurse expect to find a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis?

A

Narrowing of the bronchioles

Dilation of the peripheral blood vessels

Increase capillary permeability

54
Q

What causes atherosclerotic plaques to form in the body?

A

Injury to the endothelium of the coronary arteries

55
Q

A client is diagnosed with hypertension as a result of their chronic renal failure and diabetes. This type of hypertension is known as which of the following?

A

Secondary Hypertension

56
Q

A client is diagnosed with hypertension with no identifiable cause. This type of hypertension is called?

A

Primary Hypertension

57
Q

The nurse recognizes warmth and redness in an area of cellulitis. What is the most likely cause of this finding?

A

Increased blood flow to this area.

58
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the role of histamine and seasonal allergies?

A

Histamine DILATES the vessels in the nose, causing the nose to become CONGESTED.

59
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the pathophysiology of COPD?

A

Inflammation leads to LUNG FIBROSIS and loss of elasticity

60
Q

Which two diseases could result in chronic obstruction pulmonary disease (COPD)?

A

Emphysema &
Chronic Bronchitis

61
Q

Which statement below differentiates asthma from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

A

Airflow obstruction caused by ASTHMA is REVERSIBLE whereas airflow obstruction caused COPD is NOT REVERSIBLE.

62
Q

Which of the following activities is most likely to trigger exercise and induced asthma?

A

Running

63
Q

What is the goal of most systemic cancer treatment?

A

Killing Rapidly dividing cells

64
Q

A client with heart failure reports awakening intermediately with shortness of breath. Which term appropriately describes this manifestation?

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal

65
Q

The client with pale, cold clammy skin, rapid and weak pulse, Tachypnea, and an altered level of consciousness may be experiencing which of the following conditions?

A

Shock

66
Q

The client is experiencing gradually increased dyspnea, anxiety, and edema of the feet and ankles may be suffering from which of the following conditions?

A

Heart failure

Q&A (7 decks)

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