Patho final Flashcards

1
Q

define fibrosis

A

thickening and scarring of CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define cirrhosis

A

degeneration of cells
typically result of alcoholism or hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe the liver

A

reddish brown organ
4 lobes
at T9-L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

where does the hepatic artery carry blood to?

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

where does the portal vein carry blood from?

A

GI
spleen
associated organs

to the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the functions of the liver?

A

metabolsim - carbos, fat, protein
secretory - bile acids, bile salts, pigments
excretory - bilirubin, drugs, toxins
synthesis - albumin, coagulation factors
storage - vitamins, carbos
detoxification - toxins, ammoina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how much bile does liver produce in a day?

A

500-600 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is bile required for?

A

digestion of dietary fats and absorption of fats and fat soluble vitamins from intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what does bile contain?

A

bile salts
water
bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where is bilirubin produced?

A

in bone marrow and also liver as end product of hemoglobin breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the normal levels of bilirubin?

A

less than 1.5 mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is jaundice?

A

abnormal high amounts of bilirubin in blood
sclera changes - 2-3 mg/dl
changes in skin color - 5-6 mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what causes jaundice?

A

imbalance between synthesis and clearance of bilirubin
- excessive destruction of RBCs
- excessive production of bilirubin
- obstruction of bile flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are spider angiomas

A

dilations of superficial capillaries
increased estrogen levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

palmar erythema

A

warm redness of skin over palms
increased estrogen levels
associated with throbbing and tingling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

primary pain for liver and gallbladder

A

right upper quadrant abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is hepatic osteodystrophy

A

alterations in bone mineral metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the neuro involvements of the liver

A

CNS altered function and metabolism
confusion
tremors
asterixis - flapping tremor/liver flap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

other signs and symptoms of liver problems

A

GI
edema due to decreased serum albumin levels
bile converted from bilirubin causes coloration of stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is cirrhosis

A

progressive inflam
reduced blood flow to liver
12th leading cause of death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the most common causes of cirrhosis

A

alcohol abuse
hep C
toxic reactions to drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

clinical manifestations of cirrhosis

A

hepatomegaly
weight loss, weakness, anorexia, jaundice
pain in right quad
fatigue with mild exertion
impaired coag
portal hypertension
hepatic encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is ascites

A

distended abdomen
accumulation of fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are causes of ascites

A

malnutrition
heart failure
infection
malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how does ascites present

A

distended abdomen
protruding, displaced umbilicus
bilateral edema of feet and ankle
pain in groin and low back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what tests of liver function will be high with cirrhosis?

A

alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
serum bilirubin
alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what tests of liver function will be low with cirrhosis?

A

serum albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is hepatitis?

A

acute/chronic inflam of liver caused by virus, chemical, drug reaction, or alcohol abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

risk factors of hepatitis

A

injection drug users
acupuncture
tattoo inscription/removal
ear and body piercing
recent operative procedure
hemodialysis
health care worker exposed to blood products/body fluids
exposure to certain chemicals/bisexual activity
travel to high risk areas
consumption of raw shellfish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

which types of hepatitis have a vaccine?

A

A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

which types of hep are transmitted by fecal-oral?

A

A and E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

which types of hep are transmitted by contact with infected blood?

A

B, C, D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

which types of hep are chronic?

A

B, C, D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what does the incubation/preclinical period of hep look like?

A

lasts 10-50 days
asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what does the prodromal/preicteric period of hep look llike?

A

1-3 weeks
dark urine
light colored stools
vague GI symp
fatigue, malaise, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
aversion to food
alcohol
cigarette smoking
enlarged tender liver
itching
arthralgias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what does the icteric period of hep look like?

A

2-4 weeks
jaundice
GI sym subside
liver tenderness
enlarged spleen
enlarged cervical lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what does the recover/convalescence period of hep look like?

A

3-4 months
easily fatigued
liver enlarged and tender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

implications to PT with hep

A

wear PPE
need a balance of activity and rest
look for side effects of medications: muscle pain, headache, skin irri, depression, hair loss, cough, anything intolerable - report to physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is alcohol related liver disease?

A

a spectrum that includes fatty liver disease, alcoholic hep, cirrhosis
men > women
women develop after shorter exposure and lower quantity of alcohol than men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what % of heavy drinkers develop alcohol related liver disease?

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

which stages of liver disease are reversible?

A

steatosis
hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is pancreatitis?

A

serious inflam of pancreas
build up of pancreatic enzymes - autodigestion

acute - mild, reversible
chronic - recurrent or persisting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are the different pancreatic enzymes?

A

trypsin - digest protein
amylase - digest carbos
lipase - digest fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the most common causes of pacreatitis?

A

gall stones
alcohol
toxins: acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what happens with pancreatitis

A

severe ischemia, inflam
disrupts ducts - leakage of fluid and formation of pesudocysts that contain necrotic tissue

can get infected with bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

clinical manifestations with acute pancreatitis

A

mild nonspecific pain to profound shock
abdo pain abruptly in mid epigastrium
pain radiates to back and worse by lying or supine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

clinical manifestations with chronic pancreatitis

A

persistent or recurrent episodes of epigastric and left upper quadrant pain, mid thoracic pain and to left shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are the triggers of pancreatitis?

A

eating meals
drinking alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

other symptoms of pancreatitis

A

nausea
vomiting
anorexia
fever
tachycardia
jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

management of pancreatitis

A

low fat diet
alcohol is forbidden

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

referral for pancreatitis

A

new onset of myopathy
obvious signs of hepatic disease with hx of cancer
arthralgias of unknown cause
presence of bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome
presence of sensory neuropathy of unknown cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

cues for screening in pancreatitis

A

liver involvement: right shoulder pain
shoulder motion not limited by pain
unable to localize pain/tenderness
GI symp
B/L CTS
hx of cancer/liver/gallbladder disease
hx of statin or hepatotoxic frugs
recent injection drugs use/piercing/tattoo
changes in skin
alcohol consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

normal range of pH

A

7.35-7.45
single value: 7.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is blood gas analysis?

A

tests on blood from anywhere in circulatory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is arterial blood gas?

A

tests on blood from an artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what does an ABG report consist of?

A

pH
PaCO2
PaO2
SaO2
HCO3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the normal range for PaO2?

A

> 80 mmHg
single value: 97

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

hypoxemic ranges for PaO2

A

mildly - 60-80
moderately - 40-60
severely - 40 or below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is the normal range for PaCO2?

A

35-45 mmHg
single value: 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

abnormal ranges for PaCO2

A

hyperventilation: < 40
hypovent: > 40
ventilatory failure: > 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is acid-base balance?

A

balance between acids and bases in blood
hydrogen ion concentration is inverse of pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is the normal range for HCO3

A

22-26
single value: 24

61
Q

what do buffer systems do?

A

resist pH change
regulate acid base balance

62
Q

plasma buffer system

A

reacts within seconds in response to hydrogen ion concentration

63
Q

respiratory buffer system

A

reacts within minutes to excrete CO2 through change in respiratory rate

64
Q

renal buffer system

A

reacts within hours/days through the production, absorption, excretion of acids, bases, ions

65
Q

pH < 7.4

A

acidic - acidemia - acidosis

low HCO3 - meta acidosis
high PaCO2 - res acidosis

66
Q

pH > 7.4

A

alkaline - alkalemia - alkalosis

high HCO3 - metabolic alkalosis
low PaCO2 - respiratory alkalosis

67
Q

respiratory compensations for primary metabolic disorders

A

if decres HCO3, decres PaCO2 and hyperventilation

68
Q

uncompensated

A

pH outside of range and compensator WNL

69
Q

partially compensated

A

pH and compensator outside of range

70
Q

compensated

A

pH WNL and compensator outside range

71
Q

steps for acid base disorder interpretation

A

look at pH value - determine acidic or basic
look at CO2 and HCO2 - acid or base
match CO2 and HCO3 with pH - same acid or base

72
Q

what is cancer?

A

disease in which abnormal cells divide w/o control and can invade nearby tissues and to the other parts of the tissues through blood and lymphatic system

73
Q

what is neoplasm?

A

new growth

74
Q

what is a tumor?

A

abnormal growth
swelling

75
Q

what is malignancy?

A

presence of cancer cells that have the ability to spread to other areas

76
Q

what is carcinoma?

A

cancer of epithelial cells

77
Q

define neoplasia

A

disorganized growth
net increase in number of dividing cells

78
Q

6 hallmarks of cancer

A

self sufficient in growth signals
insensitivity to anti-growth signals
tissue invasion and metastasis
limitless replicative potential
sustained angiogenesis
evading apoptosis

79
Q

where does a benign tumor spread?

A

it is confined to its original location

80
Q

where does a malignant tumor spread?

A

capable of invading surrounding tissue or even the entire body

81
Q

define metastasis

A

spread of cancer cells away from origin point

82
Q

where does bladder cancer metastasize to?

A

bone
liver
lung

83
Q

where does breast cancer metastasize to?

A

bone
brain
liver
lung

84
Q

where does colon cancer metastasize to?

A

liver
lung
peritoneum

85
Q

where does kidney cancer metastasize to?

A

adrenal gland
bone
brain
liver
lung

86
Q

where does lung cancer metastasize to?

A

adrenal gland
bone
brain
liver
other lung

87
Q

where does melanoma metastasize to?

A

bone
brain
liver
lung
skin
muscle

88
Q

where does ovarian cancer metastasize to?

A

liver
lung
peritoneum

89
Q

where does pancreatic cancer metastasize to?

A

liver
lung
peritoneum

90
Q

where does prostate cancer metastasize to?

A

adrenal gland
bone
liver
lung

91
Q

where does rectal cancer metastasize to?

A

liver
lung
peritoneum

92
Q

where does stomach cancer metastasize to?

A

liver
lung
peritoneum

93
Q

where does thyroid cancer metastasize to?

A

bone
liver
lung

94
Q

where does uterine cancer metastasize to?

A

bone
liver
lung
peritoneum
vagina

95
Q

what is an “-oma”

A

benign, nonmalignant tumor

96
Q

what does “adeno-“ mean

A

gland like

97
Q

what does “lipo-“ mean

98
Q

what is a sarcoma

A

cancer of CT

99
Q

leukemia

A

cancer originating in bone marrow

100
Q

lymphoma

A

originating from immune tissue - lymph or spleen

101
Q

what is cell proliferation?

A

increase in cell number by mitotic cell division

102
Q

what is cell differentiation?

A

giving them a job

103
Q

cell characteristics of benign vs malignant tumors?

A

B: well differentiated and resemble tissue of origin
M: undifferentiated and little resemblance of origin tissue

104
Q

rate of growth of benign vs malignant tumors?

A

B: progressive and slow
M: variable, the more undiff more rapid growth

105
Q

mode of growth of benign vs malignant tumors?

A

B: w/o invasion
M: grows by invasion

106
Q

metastasis of benign vs malignant tumors?

A

B: none
M: access to blood, and lymph

107
Q

anaplasia

A

loss of differentiation

108
Q

diagnostic methods of cancer

A

blood tests for tumor markers
cytological studies and tissue biopsy
endoscopic exam
US
x ray
MRI
CT
PET (positron emission tomography)

109
Q

grade 1 cancer

A

differ slightly from normal
well differentiated

110
Q

grade 2 cancer

A

more abnormal
mod differentiated

111
Q

grade 3 cancer

A

poorly diff

112
Q

grade 4 cancer

A

immature, primitive, undiff cells
difficult to determine cell of origin
anaplastic

113
Q

clinical stages of cancer (0-4)

A

0: cancer small and in situ (still in origin)
1: tumor limited to tissue of origin
2: limited local spread
3: extensive local and regional spread
4: metastasis

114
Q

staging of primary tumor (T)

A

Tx - primary tumor cannot be assessed
T0 - no evidence of primary tumor
T1,T2,T3,T4 - increasing in size +/or local extent of T

115
Q

staging of regional lymph nodes (N)

A

Nx - regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed
N0 - no regional lymph node metastasis
N1,N2,N3 - increasing involvement of N

116
Q

staging of distant metastasis (M)

A

Mx - distant metastasis cannot be assessed
M0 - no distant metastasis
M1 - distant metastasis

117
Q

what are tumor cell markers?

A

antigens expressed on the surface of tumor cells
substances produced by cancer cells or in response to presence of cancer cells

118
Q

how are tumor markers monitored?

A

hormones
enzymes
genes (B-Rraf, K-Ras, ect)
antigens (PSA - in blood or prostate cancer)
antibodies

119
Q

what is the process of cancer development?

A

exposure of cells to carcinogenic agents
growth of cells
tumor cells acquire malignant phenotypic changes

120
Q

what the modifiable risk factors in cancer?

A

smoking, tobacco use
chemical exposure
alcohol consumption
sedentary lifestyle
obesity
diet
radiations
STDs/viruses
vitamin B12 deficiency
lack of access to use of health care and screening tests

121
Q

what are the non-modifiable risk factors in cancer?

A

age
previous cancer
ethnicity
gender
heredity/genetics
congenital diseases/immunodeficiency

122
Q

what are the 7 warning signs of cancer?

A

change in bowel or bladder habits
a sore throat that does not heal
unusual bleeding or discharge from body orifice
thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere
indigestion or difficulty swallowing
obvious change in wart or mole
nagging cough or hoarseness

123
Q

what is the PT most likely to see in regards to cancer?

A

S&S of reoccurrence or metastasis

124
Q

clinical manifestations of cancer

A

earliest stages are asymptomatic
as cancer progresses, symptoms start to develop
rapid growth encroaches healthy tissue
continued spread
cancer pain
cancer related fatigue
paraneoplastic syndromes
cancer related anorexia/cachexia

125
Q

risk factor assessment for skin lesions

A

how long have you had it?
has is changed in past 6 weeks to 6 months?
has you physician examined this area?

126
Q

ABCDE of skin lesions

A

asymmetrical
border
color
diameter
evolving

127
Q

what are the causes of cancer pain?

A

pressure on nerves
visceral obstruction
throbbing pain from interference with blood supply
bone metastasis
inflammation, infection, necrosis
immobility
anxiety/depression increases perception of pain

128
Q

how can cancer pain be managed?

A

opioids
non-opioids
acupunture
cryotherapy
biofeedback
relaxation techniques

129
Q

duration of systemic/MSK pain

A

S: constant, progressive, awakens at night
M: intermittent

130
Q

aggravating factors of systemic/MSK pain

A

S: mvmt doesn’t help it
M: altered by mvmt

131
Q

relieving factors of systemic/MSK pain

A

M: usually none
S: rest, change in support, heat/cold, stretching

132
Q

quality of systemic/MSK pain

A

M: uni/bilateral, deep aching, diffuse
S: unilateral, sharp, local

133
Q

what is cancer related fatigue (CRF)?

A

sense if tiredness or exhaustion related to cancer or cancer treatment

134
Q

what can be done to combat CRF?

A

activity pacing
aerobic exercise
diet
exercise at lower intensity
progress at slower pace

135
Q

what are paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

not the direct effects of either tumor or metastasis
symptoms at distant sites

ex: small cell carcinoma of lung produces ACTH and causes cushings

136
Q

what is cancer related cachexia?

A

most severe form of malnutrition
hypermetabolic state and altered nutrient metabolism
loss of both muscular and skeletal compartment

137
Q

mechanisms of cancer related cachexia

A

tumor uses large amounts of glucose
use of fats and proteins
suppresses satiety center in hypothalamus

138
Q

when should a physician referral for cancer happen?

A

changes in DTRs
myotomal weakness pattern
changes in bladder/bowel function
pain the is unrelieved by rest or change in position
recently discovered lumps/nodules
hard, immovable lymph nodes
idiopathic proximal muscle weakness

139
Q

treatment of cancer

A

surgery
radiotherapy
chemotherapy
immunotherapy
hormones
biologic therapy

140
Q

what is chemotherapy?

A

interrupt tumor growth or kill tumor cells
cytotoxic to dividing cells
rapidly dividing cells are most sensitive
taxol/taxotere + cytoxan

141
Q

side effects of chemo

A

peripheral neuropathy
fatigue
GI effects
anxiety/depression
fluid electrolyte imbalance
hepatotoxicity
bone marrow suppression- anemia, leucopenia
hair loss
poor wound healing

142
Q

ACSM considerations for cancer pts

A

slower progression
if tolerable same exercise prescription as healthy
bone is a common metastasis site

143
Q

contact physician is these happen during exercise training

A

fever
extreme unusual fatigue
unusual muscular weakness
irregular HB, chest palpitations
sudden onset of dyspnea
leg pain/cramps
unusual joint pain
recent or new onset of back, neck or bone pain
unusual bruising or bleeding
sudden nausea
rapid weight change
severe diarrhea/vomiting
dizziness, lightheadedness
blurred vision or other visual disturbances
unusual skin rash
night pain

144
Q

describe radiation therapy

A

damage cell DNA and prevent further replication
can also affect normal tissue

145
Q

radiation side effects

A

fatigue
immunosuppression
decreased platelets, bleeding, anemia
decreased WBCs
infections
diarrhea
skin redness, dryness, irritation, itching, burns
edema
hair loss
ulceration
delayed wound healing
destruction of lymph tissue
bone necrosis and demineralization

146
Q

exercise and radiation therapy

A

mod intensity 3-5x/week
reduce anxiety
improve mood
reduce stress
improve QOL

147
Q

cancer surgery side effects

A

fatigue
loss of function
disfigurement
infection
increased pain
deformity
bleeding
scar tissue
fibrosis

148
Q

oncology rehabilitation

A

cancer-related fatigue
poor endurance
postural changes
gait abnormality
balance/coordination deficits
joint stiffness
muscle weakness
pain
pelvic floor dysfunction
pre and post op teaching
scar tissue restriction
radiation fibrosis
chemo induced peripheral neuropathy (CIPN)
cognitive changes
lymphedema/edema
sleep disturbances
body image changes

149
Q

symptoms of chemo induced peripheral neuropathy (CIPN)

A

glove and stocking
symmetric
tingling
numbness
burning
impaired sensation to touch and vibration
sensitivity to heat and cold

150
Q

drugs that cause CIPN

A

platinum based agents
taxanes
vinca alkaloids
- thalidomide
- lenolidamide
- methotrexate
rehabilitation
- balance
- mobility
- QOL
- strength

151
Q

what are treatments for lymphedema?

A

complete decongestive therapy
- manual lymphatic drainage
- compression - bandages
- exercises