Path recall March 2018 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Wilsons likely

a. Baby jaundice 3-6months
b. Corona radiata T2 early in disease
c. High ceruloplasmin bound copper
d. Autosomal dominant
e. Fatty liver

A

e. Fatty liver -true, mix with high density copper in liver may be normal on CT
1. Wilsons likely

a. Baby jaundice 3-6months - too young usually teens
b. Corona radiata T2 early in disease - usually basal ganglia causing parkinsonism
c. High ceruloplasmin bound copper - low ceruloplasmin, high hepatic copper content (most sensitive and accurate test), high urinary copper (most specific screening test). Serum copper levels are of no diagnostic value, since they may be low, normal, or elevated, depending on the stage of evolution of the disease.
d. Autosomal dominant - AR
e. Fatty liver -true, mix with high density copper in liver may be normal on CT

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2
Q
  1. SLE part of diagnostic criteria

a. Pericarditis
b. Peripheral neuropathy
c. Erosive arthropathy

A

a. Pericarditis true
2. SLE part of diagnostic criteria

a. Pericarditis true
b. Peripheral neuropathy - CNS
c. Erosive arthropathy - non erosive
d. MD SOAP BRAIN = criteria for SLE = malar rash, discoid rash, serositis, oral ulcers, arthritis, photosensitivity, blood dyscrasias, renal failure, ANA, immunologic, neurologic

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3
Q
  1. Xlinked

a. Adrenoleukodystrophy
b. Alexanders
c. Canavan
d. MLD

A

a. Adrenoleukodystrophy yes
3. Xlinked

a. Adrenoleukodystrophy yes
b. Alexanders (most are sporadic)
c. Canavan (Autosomal recessive, think Ashkenazi Jews)
d. MLD (Autosomal recessive)

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4
Q
  1. FMD doesn’t cause

a. Tinnitis
b. PVD
c. Angina
d. Renal
e. Carotid

A

**LJS - I think PVD least common of those listed. Tinnitus listed on radiopedia, due to carotid/VA involvement. Rest listed in Robbins, PVD is not in either (though some evidence that it occurs - google)

a. Tinnitis yes but rare, I think rarest only in case series
4. FMD doesn’t cause

a. Tinnitis yes but rare, I think rarest only in case series
b. PVD yes but rare
c. Angina yes but rare in case series
d. Renal
e. Carotid

*ESG, agree best answer is probably PVD.
FMD get coronary involvement with spontaneous dissection rather than the beading appearance seen in affected arteries elswhere.
Snippets from UpToDate as follows:
In general, manifestations of renal FMD (eg, hypertension, flank pain) are more likely to occur in men, as are arterial dissections and aneurysms. By contrast, manifestations of cerebrovascular FMD (eg, headache, pulsatile tinnitus, neck pain, carotid bruit) are more likely to occur in women.
Less common manifestations — Patients with lower-extremity FMD may present with intermittent claudication, critical limb ischemia, or microembolism that manifests as painful, cyanotic toes

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5
Q
  1. PAN does not affect

a. Lungs
b. Kidneys
c. Mesenteric vessels

A

a. Lungs PAN spares lungs classically, similar to MPA but medium vessels affected
5. PAN does not affect

a. Lungs PAN spares lungs classically, similar to MPA but medium vessels affected
b. Kidneys
c. Mesenteric vessels

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6
Q
  1. SCC tongue which doesn’t cause

a. Marijuana
b. Cocaine
c. HPV
d. Syphillis
e. Alcohol

A

b. Cocaine doesn’t because you snort it, HTN, perforation
6. SCC tongue which doesn’t cause

a. Marijuana smoking
b. Cocaine doesn’t because you snort it, HTN, perforation
c. HPV yes oral sex
d. Syphillis rare syphilitic leukoplakia
e. Alcohol yes

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7
Q
  1. Not risk factor for RCC

a. Smoking
b. Alcohol
c. Obesity

A

b. Alcohol no! lower risk
7. Not risk factor for RCC

a. Smoking yes
b. Alcohol no! lower risk
c. Obesity yes

  • AJL - Risk factors for RCC (ignoring syndromes)
  • Smoking
  • Obesity
  • HTN
  • Cyclophosphamide
  • Transplant
  • Dialysis-related cystic disease
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8
Q
  1. Precursor to melanoma

a. Blue naevus
b. Dysplastic naevus
c. Congenital naevus
d. Basal naevus

A

b. Dysplastic naevus yes
8. Precursor to melanoma

a. Blue naevus
b. Dysplastic naevus yes
c. Congenital naevus
d. Basal naevus

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9
Q
  1. PML

a. CMV
b. EBV
c. JCV
d. HBV

A
  1. PML
    a. JCV yes

SCS edit: added extra distractors, not actual recalls

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10
Q
  1. Jaundice in pregnancy, most common cause of liver disease in pregnancy

a. Cholestasis
b. Hepatitis
c. Preeclampsia
d. HELLP

A

b. Hepatitis yes most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy
* *SCS: specifically viral according to robbins.

  1. Jaundice in pregnancy, most common cause of liver disease in pregnancy

a. Cholestasis 1 in 1000
b. Hepatitis yes most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy
c. Preeclampsia HTN and proteinuria
d. HELLP rare but bad

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11
Q
  1. Least true regarding circumvallate

a. Abruption
b. IUGR
c. Painless bleeding
d. Fetal death
e. Abnormal tocography

A

c. Painless bleeding

**LJS - anything that increases risk of abruption, IUGR and preterm birth surely also increases risk of fetal death if these things not managed appropriately.
Painless bleeding least likely
*AJL agrees

ADB->Circumvallate placenta as a cause of painless bleeding in this cdhb document.
https://edu.cdhb.health.nz/Hospitals-Services/Health-Professionals/maternity-care-guidelines/Documents/GLM0052-Antepartum-Haemorrhage.pdf

  1. Least true regarding circumvallate

a. Abruption
b. IUGR
c. Painless bleeding
d. Fetal death
e. Abnormal tocography

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12
Q
  1. Least correct

a. ADEM follow bacterial infection
b. NMO bilateral optic neuritis
c. Relapsing remitting MS on MRI plaque doesn’t have axonal degeneration

A

a. ADEM follow bacterial infection
12. Least correct

a. ADEM follow bacterial infection
b. NMO bilateral optic neuritis
c. Relapsing remitting MS on MRI plaque doesn’t
have axonal degeneration

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis is a diffuse, monopha­sic demyelinating disease that follows either a viral infec­tion or, rarely, a viral immunization.

Neuromyelitis optica (NMO) is a syndrome with synchronous (or near synchronous) bilateral optic neuritis and spinal cord demyelination.

Robbins MS:
Within an active plaque there is relative preservation of axons and depletion of oligodendrocytes.
Within inactive plaques, little to no myelin is found, and there is a reduction in the number of oligodendrocyte nuclei; instead, astrocytic proliferation and gliosis are prominent. Axons in old gliotic plaques show severe demyelination and are also greatly diminished in number.

Radiopaedia:
Multiple sclerosis is believed to result from a cell-mediated autoimmune response against one’s own myelin components, with loss of oligodendrocytes, with little or no axonal degeneration in the acute phase; however, in later stages, loss of oligodendrocytes results in axonal degeneration

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13
Q
  1. Hirschprungs false

a. More common in females
b. Involves whole colon
c. Bowel obstruction and perforation

A

a. More common in females - more common male
SCS: this primary relates to short segment disease. Becoming more even in long segment disease.

  1. Hirschprungs false

a. More common in females more common male
b. Involves whole colon
c. Bowel obstruction and perforation

**LJS - only 4% total aganglionosis

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14
Q
  1. PXA

a. Involves grey matter and overlying meninges
b. Adults frontal
c. Child brainstem and cerebellum

A

a. Involves grey matter and overlying meninges this dural reaction
14. PXA

a. Involves grey matter and overlying meninges this dural reaction
b. Adults frontal - temporal
c. Child brainstem and cerebellum - rare

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15
Q
  1. Which chondroid lesion crosses physes

a. Chondroblastoma
b. Periostial chondroma
c. Enchondroma
d. CMF
e. Osteochondroma

A

*AJL - regarding CMF, Wheeless also states: typically located in the metaphyseal region of long bones, and in some cases it is possible for it to invade the epiphyseal plate;
I overall agree with LW that the common tumours are the three he listed so would pick one of those as ‘most correct’ (in this case chondroblastoma)

*LW:
Wheeless states: only three tumors may invade physis: chondroblastoma, GCT, and clear cell chondrosarcoma

**LJS - CMF and chrondroblastoma

*AJL (thinks this is a stupid question)
Chondroblastoma starts in epiphysis and crosses physis
CMF starts in metaphysis and crosses physis.

  1. Which chondroid lesion crosses physes

a. Chondroblastoma rarely may cross physis
b. Periostial chondroma
c. Enchondroma
d. CMF
e. Osteochondroma

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16
Q
  1. PVNS and GCT false

a. PVNS most common knee
b. GCT most common wrist
c. PVNS and GCT erode bone
d. GCT excision likely to recur
e. PVNS characteristically cause inflammation

A

*LW: they referring to giant cell tumour of tendon sheath (i.e. same spectrum as PVNS) which is most common in wrist. thus E false

(*AJL. If they were referring to bone GCT then it is most common at the knee)
(as an aside, PVNS is now known as tenosynovial GCT diffuse type. The type in the tendon sheath is tenosynovial GCT localised type. This is in the more recent Robbins 2018 basic and 2020 big robbins)

ADB-> I favour Tenosynovial giant cell tumours location being most common in the fingers making B wrong

  1. PVNS and GCT false

a. PVNS most common knee
b. GCT most common wrist
c. PVNS and GCT erode bone
d. GCT excision likely to recur - 10-20% recurrence
e. PVNS characteristically cause inflammation probably this characteristically bleed other answers are all more correct

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17
Q
  1. Post partum diabetes insipidus

a. Lymphocytic hypophysitis
b. Sheehans

A

a. Lymphocytic hypophysitis yes, loss of posterior pituitary bright spot and DI
17. Post partum diabetes insipidus

a. Lymphocytic hypophysitis yes, loss of posterior pituitary bright spot and DI
b. Sheehans - hypovolaemia (usually massive postpartum bleed) causing pituitary ischaemic necrosis, usually posterior pituitary is spared (see below)

Sheehan syndrome, also known as postpartum necrosis of the anterior pituitary, is the most common form of clinically significant ischemic necrosis of the anterior pituitary. During pregnancy the anterior pituitary enlarges to almost twice its normal size. This physio- logic expansion of the gland is not accompanied by an increase in blood supply from the low-pressure venous system; hence, there is relative hypoxia. Any further reduction in blood supply caused by obstetric hemor- rhage or shock may precipitate infarction of the anterior lobe. Because the posterior pituitary receives its blood directly from arterial branches, it is much less suscep- tible to ischemic injury and is therefore usually not affected. Pituitary necrosis may also be encountered in other conditions, such as disseminated intravascular coagulation and (more rarely) sickle cell anemia, ele- vated intracranial pressure, traumatic injury, and shock of any origin. Whatever the pathogenesis, the ischemic area is resorbed and replaced by a nubbin of fibrous tissue attached to the wall of an empty sella.

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18
Q
  1. Most common with tumor marker

a. YS tumor
b. Seminoma
c. Granulosa cell

A

a. YS tumor aFP
18. Most common with tumor marker

a. YS tumor aFP
b. Seminoma
c. Granulosa cell

Marked elevation of serum AFP or HCG levels are produced by yolk sac tumor and choriocarcinoma elements, respectively. Both of these markers are elevated in more than 80% of individuals with NSGCT at the time of diagnosis. As stated earlier, approximately 15% of seminomas have syncytiotrophoblastic giant cells and minimal elevation of HCG levels, which does not affect prognosis.

IVM: Additional info:
YSK most common testicular tumour in infants and children up to 3 years - has a good prognosis.
Rare in pure form in adults.

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19
Q
  1. Most common elderly testicular tumor

a. Metastatic disease
b. Spermatocytic seminoma
c. Lymphoma
d. Germ cell tumour

(*AJL added some… mwahahahaha)

A
  1. Most common elderly testicular tumor

c. Lymphoma

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20
Q
  1. Most common elderly germ cell testicular tumor

a. Spermatocytic seminoma
b. Mixed GCT
c. Pure Seminoma
d. Lymphoma
e. Sertoli cell

*AJL added some to make it better

A
  1. Most common eldertly germ cell testicular tumor
    a. Spermatocytic seminoma yes
**SCS from radiopaedia
Seminoma divided into 3 subtypes:
- classic (85%)
- anaplastic (10%)
-spermatocytic (5%): age >60, rarely metastasise, well DDx cells resembling spermatocytes.

*IVM: ?mixed more common than spermatocytic (hard to find numbers corresponding to age groups)

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21
Q
  1. Wilms least correct

a. Bilateral almost always germ line
b. Unilateral is 50% genetic
c. Genetic wilms have nephrogenic rests

A

b. Unilateral is 50% genetic. No it is 10%
* AJL - sporadic wilms accounts for 90% of all wilms tumours. Bilateral wilms patients are presumed to have a germline gene mutation (on 11p chromosome) - Robbins.
21. Wilms least correct

a. Bilateral almost always germ line
b. Unilateral is 50% genetic 10%
c. Genetic wilms have nephrogenic rests

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22
Q
  1. Breast least likely in post menopausal

a. IDC
b. LCIS
c. Fibroadenoma
d. Phylloides
e. Papillary

A

c. Fibroadenoma young
22. Breast least likely in post menopausal

a. IDC
b. LCIS
c. Fibroadenoma young
d. Phylloides
e. Papillary

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23
Q
  1. Antibodies to GBM

a. Goodpastures
b. PAN
c. Wegners
d. MPA

A

a. Goodpastures true
28. Antibodies to GBM

a. Goodpastures true
b. PAN
c. Wegners
d. MPA

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24
Q
  1. Myeloma false

a. IgA
b. IgG
c. Serum light chains
d. BJP

A

a. IgA less common, maybe this answer or the other not recalled one
29. Myeloma false

a. IgA less common (20%), maybe this answer or the other not recalled one
b. IgG -most common 60%
c. Serum light chains -yes
d. BJP -yes

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25
Q
  1. Diabetes microangiopathy false

a. Glomerulosclerosis
b. Macula oedema
c. Peripheral neuropathy
d. Autonomic neuropathy

A

*AJL - all are true.
A previous recall also had papillary necrosis which is not caused by microangiopathy but rather a consequence of recurrent pyelonephritis.

  1. Diabetes microangiopathy false

a. Glomerulosclerosis -yes
b. Macula oedema -yes
c. Peripheral neuropathy -yes
d. Autonomic neuropathy - *AJL - Affects 20-40% of diabetics (robbins)

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26
Q
  1. DCIS

a. Prognosis depends on histological microarchitecture
b. High grade worse prognosis

A

b. High grade worse prognosis - correct grading based on comedonecrosis and pleomorphism
27. DCIS

a. Prognosis depends on histological microarchitecture - wrong but some what true if comedonecrosis is included, but I think they mean appearance of papillary, micropapillary, cribiform etc.
* AJL - Robbins says: The major risk factors for recurrence are (1) high nuclear grade and necrosis, (2) extent of disease, and (3) positive surgical margins. I would take those three factors to be the prognostic factors.

b. High grade worse prognosis - correct grading based on comedonecrosis and pleomorphism

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27
Q
  1. Complex sclerosing lesion on biopsy

a. No further management, benign
b. Hookwire and open biopsy
c. Hookwire WLE and SNB

A

b. Hookwire and open biopsy -correct
26. Complex sclerosing lesion on biopsy

a. No further management, benign -false
b. Hookwire and open biopsy -correct
c. Hookwire WLE and SNB -false SNB only if invasive cancer, radial scar is not cancer, DCIS is not cancer

28
Q
  1. More likely Hodgkins than NHL

a. Single nodal site
b. Extranodal disease
c. Small bowel mesentery

A

a. Single nodal site true
25. More likely Hodgkins than NHL

a. Single nodal site true
b. Extranodal disease NHL
c. Small bowel mesentery NHL

29
Q
  1. Regarding thyroid lesions (which is false)

a. Iodine deficiency associated follicular carcinoma
b. Radiation is associated with papillary
c. Medullary with MEN worse prognosis than medullary without MEN
d. Anaplastic kills by invasion
e. Hashimotos sometimes assoc with hodgkins lymphoma

A

e. Hashimotos sometimes assoc with hodgkins lymphoma - no associated NHL
24. Regarding thyroid lesions (which is false)

a. Iodine deficiency associated follicular carcinoma -yes
b. Radiation is associated with papillary -yes
c. Medullary with MEN worse prognosis than medullary without MEN -yes
d. Anaplastic kills by invasion -yes
e. Hashimotos sometimes assoc with hodgkins lymphoma -no associated NHL

**LJS - iodine deficiency is ass/w follicular carcinoma (Robbins p 1095)
Hashimotos ass/w marginal zone B cell lymphoma (NHL) and papillary carcinoma
*AJL - I have edited the answer to ‘a’ so the question only has one incorrect choice

30
Q
  1. True regarding juvenile papillomatosis

a. Most commonly presents as palpable mass
b. Nipple discharge
c. Solid lesion on US
d. No increased risk of breast cancer

A

a. Most commonly presents as palpable mass correct
23. True regarding juvenile papillomatosis

a. Most commonly presents as palpable mass correct
b. Nipple discharge - adult papilloma bloody discharge
c. Solid lesion on US - can have small cysts, pathologically swiss cheese appearance
d. No increased risk of breast cancer - increased risk

31
Q
  1. Renal cortical calcifications in HIV on US which is true

a. HIVAN
b. CMV
c. EBV
d. PCP

A
  • AJL - Radiopaedia mentions MAI and PCP as causes therefore I think the correct answer is PCP
    31. Cortical calcifications in HIV on US which is true

a. HIVAN -no, enlarged echogenic kidney
b. CMV -yes, later described also in MAI
c. EBV -no
d. PCP -yes, first case series described

*ESG
Crack the core Vol 1 p240:
Disseminated PCP in HIV patients can result in punctate (primarily cortical) calcifications

32
Q
  1. Trophoblastic disease

a. PSTT presenting 2 years after normal pregnancy has good prognosis
b. Metastatic disease to lungs in GTD is very chemosensitive
c. Partial mole no risk of choriocarcinoma

A
  • AJL - Best answer is c. partial mole has no association with choriocarcinoma.
    32. Trophoblastic disease

a. PSTT presenting 2 years after normal pregnancy has good prognosis
* AJL - negative prognostic factors are; time to presentation since last pregnancy, mitotic index (RP). Robbins says those with localised disease have a good prognosis.
b. Metastatic disease to lungs in GTD is very chemosensitive
* AJL - Less chemo sensitive than other forms of GTD. (
c. Partial mole no risk of choriocarcinoma
* *LJS - Robbins 9th edition: partial mole has no ass/w choriocarcinoma (AJL agree)

*IVM Not sure if AJL found a resource that specifically said lung mets in GTD are less chemo sensitive, or if he is referring to GTD in general? Robbins “the results of chemo for gestational choriocarcinoma are spectacular… By contrast non-gestational choriocarcinomas are much more resistant to chemo.”

33
Q
  1. SPT false (presuming solid pseudopapillary tumour pancreas)

a. Solid and cystic components
b. Middle aged woman

A

b. Middle aged woman -false
33. SPT false (presuming solid pseudopapillary tumour pancreas)

a. Solid and cystic components- true
b. Middle aged woman -false - Usually 2nd to 3rd decade (i.e. teens/20s)

34
Q
  1. Most likely bilateral

a. Mucinous tumor
b. Endometrioid tumor
c. Brenners
d. Dermoid

A

b. Endometrioid tumor yes, most likely bilateral Endometrioid (40% - rob) > Serous (25%) > dermoid
34. Most likely bilateral

a. Mucinous tumor
b. Endometrioid tumor yes,
c. Brenners
d. Dermoid

35
Q
  1. RCC bilateral most likely

a. Clearcell
b. Papillary
c. Medullary
d. Collecting duct

A

b. Papillary true
35. RCC bilateral most likely

a. Clearcell
b. Papillary true
c. Medullary
d. Collecting duct

36
Q
  1. RCC best prognosis

a. Clear cell
b. Papillary
c. Chromophobe
d. Medullary

A

c. Chromophobe true assoc with BHDS, oncocytic37.
36. RCC best prognosis

a. Clear cell
b. Papillary
c. Chromophobe true assoc with BHDS, oncocytic
d. Medullary

37
Q

Parotid lesion least likely

a. SCC
b. Acinic cell
c. Warthins
d. Adenocystic
e. Mucoepidermoid

A

*LW: SCC

Incidence of parotid lesions (Big Robbins 9th Ed, pg 744):
Pleomorphic adenoma - 50%
Mucoepidermoid (malignant) - 15%
Adenocarcinoma NOS (malignant) - 10%
Warthin 5-10%
Oncocytoma - 1%
Acinic cell carcinoma (malignant) - 5%
adenoid cystic carcinoma (malignant) - 5%
SCC - 1%

a. SCC either this, does it count mets to parotid node
37. Parotid lesion least likely

a. SCC either this, does it count mets to parotid node
b. Acinic cell or this
c. Warthins
d. Adenocystic
e. Mucoepidermoid

38
Q
  1. Spiculated mass true

a. Complex sclerosing lesion
b. Short spicules in radial scar

A
  1. Spiculated mass true

a. Complex sclerosing lesion (this was the best option even though usually its no mass centrally) true
b. Short spicules in radial scar

39
Q
  1. Least likely present with spiculated mass
Radial scar
Tubular carcinoma breast
Medullary breast
IDC
ILC
A
  1. Least likely present with spiculated mass

Medullary breast usually circumscribed, round.
(As are mucinous tumours)

**SCS added options to make it a question.

ER-negative, HER2-negative tumors often correspond to one of several special histologic types. Chief among these is medullary carcinoma. Medullary carcinoma is softer than other carcinomas (medulla is Latin for “marrow”) due to minimal desmoplasia, and often presents as a well-circumscribed mass.

Medullary carcinoma is of great interest due to the finding that many tumors of this type have features that are characteristic of BRCA1-associated carcinomas. Among cancers arising in BRCA1 carriers, 13% are of medullary type, and up to 60% have a subset of medullary features.

The basis for the relatively good prognosis of this subtype com­pared to other poorly differentiated carcinomas is not known, but it has been noted that the presence of lympho­cytic infiltrates within the tumors is associated with higher survival rates and a greater response to chemotherapy, suggesting that improved outcomes may be related to a host immune response to tumor antigens.

40
Q
  1. Coal workers least likely
    a. Centrilobular emphysema
    b. Nodules and macules
    c. PMF lower zone
    d. Peripheral calcification in node
A

*AJL - CWP tends to have central calcification (10-20%) and only rarely has eggshell or peripheral calcification (2%). Eggshell is more a feature of silicosis.
I’m undecided whether this changes the answer as PMF should be in the upper zone but I’m surely it is rarely in the lower zone.

c. PMF lower zone - false
40. Coal workers least likely

a. Centrilobular emphysema
b. Nodules and macules
c. PMF lower zone - false
d. Peripheral calcification in node

41
Q
  1. Silicosis wrong

a. Causes TB
b. Massive fibrosis upper lobe
c. Nodules in lower zones
d. Honeycombing

A

c. Nodules in lower zones false
41. Silicosis wrong

a. Causes TB
b. Massive fibrosis upper lobe
c. Nodules in lower zones false
d. Honeycombing 10% UIP

**LJS ??
Nodules are typically upper zone, but can’t find anywhere (Rob, HRCT book, radiopedia. statdx) that silicosis specifically causes honeycombing. “Other pneumoconioses” can cause honeycombing according to HRCT/statdx, but complicated silicosis always described as PMF.
*AJL - This paper suggests that silicosis does cause honeycombing but it is different to UIP type honeycombing.
https://www.ajronline.org/doi/10.2214/AJR.10.4873

*AJL - I’m also unsure how silicosis causes TB… It is associated with increased TB but doesn’t cause TB.

… crystalline silica inhibits the ability of pulmonary macrophages to kill phagocytosed mycobacteria

42
Q
  1. Pleural effusion wrong

a. Renal failure haemorrhagic effusion
b. Simple effusion in low albumin

A

a. Renal failure haemorrhagic effusion false, transudate
42. Pleural effusion wrong

a. Renal failure haemorrhagic effusion false, transudate
b. Simple effusion in low albumin

43
Q
  1. LAM false

a. Chylothorax
b. PTX
c. TS
d. Upper zone distribution of cysts

A

d. Upper zone distribution of cysts no distribution, LCH is upper lobe
43. LAM false

a. Chylothorax
b. PTX
c. TS
d. Upper zone distribution of cysts no distribution, LCH is upper lobe

44
Q
  1. Renal papillary necrosis - false?

a. Analgesia
b. Diabetes
c. Obtruction
d. Sickle cell
e. Emboli into segmental vessel

A
  1. Renal papillary necrosis

a. Analgesia
b. Diabetes
c. Obtruction
d. Sickle cell
e. Emboli into segmental vessel not part of AD SPORT C

caused by renal vein thrombosis not arterial embolism

45
Q
  1. Drug associations false

a. MTX pneumatocele
b. Cylophoshamide and mass
c. Phenytoin and pleural effusion

A

a. MTX pneumatocele false
45. Drug associations false

a. MTX pneumatocele false
b. Cylophoshamide and mass
c. Phenytoin and pleural effusion

46
Q
  1. Lesion without scar

a. Adenoma
b. Haemangioma
c. FLHCC
d. FNH
e. Cholangiocarcinoma

A

a. Adenoma no scar
46. Lesion without scar

a. Adenoma no scar
b. Haemangioma
c. FLHCC
d. FNH
e. Cholangiocarcinoma

47
Q
  1. CM brain - which is false

a. Associated DVA
b. Haemosiderin rim
c. Seizure
d. No brain tissue
e. Dilated draining vein

A

e. Dilated draining vein dAVF
47. CM brain

a. Associated DVA (assoc with cavernoma)
b. Haemosiderin rim
c. Seizure
d. No brain tissue (cavernoma)
e. Dilated draining vein dAVF

*IVM: Info from Robbins:
AVM: composed of enlarged vessels separated by gliotic tissue
Cavernous malformations: disorganized vascular channels devoid of any intervening nervous tissue (distinguishing them capillary telangiectasias). Frequently calcification from prior bleed.
Capillary telangiectasia: microscopic foci of dilated thin walled vascular channels separated by normal brain. Most frequently in the pons.

48
Q
  1. Psoriatic arthritis true

a. Aortitis
b. Synovial inflammation
c. Plantar fasciitis

A

**LJS - Plantar fasciitis - yes, form of enthesitis

  • Aortitis - no (other HLA B27 arthropathies - ank spond, reiters are ass/w aortitis, not psoriatic)
  • Synovial inflammation - no. Seronegative spondyloarthropathies affect the ligamentous attachments, not the synovium (Robbins)
49
Q
  1. Lesion false

a. Nodular fasciitis related to trauma
b. Variations of myositis ossificans and nodular fasciits locations features

A
  • *LJS - nodular fasciitis also related to trauma
  • LW agree - preceeeding trauma noted in 10-15% cases.
  1. Lesion false

a. Nodular fasciitis related to trauma false - myositis ossificans
b. Variations of myositis ossificans and nodular fasciits locations features

SCS:
Nodular fasciitis most commonly volar aspect forearm.

50
Q
  1. Lesion in stomach dyspepsia, sessile, 90 degree angle

a. Duplication
b. GIST
c. Lymphoma

A

b. GIST maybe this?? Don’t know
50. Lesion in stomach dyspepsia, sessile, 90 degree angle

a. Duplication
b. GIST maybe this?? Don’t know
c. Lymphoma

  • *LJS - MALToma complicating H pylori gastritis?
  • AJL - favours GIST. MALToma is usually described as wall thickening (possibly with eventual linitis plastica appearance) rather than a sessile mass therefore I think GIST is the correct answer.
51
Q
  1. OI

a. All have dentogenesis imperfecta
b. Type 1 kyphoscoliosis
c. Type 2 compatible with life
d. Type 3 hearing impairment
e. Type 4 blue sclera

A
  1. OI

a. All have dentogenesis imperfecta -false, differentiates between 1a and 1b
b. Type 1 kyphoscoliosis - false, mild so less likely kyphoscoliosis
c. Type 2 compatible with life - false lethal form
d. Type 3 hearing impairment - I think this, severe progressive deforming childhood type can have kyphoscoliosis but ossicular fractures causes hearing loss
e. Type 4 blue sclera - probably false, moderately severe, initially blue but may lighten later

**LJS - all but type 2 have dentinogenesis imperfecta
Type 3 hearing impairment - correct. Also has progressive kyphoscoliosis
Type 4 - normal sclera

52
Q
  1. PSC

a. Associated with IBD

A
  1. PSC

a. Associated with IBD yes

53
Q
  1. PBC wrong

a. Smooth muscle antibody
b. Hyperlipaemia
c. Tendon xanthoma
d. Scleroderma
e. IBD

A
  • LJS
    a. Smooth muscle antibody - antimitochondrial Ab in 95% (
    AJL/LJS - smooth muscle antibodies are associated with autoimmune hepatitis and PSC)
    b. Hyperlipaemia - T
    c. Tendon xanthoma - T
    d. Scleroderma - T. Ass/w other AI conditions
    e. IBD - false
  • LW:
  • Wonder if poor recall, incorrectly recalling anti mitochondrial AB.
54
Q
  1. Biliary atresia which is wrong

a. Involves intra and extrahepatic bile ducts
b. Small GB
c. Associated with CHD
d. Polysplenia
e. TOF

A

*AJL - I cannot find an association with TOF.
Also robbins says; ‘Involvement of ducts proximal to the porta hepatis, intrahepatic progression of disease, and ascending cholangitis are impediments to successful surgical therapy.’ (Must therefore involve intrahepatic ducts)
So I think TOF is least correct.

Previous answer
a. Involves intra and extrahepatic bile ducts false, extra only

  1. Biliary atresia which is wrong

a. Involves intra and extrahepatic bile ducts false, extra only
b. Small GB
c. Associated with CHD
d. Polysplenia
e. TOF

Robbins:
Although the definition for the disease is based on extrahepatic biliary obstruction, progressive inflammation and fibrosis are not necessarily confined to these locales; in some patients there is also progressive loss of intrahepatic ducts.

55
Q
  1. Carcinoid most aggressive

a. Gastric
b. Duodenal
c. Ileum
d. Appendix
e. Rectum

A

c. Ileum I think this
* LW robbins agrees

  1. Carcinoid most aggressive

a. Gastric
b. Duodenal
c. Ileum I think this
d. Appendix relatively benign incidental
e. Rectum relatively benign

The most important prognostic factor for GI carcinoid tumors is location.
Foregut carcinoid tumors, those found within the stomach, duodenum proximal to the ligament of Treitz, and esophagus, rarely metastasize and are generally cured by resection.
Midgut carcinoid tumors that arise in the jejunum and ileum are often multiple and tend to be aggressive.
Hindgut carcinoids arising in the appendix and colorectum are typically discovered incidentally.
Those in the appendix occur at any age and are generally located at the tip. These tumors are rarely more than 2 cm in diameter and are almost always benign.
Rectal carcinoid tumors tend to produce polypeptide hormones and, when symptomatic, present with abdominal pain and weight loss. Because they are usually discovered when small, metastasis of rectal carcinoid tumors is uncommon.

56
Q
  1. Cancer causing pseudomyxoma most likely

a. Appendix mucocele
b. Appendix mucinous tumor
c. Gastric signet ring

A
  1. Cancer causing pseudomyxoma most likely
    a. Appendix mucocele -false not all tumor may be LN obstruction
    b. Appendix mucinous tumor - true
    c. Gastric signet ring - true but less common than appendix

Mucocele, a dilated appendix filled with mucin, may simply represent an obstructed appendix containing inspissated mucin or be a consequence of mucinous cystadenoma or mucinous cystadenocarcinoma. In the latter instance, invasion through the appendiceal wall can lead to intraperitoneal seeding and spread. In women the resulting peritoneal implants may be mistaken for mucinous ovarian tumors. In the most advanced cases the abdomen fills with tenacious, semisolid mucin, a condition called pseudomyxoma peritonei (Chapter 22). This disseminated intraperitoneal disease may be held in check for years by repeated debulking but, in most instances, follows an inexorably fatal course.

57
Q
  1. Cervical cancer true

a. Invading upper 1/3 vagina bad prognosis
b. NET worst prognosis

A

b. NET worst prognosis - true super aggressive
57. Cervical cancer true

a. Invading upper 1/3 vagina bad prognosis - false, parametrial bad, lower third bad
b. NET worst prognosis - true super aggressive

*AJL - Cervical cancer types:
Squamous (80%)
Adenocarcinoma (15%)
Adenosquamous and NET (5%) - these are the most aggressive.
All are associated with HPV.
58
Q
  1. Epiphyseal true

a. Clear cell chondrosarc
b. Fibrosarcoma
c. NOF
d. ABC

A

a. Clear cell chondrosarc true
58. Epiphyseal true

a. Clear cell chondrosarc true
b. Fibrosarcoma
c. NOF
d. ABC

WJI: agree a most correct. D also true. C can rarely be epiphyseal.

59
Q
  1. What doesn’t cause aortic regurg

a. Bicuspid
b. Endocarditis

A

*AJL - both can cause aortic regurg. Maybe less common with endocarditis, hopefully incomplete recall.

Previous answer:
Endocarditis doesn’t cause aortic regurg

  1. What doesn’t cause aortic regurg

a. Bicuspid true
b. Endocarditis

Robbins:
Bicuspid aortic valve may become incompetent as a result of aortic dilation, cusp prolapse, or infective endocarditis.
UpToDate:
Chronic aortic regurgitation (AR) is caused by disease of the valve leaflets or enlargement of the aortic root. In the developing world, the most common cause of AR is rheumatic heart disease. However, in developed countries, AR is most often due to aortic root dilation, congenital bicuspid aortic valve, and calcific valve disease
…. endocarditis is also listed in the large table of causes though, so agree this is ambiguous *ESG

60
Q
  1. ?endocarditis extend to annulus to cause pericarditis
A
  1. ?endocarditis extend to annulus to cause pericarditis

Valve ring abscess - vegetations erode into underlying myocardium = abscess

Robbins p574
Purulent or suppurative pericarditis reflects an active infection caused by microbial invasion of the pericardial space; this can occur through…extension of a ring abscess through the myocardium or aortic root

61
Q
  1. What complication not associated with AMI

a. LV thrombus
b. Pericarditis fibrinous
c. MR
d. Tamponade
e. AR

A

e. AR -no
61. What complication not associated with AMI

a. LV thrombus -yes
b. Pericarditis fibrinous -yes
c. MR -yes papillary rupture
d. Tamponade -yes free wall rupture
e. AR -no

62
Q
  1. Dilated cardiomyopathy, which is false

a. Alcohol
b. Sarcoid
c. HTN
d. Radiation

A

d. Radiation -no constrictive pericarditis
* *LJS - and restrictive cardiomyopathy

  1. DCM

a. Alcohol -yes
b. Sarcoid -yes (LW although tends to be more restrictive)
c. HTN -yes IHD
* *LJS - only when longstanding and becomes CHF. Hypertensive LVH is LV hypertrophy without dilatation
d. Radiation -no constrictive pericarditis

63
Q
  1. Which is upper oesophageal stenosis

a. Zenkers
b. Tumor
c. Schatzki ring
d. Epiphrenic
e. Achalasia

A

a. Zenkers true

**LJS - Zenker can cause compression of the oesophageal lumen. Counts as a “stenosis”?
Also tumour - SCC in upper oesophagus

  1. Which is upper oesophageal stenosis

a. Zenkers true
b. Tumor
c. Schatzki ring
d. Epiphrenic
e. Achalasia

64
Q
  1. Renal stones

a. Medullary sponge
b. ADPKD
c. ARPKD
d. MCDK
e. Medullary cystic kidney disease

A

a. Medullary sponge true
64. Renal stones

a. Medullary sponge true
b. ADPKD
c. ARPKD
d. MCDK
e. Medullary cystic kidney disease

65
Q
  1. What is not true about radial scar

a. Fat in centre replaced by fibrous tissue
b. Spiculation long
c. Investigate after biopsy
d. Ischaemia

A

a. Fat in centre replaced by fibrous tissue -false black star
* AJL - It is a central nidus of entrapped glands in hyalinised stroma. (ROBBINS)

  1. What is not true about radial scar

a. Fat in centre replaced by fibrous tissue -false black star
b. Spiculation long
c. Investigate after biopsy
d. Ischaemia

ESG - not sure, various histo descriptions include the phrase “stellate configuration of a fibroelastic core with entrapped ducts and lobules”, so maybe this is correct. On the other hand, there is no consensus about an underlying cause - so ischaemia may be incorrect. Also, investigate after biopsy is technically incorrect, because they get excised without necessarily needing further workup.

WJI: I would choose c. This is incorrect after biopsy you need to cut them out due to under sampling of associated tubular carcinoma or DCIS. The others are all true or probably true (ischaemia)
*IVM: agree with c as correct answer

66
Q
  1. Haemophilia B

a. Autosomal recessive
b. Ballooning epiphysis
c. Ankle knee destruction

A
  1. Haemophilia B

a. Autosomal recessive -false, x linked
b. Ballooning epiphysis - true, epiphyseal enlargement with associated gracile diaphysis: from hyperaemia (appearances can be similar to juvenile rheumatoid arthritis and paralysis)
c. Ankle knee destruction - true?. Knee > elbow > ankle > hip > shoulder. Secondary degeneration with periarticular erosions and cartilage loss