Path: HIV/AIDS Flashcards

1
Q

List the 3 major routes of transmission of HIV

A

sexual contact, parenteral inoculation, passage of the virus from infected mothers to their newborns

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2
Q

Is it possible to spread HIV with an insect vector?

A

It is virtually impossible

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3
Q

T/F: After needle-stick accidents, the risk of seroconversion is believed to be about 3%, and antiretroviral therapy given within 24-48 hrs of a needle stick can reduce the risk of infection 8-fold.

A

False. 0.3% is the rise of seroconversion

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4
Q

Does HIV infect naive T cells or memory and activated T cells more preferentially? Why

A

HIV infects memory and activated T cells more preferentially. It is inefficient at productively infecting naive T cells because the naive T cell contains an activated form of an enzyme that introduces mutation in the HIV genome, apolipoprotein B mRNA-editing, enzyme-catalytic, polypeptide-like 3G (APOBEC3G). Enzyme works by trading cytosine for uracil in viral DNA transcript.

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5
Q

Is HIV entirely vulnerable to APOBEC3G?

A

Of course not! HIV is the most evil and cunning of all viral assholes. It has evolved to express a viral protein called protein Vif that binds to ABOBEC3G and promotes its degradation.

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6
Q

What happens to a latently infected CD4+ cell when it is activated by a pathogen or cytokines?

A

The activation causes NfkB to be released from IkB and be translocated to the nucleus where it will initiate transcription of not only genes for IL-2 and its receptor, but also the HIV genes. This usually results in CD4+ lysis.

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7
Q

Profound immune deficiency, primarily affecting cell-mediated or humoral immunity, is the hallmark of AIDS?

A

Cell-mediated immunity is primarily affected

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8
Q

What other three immune cells are also infected alongside CD4+ cells?

A

monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells. This is an important aspect of the HIV pathogenesis.

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9
Q

What is associated with increased rate of cellular infection and progression to AIDS?

A

Active viral replication. Duh.

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10
Q

What does the Vpr protein of HIV do?

A

allows nuclear targeting of the HIV preintegration complex through the nuclear pore of host cells.

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11
Q

How are macrophages especially important to HIV infectivity and replication?

A

Because they are more resistant to lysis by viral replication than CD4+ cells, they act as reservoirs of HIV. In late stages of HIV infection, when CD4+ T cell numbers decline greatly, macrophages may be an important site of continued viral replication.

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12
Q

How are monocytes important to HIV pathogenesis?

A

They may be vehicles for HIV to be transported to various parts of the body via the blood stream, including the nervous system.

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13
Q

How does HIV cause impaired mental function?

A

It travels to the CNS via monocytes where it forms granulomas. The mere presence of granulomas is not the basis of infection, rather indirectly by viral products and by soluble factors produced by infected microglia. Included among the soluble factors released: IL-1, TNF, IL-6, and nitric oxide (induced in neuronal cells by gp41). Direct damage of neurons by soluble HIV gp120 has also been postulated.

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14
Q

Describe the humoral and cell-mediated immune responses to HIV, post-infection.

A

Anti-envelope and anti-p24 antibodies (humoral) and CTLs (cell-mediated). Response is greatest @ 12 wks post-infection.

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15
Q

Characterize acute (early) infection by HIV as it relates to location and cell-type affected.

A

infection of memory CD4+ T cells expressing CCR5 in mucosal lymphoid tissues, and death of many infected cells.

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16
Q

Let’s play “Do You Remember from Block 1?”

Where are most of the lymphocytes found in the body?

A

mucosal lymphoid tissue

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17
Q

What are some clinical presentations of HIV mucosal infection?

A

damage to epithelium, defects in mucosal barrier functions, and translocation of microbes across epithelium.

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18
Q

How soon after infection can high numbers of HIV be detected in the blood?

A

Within DAYS

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19
Q

What immune cells are most likely responsible for the initial containment of HIV (reflected by a drop in viremia to low but detectible levels by 12 weeks after primary exposure)?

A

CTLs

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20
Q

Describe the acute retroviral syndrome of HIV.

A

clinical presentation of the initial spread of HIV and the host response. Occurs 3-6 weeks after infection, resolves spontaneously in 2-4 weeks. Clinically, this phase is associated with a self-limited acute illness with nonspecific symptoms, including sore throat, myalgias, fever, weight loss, and fatigue, resembling a flu-like syndrome. Rash, cervical adenopathy, diarrhea, and vomiting, may also occur.

BASICALLY, YOU HAVE THE FLU

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21
Q

The extent of viremia, measured as ________ ______ levels, in the blood is a useful surrogate marker of HIV disease progression.

A

HIV-1 RNA

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22
Q

What is the viral set point and how does it help predict HIV disease progression (i.e. how many yrs pt has left)?

A

The viral set point, a predictor of the rate of decline of CD4+ T cells, and therefore, progression of HIV disease (years-to-live prognosis), is the viral load at the end of the acute phase reflecting the equilibrium reached between the virus and the host immune response.

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23
Q

What is the most reliable short-term indicator of HIV disease progression?

A

CD4+ T cell count

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24
Q

Where are the locations of major HIV replication and cell destruction during the chronic phase of HIV disease? Describe the clinical manifestation during this time.

A

lymph nodes and spleen. Few to no clinical manifestations present.

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25
Q

How many CD4+ T cells does HIV destroy daily?!

A

up to 2 billion, daily!

26
Q

Describe the crisis phase of HIV disease.

A

Typically, pts present with long-lasting fever (>1 mo), fatigue, weight loss, and diarrhea.

27
Q

When is the pt said to have developed AIDS?

A

When the pt begins to develop serious opportunistic infections, secondary neoplasms, or clinical neurologic disease.

28
Q

In the absence of treatment, most pts with HIV infection progress to AIDS after chronic phase lasting from __ to __ years.

A

7-10 years

29
Q

What are elite responders to HIV infection?

A

Infected individuals found to have undetectable levels of HIV RNA in their plasma (<50-75 RNA copies/mL).

30
Q

What are long-term non-progressors?

A

HIV-1 infected individuals who are untreated and remain asymptomatic for 10 or more years, with stable CD4+ cell counts and low levels of plasma viremia (<500 viral RNA copies per mL)

31
Q

What account for the majority of deaths in untreated pts with AIDS?

A

Opportunistic infections

32
Q

Approximately 15-35% of untreated HIV-infected people develop pneumonia at some time during the course of the disease, caused by the fungus ___________.

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

33
Q

What is the symptom most characteristic of pneumocystosis?

A

dyspnea

34
Q

What is the blood test abnormality most characteristic of pneumocystosis?

A

hypoxemia

35
Q

What causes the signs and symptoms of pneumocystosis?

A

Alveoli fill up with a foamy exudate of cysts (dyspnea). Alveolar exudate and interstitial inflammation create an alveolar-capillary block impeding gas exchange (hypoxemia).

36
Q

What is the most common fungal infection in pts with AIDS?

A

Candidiasis

37
Q

What is one of the most common opportunistic infections in Memphis due to its hyperendemic presence in the Mississippi River valley?

A

Histoplasmosis

38
Q

What bacterial infection is histoplasmosis very similar to?

A

TB

39
Q

Describe the histoplasmosis infection found in immunocompromised pts.

A

Caseating granulomatous infection

40
Q

Describe the histoplasmosis infection found in SEVERELY immunocompromised pts.

A

diffuse or disseminated pneumonia

41
Q

In diffuse histoplasmosis, is there necrosis?

A

No

42
Q

Where are the yeast forms often found in diffuse histoplasmosis?

A

inside macrophages in the lungs

43
Q

Cytomegalovirus retinitis occurs almost exclusively in pts with CD4+ T cell counts < _____/uL.

A

<50/uL

44
Q

Gastrointestinal disease, seen in 5%-10% of cases, manifests as _________ and ________, the latter associated with multiple ulcerations.

A

esophagitis and colitis

45
Q

Describe the micro morph of a cytomegalovirus infection in a blood smear.

A

Giant cells, hence the name, representative of cells infected with lytic, cytoskeleton disrupting, HCMV.

46
Q

What is the major clinical manifestation of cryptococcus in 10% of AIDS pts?

A

meningitis

47
Q

T/F: Toxoplasmosis is a fungal infection. How does toxoplasmosis present in AIDS pts?

A

False, protozoal infection. Responsible for 50% of all mass lesions in the CNS.

48
Q

Describe the epidemiology of JC virus in the general population and the advanced disease it causes in immunocompromised pts.

A

Found in 70-90% of the general population, latent, asymptomatic. In immunocompromised pts, causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), an infection of the oligodendrocytes, causing demyelination of the CNS.

49
Q

Persistent diarrhea, common in untreated AIDS pts with advanced disease, is often caused by infections with protozoans such as: (3)
And also enteric bacteria: (3)

A

cryptosporidium, isospora belli, microsporidia.

Salmonella, Shigella, M. avium-intracellulare

50
Q

Pts with AIDS have a high incidence of certain tumors, especially: (4)

A

Kaposi sarcoma
B-cell lymphoma
Cervical cancer (women)
anal cancer (men)

51
Q

It is estimated that _____ to ____% of untreated HIV-infected pts will eventually develop a malignancy (reversible with immune system improvement so not really a malignancy).

A

25-40%

52
Q

What is immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome?

A

A syndrome characterized by a paradoxical deterioration during the period of recovery of the immune system when CD4+ cell counts are rising and viral load is falling during initiation of treatment.

53
Q

List some ADEs of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)

A

lipoatrophy (loss of facial fat), liopaccumulation (excess fat deposition centrally), elevated lipids, insulin resistance, peripheral neuropathy, premature cardiovascular, kidney, and liver disease.

54
Q

The opportunistic infections AIDS pts get are typically those for which our prime effector cell defenses are:

A

Macrophages

55
Q

Describe the HIV viral load during the primary (acute phase) infection and at what time this ends (in weeks into infection) if untreated

A

10 million/mL plasma

drops dramatically @ around 6 weeks to ~10,000/mL

56
Q

Describe the HIV viral load during the clinical latency (chronic phase) of infection and how long this phase usually lasts if untreated.

A

10,000/mL for about 9 yrs

57
Q

Describe the crisis phase of HIV infection in terms of virions per mL plasma and at what point in the untreated infection this usually occurs.

A

10 million/mL plasma @ 11yrs

58
Q

Describe the acute phase of HIV infection in terms of CD4+ count.

A

Normal: 1000/cu mm

Decreases to ~500/cu mm at about 6 weeks

59
Q

Describe the clinical latency (chronic phase) of HIV infection in terms of CD4+ count.

A

Normal: 1000/cu mm

drops to 50/cu mm for around 9 yrs

60
Q

Describe the crisis phase of HIV infection in terms of CD4+ count.

A

normal: 1000/cu mm

plummets to 5/cu mm @ around yr 11 of infection4

61
Q

What is the primary host defense to a cryptococcus infection (humoral or cell-mediated)?

A

cell-mediated CD8+ and CD4+ cells

62
Q

What is the most common and then second-most common presentation of cryptococcal yeast in AIDS pts?

A

meningitis and then lung infection