Path: Hemodynamics 2 Flashcards

1
Q

________ is inappropriate formation of blood clot in a blood vessel, usually occlusive.

A

Thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

There are three predisposing factors to thrombosis:

referred to as Virchow’s triad by elderly pathologists

A

(1) Endothelial injury, (2) Abnormal blood flow, and (3) Hypercoagulability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

__________ is the most important factor predisposing to thrombosis.

A

Endothelial injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The hemodynamic stress of hypertension or toxicity of hypercholesterolemia or products absorbed from smoking can create these pro-thrombotic events:

A

increase endothelial procoagulant factors or decrease their anticoagulant factors enough to cause thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F: Abnormal blood flow, either turbulence or stasis, and turbulent blood flow over ulcerated atherosclerotic plaques does NOT predispose to thrombosis.

A

False. They do predispose one to thrombosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T/F: thrombosis is more common in veins and more serious in arteries.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Thrombosis due to endothelial injury is mediated by:

A

endothelial cell activation or dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/F: Activated or dysfunctional (messed up) endothelial cells express more thrombomodulin, tissue factor protein inhibitor and other anti-coagulant factors.

A

False. Less of each

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the effect of activated or dysfunctional endothelial cells on secretion of plasminogen activator inhibitors and up/down regulation of expression of t-PA.

A

Activated or dysfunctional endothelial cells also secrete plasminogen activator inhibitors and downregulate the expression of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Does the presence of plasminogen activator inhibitors and the downregulation of t-PA cause clotting? Explain.

A

No, but it is more likely to fail to stop a clot from occluding the entire vessel when platelets clot out of control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Stasis promotes thrombosis by allowing platelets to spend more time sitting on ________ .

A

Endothelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Normal blood flow is laminar and the platelets (and other cells) are concentrated in the central, more rapidly flowing bloodstream, while there is a peripheral layer of _______, moving more slowly, spending more time in contact with the blood vessel lining.

A

plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the cellular presentation of polycythemia vera.

A

abnormally large number of erythrocytes, an autonomous proliferation of erythroid line bone marrow cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the condition Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia as it relates to viscosity and Ab load in the plasma.

A

abnormally thick hyperviscuous plasma loaded with excess IgM. Due to an autonomous proliferation of B lymphocytes making IgM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does turbulent blood flow promote thrombosis?

A

By activating, sometimes even injuring endothelial cells, and by creating countercurrents (eddies) creating local pockets of stasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the medical, super-sciency YAY! term for a hypercoagulable state?

A

thrombophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hypercoagulable states can be congenital. List 6.

A
Factor V Leiden mutation
Prothrombin gene mutation
Methyl-tetra-hydro-folate reductase gene mutation
Anti-thrombin 3 deficiency 
Protein C deficiency
Protein S deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hypercoagulable states can be caused by acquired circumstances such as surgery or trauma. Name 5 other potential causes.

A
Cancer
Bed-ridden state
DIC
Heparine-induced thrombocytopenia 
Antiphospholipid syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

_____________ is the most common inherited hypercoagulable state (5% of whites).

A

Factor V Leiden mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the elevated risk (e.g. two-fold…) of venous thrombosis associated with Factor V Leiden mutation for heterozygotes and homozygotes.

A

Heterozygotes have a 5-fold higher risk of venous thrombosis and homozygotes have a 50-fold increased risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In Factor V Leiden mutation, mutation in clotting factor V makes it resistant to activated __________, resulting in the loss of an important clot-limiting counter-regulatory mechanism.

A
protein C (activated form of which plays an important role in regulating anticoagulation) 
-Proteolytically inactivating proteins Factor Va and Factor VIIIa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

_____________ is the second most common inherited hypercoagulable state (2% of whites) and it confers a 3-fold increased risk of venous thrombosis.

A

Prothrombin G20210A mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F: many pts with heterozygous mutations for hypercoagulable states or mutations causing less hypercoagulability live a normal lifespan without suffering venous thrombosis, and others get a deep venous thrombosis (typically in a leg) only when their congenital hypercoagulability is combined with an acquired hypercoagulability.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Patients under the age of ____ , who present with thrombosis, should be worked up for inherited hypercoagulability.

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why are patients hypercoagulable post-surgery?

A

surgery cuts blood vessels. Clotting factors inevitably spread beyond surgical site and can initiate clotting at other locations in the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why does cancer, especially malignant tumors that outgrow their blood supplies, cause a hypercoagulable state?

A

This is partly due to the inflammatory response to malignant tumors.
Also, very often malignant tumors outgrow their blood supply and have some necrosis, which releases highly thrombogenic necrotic debris into the general circulation.
Malignant tumors frequently compress veins or invade them, partially or completely obstructing blood flow in them, creating turbulent flow or stasis, either of which predisposes to thrombosis. Malignant glandular tumors that produce mucin, which gets into the bloodstream, are particularly likely to cause thrombosis, because mucin is thrombogenic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe migratory thrombophlebitis.

A

Metastatic cancers can cause simultaneous venous thrombi and inflammation to pop up at one subcutaneous site after another. This is called migratory thrombophlebitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What makes antiphospholipid antibody syndrome life-threatening?

A

causes arterial thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe the laboratory findings in the serum of pts with antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.

A

These patients have autoantibodies against phospholipids (actually against plasma protein antigens unveiled by binding to phospholipids).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of pts with antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.

A

The patients present with recurrent miscarriages, deep vein thromboses in their legs, cerebral infarctions, migraine headaches, cardiac vegetations, ischemic hands or feet, thrombocytopenia and various other manifestations.

31
Q

Describe, in vivid, colorful detail, DIC.

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is a condition of thrombus formation in small blood vessels all over the body.

32
Q

How does DIC often first manifest itself?

A

brain malfunction (altered behavior, then confusion progressing to lethargy and coma)

33
Q

What is often the secondary manifestation of DIC?

A

lung probs: dyspnea, hypoxemia

34
Q

In DIC, will you see high levels of clotting factors in the blood?

A

No, low bc all the factors are being used up in the systemic clotting.

35
Q

What are hemoglobin levels going to look like in a pt with DIC?

A

Reduced levels due to RBCs getting fragmented as they push through the microvascular thrombi

36
Q

What is consumptive coagulopathy?

A

Coagulopathy caused by all the clotting factors being used up by something like DIC.

37
Q

What are the 3 (congenital or acquired) most common causes of hypercoagulability?

A

Surgery, then cancer, then factor V Leiden mutation.

38
Q

Name the 3 types of thrombi and their characteristic locations.

A

Arterial thrombi tend to be rich in platelets (and be “white thrombi”).
Venous thrombi tend to be rich in erythrocytes (and be “red thrombi”).
“Mural thrombi” are located on the wall of the heart.

39
Q

______ thrombi are usually at sites of endothelial injury, most often an atherosclerotic plaque that has ulcerated or ruptured.

A

Arterial

40
Q

______ thrombi are most commonly at sites of stasis such as on the venous valves in the legs, especially in sedentary individuals.

A

Venous

41
Q

______ thrombi are generally on sites of myocardial infarction or areas of heart chamber dilatation (creating a combination of turbulent flow and stasis).

A

Mural

42
Q

Are the newest or oldest parts of a thrombus more likely to break off and be carried with the bloodstream as an embolus?

A

Newest

43
Q

Why are DVTs asymptomatic in half of pts who have them?

A

because collateral venous channels compensate for the DVT

44
Q

What is the most standard modality for diagnosing DVT in the legs?

A

ultrasound

45
Q

Can someone with elephant legs (fat legs) complicate an ultrasound for a DVT and give a false negative?

A

Yes.

46
Q

Where is it believed that greatest risk for emboli that will lodge in lungs derive from in DVT in the leg?

A

thrombosis at or ABOVE the knee (iliac, femoral, or popliteal veins)

47
Q

Thrombi on the heart valves are called “__________”

A

vegetations

48
Q

Libman-Sacks endocarditis in systemic lupus erythematosus is a vegetative, infective, or autoimmune endocarditis?

A

autoimmune

49
Q

What is marantic endocarditis?

A

Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis

50
Q

Which is more likely to become occlusive and totally block off the lumen of a vessel, an arterial thrombus or a venous thrombus and why?

A

Arterial. Veins are more stretchy and can better accommodate the thrombus and more importantly, arterial thrombi often occur on atherosclerotic plaques that have already narrowed the lumen.

51
Q

What are lines of Zahn?

A

Thrombi frequently have layering, with layers rich in platelets interspersed with layers rich in erythrocytes. These layers can be visible grossly, microscopically or both, and are called lines of Zahn.

52
Q

List, in order of clinical importance, the venous thromboses including arms, pelvis and legs.

A

Venous thrombosis is clinically most important in the legs, the arms and the pelvis

53
Q

List, in order of importance, the arterial thromboses including those found in the femoral artery, cerebral arteries, coronary arteries.

A

coronary arteries, cerebral arteries and femoral arteries

54
Q

List the 4 fates of a thrombus.

A

(1) dissolution, (2) propagation, (3) embolization, (4) organization (and recanalization)

55
Q

Describe dissolution of a thrombus.

A

Dissolution is the dissolving of the thrombus by fibrinolysis, either the body’s own (primary) fibrinolysis or the therapeutic administration of fibrinolytic agents.

56
Q

T/F: Fibrinolytic therapy is best delivered orally and is generally effective only when given several hours after the thrombosis.

A

False. best delivered by intravascular catheter at the site of thrombosis and is generally effective only when given during the first few hours of the thrombosis

57
Q

T/F: peripherally inserted central catheters (slang jargon “PICC lines”) in arm veins is leading to an explosive increase in deep venous thrombosis in the arms of American patients.

A

True

58
Q

What happens in organization/recanalization of a thrombus?

A

Organization is ingrowth by fibroblasts, who convert thrombus to fibrous tissue, with ingrowth of new capillaries, which can coalesce to recanalize a thrombosed blood vessel.

59
Q

What is a mycotic aneurysm?

A

A localized outpouching of an artery, especially the biggest one, the aorta, containing infected thrombus. Rarely due to a fungal infection, usually bacterial, so “mycotic” is a misnomer.

60
Q

T/F: All emboli are due to a thrombus.

A

False. Can be due to thrombus, atheromatous debris, fat, air, amniotic fluid, and fragments of tumor.

61
Q

T/F: most pulmonary emboli present as a clinical pulmonary embolism that causes life-threatening symptoms.

A

False, most (up to 80%) are clinically silent.

62
Q

What is the major symptom of pulmonary embolism?

A

Dyspnea

63
Q

It is thought that emboli must block ___% or more of the pulmonary circulation to cause right heart failure.

A

60%

64
Q

“Saddle emboli” are found where during autopsy?

A

pulmonary trunk

65
Q

What are paradoxical emboli?

A

emboli that pass through a patent foramen ovale or atrial septal defect to go to organs besides the lungs; this is rare.

66
Q

Systemic thromboembolism is thromboembolism to any organ but _____, and are most commonly from the ______ (80%) and most commonly land in the _______ (75%) and ______(10%).

A

lung; heart; legs; brain

67
Q

Fat embolism is most commonly from ________ and usually occur __ to ___ days following trauma.

A

long bone fractures; 1 to 3 days following trauma

68
Q

In the case of air embolism, generally more than _____ mL of air is needed to cause any clinical effect.

A

100 mL

69
Q

________ embolism can be caused by tears in the placental membranes during the course of labor and delivery.

A

Amniotic fluid embolism

70
Q

So, like, there are fetal cells and fragments of material from the placenta in the maternal circulation all the time in every pregnancy, so why doesn’t that cause the symptoms of a pulmonary embolism?

A

The difference in the patients who get the amniotic fluid embolism syndrome is apparently in the mother’s immune reaction to a bolus (single large amount) during labor and delivery.

71
Q

Let’s play “Do You Remember from Block 1?”

Describe the character of a “white anemic” infarct. (what organs, what does it look like?)

A

“White anemic” infarcts are typical of solid organs with end-arterial circulation (heart, spleen, kidney).

72
Q

Let’s play “Do You Remember from Block 1?”

Describe the character of a “red hemorrhagic” infarct. (what organs, what does it look like?)

A

“Red hemorrhagic” infarcts are typical with venous occlusion (as in ovarian torsion), dual or anastomosing blood supply (in lung or intestines) or with reperfusion.

73
Q

Let’s play “Do You Remember from Block 1?”

The likelihood of an infarction is determined by 4 things:

A

(1) an organ’s vulnerability to hypoxia (neurons die after 4 minutes of ischemia, cardiac myocytes after 20 minutes), (2) the rate of development of vascular occlusion (if slow, it allows collateral circulation to develop)
(3) the nature of an organ’s blood supply (a dual blood supply is protective, for example, in the liver)
(4) oxygen content of the blood.