Path: Carcinogenesis 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe initiation in carcinogenesis.

A

exposure to a carcinogen that causes permanent DNA damage/mutations; this process is rapid, irreversible, and necessary but not sufficient for tumor formation

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2
Q

Describe promotion in carcinogenesis.

A

process of exposure to agents (promoters) that can induce tumors to arise from initiated cells by enhacning the proliferation of initiated cells; these changes don’t affect DNA directly and are reversible

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3
Q

What features do all initiating chemical carcinogens share?

A

they are highly reactive electrophiles that target DNA, RNA, and proteins; in some cases they can cause cell death

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4
Q

Describe the “memory” that initiated cells can have.

A

since initiated cells are those with nonlethal yet permanent DNA mutations, they will pass the mutations on to the daughter cells

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5
Q

Chemicals that can cause initiation of carcinogenesis can be classified into two categories; what are they and what is the difference between them?

A

direct acting and indirect acting; difference is that indirect acting carcinogens require metabolic conversion to their carcinogenic state

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6
Q

Name two categories of some very potent indirect chemical carcinogens and where they are commonly found.

A
  • polycyclic hydrocarbons (fossil fuels, cooked fats, and smoked meat/fish)
  • benzo[a]pyrenes (cigarettes)
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7
Q

True or false: most chemical carcinogens are direct chemical carcinogens.

A

False - most are indirect because most require metabolic activation

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8
Q

Most known carcinogens are metabolized by what enzyme?

A

CYP450-dependent monooxygenases

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9
Q

How do polymorphic genes contribute or form the basis of individual variation in metabolism?

A

polymorphic genes means that the metabolic enzymes they produce can have inherently different levels of inducibility and activity; this can vary into higher/lower susceptibility to cancer based on the rate at which different enzymes catalyze the conversion of carcinogens to ultimate carcinogens

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10
Q

What is CYP1A1 a good illustrative example for?

A

this CYP metabolizes polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, such as the benzo[a]pyrene found in cigarette smoke; smokers with a highly inducible version of this gene have a greatly increased risk of cancer over other smoker without the polymorphism

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11
Q

Aspergillus produces what infectious toxin?

A

aflatoxin B (also a carcinogen)

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12
Q

What is the connection between aflatoxin B and hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

aflatoxin B is associated with a unique mutation (G:C–>T:A transversion, arginine to serine substitution) in TP53 that leads to hepatocellular carcinoma; this particular mutation is rarely seen in liver cancers in places where aspergillus food contamination doesn’t occur

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13
Q

How are nitrites associated with cancer?

A

they are used to preserve food, and cause nitrosylation of amines in the food; the amines formed are suspected to be carcinogenic

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14
Q

What are the high-risk strains of HPV and what are they associated with higher risk of?

A

16 and 18; higher risk of SCC of cervix, anogenital region, and H&N

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15
Q

Which HPV types cause benign squamous papillomas, otherwise known as warts?

A

1, 2, 4, 7

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16
Q

Which are low-risk HPVs and what diseases are they associated with?

A

6, 11; genital warts

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17
Q

True or false: warts have high malignant potential

A

False (generally)

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18
Q

What is the genetic difference between benign warts and malignant cancers caused by HPV?

A

in benign warts the HPV genome is maintained in non-integrate, episomal form; in cancers the HPV genome is integrated into the human genome (this suggests integration is important for malignant transformation)

19
Q

In what manner is HPV genome integrated into host chromosomes? How is the pattern of integration described?

A

the manner is random and the pattern in clonal

20
Q

Cells in which the HPV genome has integrated show significantly more ____ ____ in the host DNA.

A

genomic instability

21
Q

How does integration of the HPV genome lead to the overexpression of viral proteins E6 and E7?

A

integration interrupts the viral DNA within the E1/E2 open reading frame, leading to loss of the E2 repressor and subsequent overexpression of E6 and E7

22
Q

Describe the activity of HPV viral protein E6 and how it explains the cancer HV causes.

A

E6 binds/degrade p53 and stimulates TERT; because there are polymorphisms in p53 - some are more susceptible to degradation than others; additionally some HPV strains’ E6 has higher affinity for p53 and that’s what makes them high risk

23
Q

Describe the activity of HPV viral protein E7 and how it explains the cancer HV causes.

A

E7 binds RB and releases E2F, promoting progression through the G1/S checkpoint and the cell cycle; E7 also inactivates the CDKIs p21 and p27

24
Q

What makes an HPV strain “high-risk”?

A

that HPV strain’s viral proteins have a higher affinity for the targets; for example: high-risk HPV E6 has higher affinity for p53 and degrades it more, hence higher risk for developing cancer from that strain

25
Q

True or false: Infection with HPV itself is not sufficient for carcinogenesis.

A

True - other genetic co-factors and environmental factors are key players as well

26
Q

The genetic damage that causes cancer can be big or small; describe the small and the big changes that can occur.

A

subtle may be point mutations; large may involve segments of chromosomes large enough to be detected in a routine karyotype.

27
Q

Of the potential chromosome rearrangements, what is the most common?

A

chromosomal translocation

28
Q

What are the two ways in which translocations can activate proto-oncogenes?

A
  1. promoter or enhancer substitution (typically with one that is highly expressed, so the protooncogene is now highly expressed)
  2. formation of a fusion gene that encodes a novel chimeric protein that has oncogenic properties
29
Q

Deletions of chromosomal regions are associated with loss of TSGs, but how can they be associated with activating oncogenes?

A

could be a deletion that produces a fusion protein (ex: EML4-ALK –> lung cancer)

30
Q

Where is the RB gene locus and what does RB deletion lead to?

A

13q14; retinoblastoma

31
Q

Where is the VHL gene and what does VHL deletion lead to?

A

chromosome 3p; Von Hippel Lindau syndrome –> RCC

32
Q

Amplification of an oncogene may produce up to how many copies of the oncoprotein in the tumor cell?

A

several hundred

33
Q

What are two mutually exclusive patterns of gene amplification/expression?

A
  1. double minutes - extrachromosomal DNA

2. homogenous staining regions - amplified genes inserted into different chromosomal locations

34
Q

The most important amplifications are ____ in neuroblastoma and ____ in breast cancers.

A

n-MYC; ERB-B2

35
Q

The nuclei of cancer cells display abnormal morphologies that may take the form of…? (histologically)

A
  • hyperchromasia
  • chromatin clumping
  • chromatin clearing (so-called vesicular nuclear chromatin)
36
Q

Some cancer cells exhibit selective hypermethylation of the promoters of ________ that results in their transcriptional silencing.

A

tumor suppressor genes

37
Q

CDKN2A is an example of a TSG hypermethylated in several cancers. Name the 2 tumor suppressors it encodes and their functions.

A
  • p14/ARF –> enhances p53

- p16/INK4a –> enchances RB

38
Q

Tumors commonly exhibiting abnormal DNA methylation might have mutations in genes encoding what proteins/enzymes?

A

DNA methyltransferases or other factors that influence DNA methylation

39
Q

Describe the genetic basis of the changes in histones sometimes seen in some tumors.

A

As with changes in DNA methylation, the changes may be attributable to mutations in protein complexes that “write”, “read” and “erase” histone marks, or that position nucleosomes on DNA

40
Q

The lineage-specificity of certain oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes has an ____ basis.

A

epigenetic

41
Q

What does it mean for a cancer cell to be lineage-restricted?

A

that cell is expressing genes within epigenetic contexts to produce a pattern of expression that characterizes that particular cell type

42
Q

Inhibitors of histone deacetylases (chromatin erasers that remove acetyl groups from histones) are approved for use in certain ____ tumors, and DNA methylation inhibitors are now being used to treat ____ tumors.

A

lymphoid; myeloid

43
Q

What is the series of morphologically identifiable stages that most colon carcinomas evolve through?

A

colon epithelial hyperplasia; formation of adenomas; progressive enlargement of adenomas; malignant transformation of adenomas

44
Q

What is the series of molecular identifiable stages that most colon carcinomas evolve through?

A

inactivation of APC TSG; activation of Ras; loss of TSG on 18q; loss of TP53