Path exam 2 Final Flashcards

1
Q

Petechiae on soft palate is seen in what?

A

Scarlet fever

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2
Q

Enamel hypoplasia results from damage to what?

A

Ameloblast

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3
Q

Dental significance of history of rheumatic fever

A

Possible heart valve damage

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4
Q

Candidiasis that presents as white lesion that does not wipe off and does not respond to antifungal therapy?

A

Chronic hyperplastic

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5
Q

Antiviral drug used to treat herpes simplex infection?

A

Acyclovir

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6
Q

Karyotype containing XXXY

A

Klinefeltner syndrome

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7
Q

Most reliable way to diagnose hairy leukoplakia is what?

A

Identification of Epstein Barr virus in lesion

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8
Q

Cherubim reveals what on radiograph?

A

Soap bubble or multilocular appearance

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9
Q

Frequent occurring palatal or gingival neoplasm in HIV patient

A

Kaposi sarcoma

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10
Q

Radiographic feature of cyst found in soft tissue show what?

A

No radiographic features evident

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11
Q

Karyotype of a patient with Turner syndrome

A

44 autosomes and XO

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12
Q

Disturbance that occurs during cell division and differentiation into various tissue and structures is called what?

A

Developmental anomaly

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13
Q

Odontogenic keratocysts are clinical components of what?

A

Nevoid Basal cell carcinoma syndrome

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14
Q

Best practice that dental professional should follow if developmental anomaly does not require treatment?

A

Document anomaly in patient records

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15
Q

A mans X chromosome is transmitted to ______ of his daughters and _______ of his sons.

A

All;none

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16
Q

A term used when referring to tooth development that happens in 5th week embryo?

A

Odontogenesis

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17
Q

Several horizontal rows of deep pits transversing surface of the permanent centrals and laterals, canines and first molars, stained and unsightly?

A

Enamel Hypoplasia

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18
Q

Epithelial structure that induces formation of root dentin?

A

Hertwigs epithelial root sheath

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19
Q

Virus associated with infection mononucleosis?

A

Epstein Barr virus

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20
Q

Symptoms of the presence of a lingual thyroid?

A

Difficulty swallowing

21
Q

Agent used to treat impetigo?

A

Topical and systemic antibiotics

22
Q

Total anodontia is associated with what?

A

Ectodermal dysplasia

23
Q

Chromosomes line up at the equatorial plate during what phase of mitosis?

A

Metaphase

24
Q

Statement that best describes the process of mitosis?

A

Division of cells that results in both daughter cells receiving the same # of identical chromosomes.

25
Q

Unilateral eruption of vesicles along the distribution of sensory nerve seen in adult patient in area of the back and stomach is characterized as what?

A

Herpes zoster of shingles

26
Q

The unilateral eruption of vesicles along the distribution of a sensory nerve seen in an adult patient in the area of the back and stomach is a characteristic of…

A

Herpes zoster or shingles

27
Q

All of the following are possible oral characteristics associated with Down syndrome except…

A

Supernumerary teeth

28
Q

The type of candidiasis that appears as a white lesion that does not wipe off and does not respond to antifungal therapy

A

Chronic hyperplastic

29
Q

Which is associated with cleidocranial dysplasia?

A

Supernumerary teeth

30
Q

Genes that are located at the same level in homologous chromosomes and that dictate the same functions or characteristics are termed

A

Alleles

31
Q

The presence of multiple osteomas and intestinal polyps are associated with which autosomal dominant inheritance disorder?

A

Gardner syndrome

32
Q

Which of the following oral lesions are associated with Coxsacke virus?

A

All of the above! (Herpangina, hand food and mouth, and acute lymphonodular pharyngitis)

33
Q

Which is false?

A

Erythematous candidiasis is usually completely asymptomatic

34
Q

Which is used to treat impetigo?

A

Topical or systemic antibiotics

35
Q

Which is not a clinical characteristic of NUG?

A

Xerostomia

36
Q

Gingival and perio disease has been reported in ___% of individuals with Down syndrome

A

90

37
Q

The most common form of recurrent herpes simplex infection is?

A

Herpes labialis

38
Q

The upper lip is complete within 6 to 8 weeks in utero. The upper lip is formed by the fusion of the median nasal process and the right and left maxillary process.

A

Both are true

39
Q

A gamete is the result of the process of what?

A

Meiosis

40
Q

The primary infection with the varicella zoster virus is?

A

Chicken pox

41
Q

Which virus is associated with infectious mononucleosis?

A

Epstein Barr

42
Q

Which term refers to the joining of teeth by cementum?

A

Concrescence

43
Q

Hard, dense, cortical bone on the buccal aspect of the alveolar ridge near the maxillary 1st molar would be termed what?

A

Maxillary exotosis

44
Q

Which is associated with enamel hypoplasia resulting from congenital syphilis?

A

Hutchinson’s incisors

45
Q

Oral manifestations of nevoid nasal cell carcinoma syndrome consists of multiple cysts of the jaws that are?

A

Odontogenic keratocysts

46
Q

Which term refers to a developmental anomaly in which teeth exhibit elongated, large pulp chambers and short roots?

A

Taurodontism

47
Q

A well defined, inverted pear shaped radiolucency located between the roots of the maxillary lateral incisor and canine

A

Globulomaxillary cyst

48
Q

All of the following cause endogenous staining of the teeth except?

A

Penicillin

49
Q

Which is the most serious component of Gardner syndrome?

A

Colorectal polyposis