Path Book: Chapter 5 Neoplasia pg. 201-213 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the only retrovirus that has been demonstrated to cause cancer in humans?

A

human T cell lymphotropic virus-1 (HTLV-1)

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2
Q

What does HTLV-1 cause in humans?

A

A form of T cell leukemia/lymphoma. More common in Japan than US.

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3
Q

How does HTLV-1 work? How is it transmitted?

A

HTLV-1 has tropism for CD4+ T cells, and this subset of T cells is the major target for neoplastic transformation. Human infection requires transmission of infected T cells through sexual intercourse, blood products, or breastfeeding.

Leukemia develops only in about 3% to 5% of infected persons after a long latent period of 20 to 50 years.

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4
Q

Does HTLV-1 contain an oncogene prone to mutation?

A

No, nor does it integrate into cellular genome near a particular oncogene. The long latency between infection and cancer suggests a multi-step mutation cascade

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5
Q

What is pX?

A

retroviral gene in HTLV-1 that contains several the TAX gene. The TAX protein has been shown to be necessary and sufficient for cellular transformation

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6
Q

How does TAX induce cellular trnasformation?

A

1) Interaction with NF-κB, the TAX protein can transactivate the expression of genes that encode cytokines, cytokine receptors, and costimulatory molecules.

This inappropriate gene expression leads to autocrine signaling loops and increased activation of promitogenic signaling cascades.

2) Directly binding to and activating cyclins.
3) Repression of several tumor suppressor genes that control the cell cycle, including CDKN2A/p16 and TP53.

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7
Q

How does TAX set up an autocrine loop?

A

The TAX gene turns on several cytokine genes and their recep- tors (e.g., the interleukins IL-2 and IL-2R and IL-15 and IL-15R), setting up an autocrine system that drives T cell proliferation.

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8
Q

What kind of paracrine ability does HTLV-1 have?

A

Increased production of granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor stimulates neighboring macrophages to produce other T cell mitogens.

Initially, the T cell proliferation is polyclonal, because the virus infects many cells, but because of TAX-based inactivation of tumor suppressor genes such as TP53, the proliferating T cells are at increased risk for secondary transforming events (mutations), which lead ultimately to the outgrowth of a monoclonal neoplastic T cell population.

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9
Q

What types of HPV cause benign squamous papillomas (warts) in humans?

A

1, 2, 4, and 7

Genital warts have low malignant potential and are also associated with low-risk HPVs, predominantly HPV-6 and HPV-11.

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10
Q

High-risk HPVs (e.g., types 16 and 18) cause several cancers, particularly squamous ______.

A

cell carcinoma of the cervix and anogenital region and oropharynx.

In addition, at least 20% of oropharyngeal cancers, particularly those arising in the tonsils, are associated with HPV.

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11
Q

The oncogenic potential of HPV can be related to what?

A

products of two early viral genes, E6 and E7.

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12
Q

What does the E7 protein do?

A

1) The E7 protein binds to Rb and releases the E2F transcription factors that normally are sequestered by Rb, promoting transcription of cyclin E.

Of interest, E7 protein from high-risk HPV types has a higher affinity for Rb than does E7 from low-risk HPV types.

2) E7 also inactivates p21

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13
Q

What does the E6 protein do?

A

It binds to and mediates the degradation of p53.

By analogy with E7, E6 from high-risk HPV types has a higher affinity for p53 than does E6 from low-risk HPV types.

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14
Q

How is HPV different in cancer compared to benign warts?

A

In benign warts the HPV genome is maintained in a nonintegrated episomal form, while in cancers the HPV genome is randomly integrated into the host genome. Integration interrupts the viral DNA, resulting in overexpression of the oncoproteins E6 and E7.

Furthermore, cells in which the viral genome has integrated show significantly more genomic instability.

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15
Q

Does HPV alone cause cancer?

A

No, infection with HPV itself is not sufficient for carcinogenesis. HPV, in all likelihood, acts in concert with other environmental factors.

However, the primacy of HPV infection in the causation of cervical cancer is attested to by the near-complete protection from this cancer by anti-HPV vaccines.

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16
Q

EBV is strongly linked to what cancer?

A

Burkitt lymphoma (common in others)

also in Hodgkins

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17
Q

How does EBV cause B cell proliferation?

A

EBV uses the complement receptor CD21 on B cells to attach to and infect B cells. In vitro, such infection leads to polyclonal B cell proliferation and generation of B lymphoblastoid cell lines. This occurs via mutation of a viral oncogene called LMP1.

NOTE: Although LMP1 is the primary transforming oncogene in the EBV genome, it is not expressed in EBV- associated Burkitt lymphoma, presumably because it also is one of the major viral antigens recognized by the immune system.

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18
Q

What does LMP1 do?

A

1) activates NFkB and JAK/STAT pathways which mimic B cell activation by the B cell surface molecule CD40.
2) Concurrently, LMP1 prevents apoptosis by activating BCL2. Thus, the virus “borrows” a normal B cell activation pathway to promote its own replication by expanding the pool of cells susceptible to infection.

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19
Q

What does EBNA2 do (another EBV-encoded protein)?

A

transactivates cyclin D and the src family of proto-oncogenes.

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20
Q

What is vIL-10?

A

EBV genome contains a viral cytokine, that was pirated from the host genome. This viral cytokine promotes TH2 class switching and can prevent macrophages and monocytes from activating T cells and killing virally infected cells.

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21
Q

How does EBV infection affect an immunocompetent person?

A

EBV-driven polyclonal B cell proliferation is readily controlled, and the affected patient either remains asymptomatic or experiences a self-limited episode of infectious mononucleosis.

In other words, it will not cause cancer

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22
Q

What must EBV do to promote Burkitt? Or cancer in general?

A

It must evade the immune system.

In regions of the world in which Burkitt lymphoma is endemic, malaria impairs immune competence, allowing sustained B cell proliferation.

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23
Q

Infected cells expressing viral antigens such as LMP-1 are kept in check by the immune system. Lymphoma cells may emerge only when what happens?

A

Translocations (t8:14) activate the MYC oncogene, a consistent feature of this tumor. MYC may substitute for LMP1 signaling, allowing the tumor cells to downregulate LMP1 and evade the immune system.

This makes sense because EBV is only associated with about 20% of Burkitt cases so it cant be dependent on LMP1 to cause disease- it must be dependent on something else, in this case a MYC translocation which is seen in almost all cases

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24
Q

What happens in patients with deficient T cell function, including those with HIV and organ transplant recipients?

A

EBV-infected B cells undergo polyclonal expansion, producing lymphoblastoid-like cells.

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25
Q

So is the lymphoma associated with EBV in HIV and transplant recipients the same as those in Burkitt lymphoma?

A

No, the B lymphoblasts in immunosuppressed patients do express viral antigens, such as LMP-1 (in contrast with Burkitt’s), that can be recognized by T cells.

These potentially lethal proliferations can be subdued if T cell immunity can be restored, as may be achieved by withdrawal of immunosuppressive drugs in transplant recipients.

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26
Q

What is another cancer associated with EBV?

A

The EBV genome is found in all tumors of Nasopharyngeal carcinoma LMP-1 is expressed in the carcinoma cells and, as in B cells, activates the NF-κB pathway.

How EBV enters epithelial cells is unclear, as these cells fail to express the CD21 protein that serves as the EBV receptor in B cells.

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27
Q

HBV and HCV are strongly associated with what cancer?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma.

It is estimated that 70% to 85% of hepatocellular carcinomas worldwide are due to infection with HBV or HCV.

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28
Q

T or F. The HBV and HCV genomes contain oncogenes that mutate causing cancer progression of a host

A

F. Neither HBV nor HCV encode any oncoproteins, and although the HBV DNA is integrated within the human genome, there is no consistent pattern of integration in liver cells.

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29
Q

So how do HBV and HCV promote cancer?

A

The dominant effect seems to be immunologically mediated chronic inflammation with hepatocyte death leading to regeneration and genomic damage.

Although the immune system generally is thought to be protective, in the setting of unresolved chronic inflammation, as occurs in viral hepatitis, the immune response may become maladaptive, promoting tumorigenesis.

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30
Q

What other condition has been linked the maladaptive nature of chronic inflammation in cancer formation?

A

chronic gastritis caused by H. pylori

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31
Q

Describe how chronic inflammation promotes cancer formation?

A

Chronic viral infection leads to the compensatory proliferation of hepatocytes. This regenerative process is aided and abetted by mediators produced by activated immune cells.

The immune cells also produce ROS that are bad.
A key molecular step seems to be activation of the nuclear factor-κB (NF-κB) pathway in hepatocytes caused by mediators derived from the activated immune cells. Activation of the NF-κB pathway within hepatocytes blocks apoptosis, allowing the dividing hepatocytes to incur genotoxic stress and to accumulate mutations.

The HBV genome contains a gene known as HBx. HBx can directly or indirectly activate a variety of transcription factors and several signal transduction pathways, causing cancer. In addition, viral integration can cause secondary rearrangements of chromosomes, including multiple deletions that may harbor unknown tumor suppressor genes. HCV as the HCV core protein which is similar in function

32
Q

H pylori is also associated with what other cancers?

A

gastric adenocarcinomas and gastric lymphomas.

33
Q

How does H. pylori promote gastric adenocarcinoma formation?

A

It involves increased epithelial cell proliferation on a background of chronic inflammation. As in viral hepatitis, the inflammatory milieu contains numerous genotoxic agents, such as reactive oxygen species.

The H. pylori genome also contains genes directly implicated in oncogenesis. Strains associated with gastric adenocarcinoma have been shown to contain a “pathogenicity island” that contains cytotoxin-associated A gene (CagA). Although H. pylori is noninvasive, CagA is injected into gastric epithelial cells, where it has a variety of effects, including the initiation of a signaling cascade that mimics unregulated growth factor stimulation.

34
Q

How does H. pylori affect the stoamch on a cellular timeline?

A

The sequence of histopathologic changes consists of initial development of chronic inflammation/gastritis, followed by gastric atrophy, intestinal metaplasia of the lining cells, dysplasia, and cancer.

35
Q

Does H. pylori infection always lead to cancer?

A

No, cancer progression takes decades to complete and occurs in only 3% of infected patients.

36
Q

H. pylori is associated with an increased risk for the development of gastric lymphomas. What do the lymphomas arise from?

A

The gastric lymphomas are of B cell origin, and because the transformed B cells grow in a pattern resembling that of normal mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), they also have been referred to as MALT lymphomas.

37
Q

How does H. pylori cause gastric lymphoma?

A

It is thought that H. pylori infection leads to the activation of H. pylori– reactive T cells, which in turn cause polyclonal B cell proliferation. In time, a monoclonal B cell tumor emerges in the proliferating B cells, perhaps as a result of accumulation of mutations in growth regulatory genes.

In keeping with this model, early in the course of disease, eradication of H. pylori “cures” the lymphoma by removing antigenic stimulus for T cells.

38
Q

Antigens that elicit an immune response have been demonstrated in many experimentally induced tumors and in some human cancers.

Initially, they were broadly classified into two categories based on their patterns of expression:

A

1) tumor-specific antigens, which are present only on tumor cells and not on any normal cells, and
2) tumor-associated antigens, which are present on tumor cells and also on some normal cells.

The modern classification of tumor antigens is based on their molecular structure and source.

39
Q

Which immune mediator is most important in tumor suppression?

A

CTLs are responsible for the major immune defense mechanism against tumors.

40
Q

How can unique, non-self antigens arise on tumors?

A

Unique tumor antigens arise from β-catenin, RAS, p53, and CDK4, for which the encoding genes frequently are mutated in tumors.

Because the mutant genes are present only in tumors, their peptides are expressed only in tumor cells. Since many tumors may carry the same mutation, such antigens are shared by different tumors.

41
Q

In some tumors, antigens identified by host immune systems are actually normal, non-mutated antigens. How do they elicit an immune system then?

A

overexpression of the normal antigen.

It is possible that if the antigen is normally present in such low amounts, it never was detected during immune development.

42
Q

What is an example where a normal host antigen is over-expressed in a tumor and thus is recognized by host immune systems?

A

In a subset of human melanomas, tyrosinase, an enzyme involved in melanin biosynthesis that is expressed only in normal melanocytes and melanomas, is overexpressed.

T cells from patients with melanoma recognize peptides derived from tyrosinase, raising the possibility that tyrosinase vaccines may stimulate such responses to melanomas

43
Q

What are cancer-testis antigens?

A

Encoded by genes that are silent in all normal adult tissues except the testis, and are deregulated in cancer cells— hence their name.

Although the protein is present in the testis, it is not expressed on the cell surface in an antigenic form, because sperm do not express MHC class I molecules. Thus, for all practical purposes, these antigens are tumor-specific.

44
Q

What is an example of a cancer-testis antigen?

A

The MAGE (melanoma antigen gene) family of genes. Although they are tumor-specific, MAGE antigens are not unique for individual tumors. MAGE-1 is expressed on 37% of melanomas and a variable number of lung, liver, stomach, and esophageal carcinomas. Similar antigens called GAGE, BAGE, and RAGE

45
Q

What are Oncofetal antigens or embryonic antigens?

A

such as carcino-embryonic antigen (CEA) and alpha fetoprotein, are expressed during embryogenesis but not in normal adult tissues.

Derepression of the genes that encode these antigens causes their re-expression in colon and liver cancers. Antibodies can be raised against these antigens and are useful for detection of oncofetal antigens.

46
Q

T or F. Most human and experimental tumors express higher than normal levels and/or abnormal forms of surface glycoproteins and glycolipids.

A

T, these may be diagnostic markers and targets for therapy.

These altered molecules include gangliosides, blood group antigens, and mucins.

47
Q

Several mucins are of special interest and have been the focus of diagnostic and therapeutic studies. Examples?

A

1) CA-125 and CA-19-9, expressed on ovarian carcinoma and colorectal cancer respectively, and
2) MUC-1, expressed on breast carcinomas. Unlike many other types of mucins, MUC-1 is an integral membrane protein that normally is expressed only on the apical surface of breast ductal epithelium, a site that is relatively sequestered from the immune system.

In ductal carcinomas of the breast, however, the molecule is expressed in an unpolarized fashion and contains new, tumor-specific car- bohydrate and peptide epitopes. These epitopes induce both antibody and T cell responses in cancer patients and are therefore candidates for tumor vaccines.

48
Q

What are differentiation antigens?

A

Tumors express molecules that normally are present on the cells of origin. These antigens are called differentiation antigens, because they are specific for particular lineages or differentiation stages of various cell types.

49
Q

Do antibodies play a role in tumor suppression?

A

Although antibodies can be made against tumors, there is no evidence that they play a protective role under physiologic conditions. Pretty much only T cell mediated.

50
Q

How NK cells involved in tumor cell immunity?

A

NK cells are lymphocytes that are capable of destroying tumor cells without previous sensitization; they may provide the first line of defense against tumor cells.

Tumors that fail to express MHC class I antigens cannot be recognized by T cells, but these tumors may trigger NK cells because the latter are inhibited by recognition of normal autologous class I molecules. Thus, tumors may downregulate MHC class I molecules to avoid recognition by T cells, which then makes them prime targets for NK cells.

Macrophages are also involved in manners similar to microbes

51
Q

Cancers are drastically more prevalent in immunodeficient individuals. Namely, what kinds?

A

Of note, most (but not all) of these neoplasms are lymphomas, often lymphomas of activated B cells.

52
Q

What are some mechanisms used by tumors to evade host immune responses?

A

1) Selective outgrowth of antigen-negative variants. Antigen-negative variants are harder to find and kill.
2) Immunosuppression. For example, TGF-β, secreted in large quantities by many tumors, is a potent immunosuppressant.
3) Antigen masking. Many tumor cells produce a thicker coat of external glycocalyx molecules, such as sialic acid–containing mucopolysaccharides, than normal cells.
4) Downregulation of costimulatory molecules.

53
Q

T or F. Location is crucial in both benign and malignant tumors.

A

T. Consider the effects of a tumor impinging on adjacent blood supplies, blocking hormone release, etc.

54
Q

What is cachexia?

A

Many cancer patients suffer progressive loss of body fat and lean body mass, accompanied by profound weakness, anorexia, and anemia—a condition referred to as cachexia.

55
Q

T or F. Cachexia is caused by the nutritional demands of the tumor “stealing” body resources and causing loss of appetite.

A

F. Although patients with cancer often are anorexic, current evidence indicates that cachexia results from the action of soluble factors such as cytokines produced by the tumor and the host, rather than reduced food intake.

Thus, in patients with cancer, calorie expenditure remains high, and basal metabolic rate is increased, despite reduced food intake.

56
Q

What are two (of several) cachexia causing cytokines and how do they work?

A

1) TNF suppresses appetite and inhibits the action of lipoprotein lipase, inhibiting the release of free fatty acids from lipoproteins.
2) Proteolysis-inducing factor, causes breakdown of skeletal muscle proteins by the ubiquitin-proteosome pathway

57
Q

How is cachexia treated?

A

There is no satisfactory treatment for cancer cachexia other than removal of the tumor.

58
Q

What are paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

Symptom complexes that occur in patients with cancer and that cannot be readily explained by local or distant spread of the tumor or by the elaboration of hormones not indigenous to the tissue of origin of the tumor are referred to as paraneoplastic syndromes.

They appear in 10% to 15% of patients with cancer

59
Q

What are the most common paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

hypercalcemia, Cushing syndrome, and nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis (hypercoagulability). Also Kassalbach-Merritt syndrome (spontaneous rupture of a vascular tumor)

the neoplasms most often associated with these and other syndromes are lung and breast cancers and hematologic malignancies.

60
Q

What causes hyper-calcemia in cancer patients?

A

1) The most important mechanism is the synthesis of a parathyroid hormone–related protein (PTHrP) by tumor cells.
2) TGF-α, a polypeptide factor that activates osteoclasts, and the active form of vitamin D.
3) Widespread osteolytic metastatic disease of bone; Note, however, hypercalcemia resulting from skeletal metastases is not a paraneoplastic syndrome.

61
Q

What is Cushing’s syndrome caused by?

A

Usually is related to ectopic production of ACTH or ACTH-like polypeptides by cancer cells, as occurs in small cell cancers of the lung.

symptoms: truncal obesity, easy bruising

Not only caused by tumors- common in steroid users

62
Q

How are cancers graded?

A

The cancer may be classified as grade I, II, III, or IV, in order of increasing anaplasia. Criteria for the individual grades vary with each form of neoplasia. Often descriptions are used instead.

63
Q

What is staging of cancers based on? You are really staging the patient, not the tumor.

A

1) the size of the primary lesion,
2) its extent of spread to regional lymph nodes, and
3) the presence or absence of metastases

Two systems of staging are the TNM and AJC systems

64
Q

Describe the TNM staging system.

A

In the TNM system, T1, T2, T3, and T4 describe the increasing size of the primary lesion; N0, N1, N2, and N3 indicate progressively advancing node involvement; and M0 and M1 reflect the absence and presence, respectively, of distant metastases.

65
Q

Describe the AJC staging system.

A

In the AJC method, the cancers are divided into stages 0 to IV, incorporating the size of primary lesions and the presence of nodal spread and of distant metastases.

Of note, when compared with grading, staging has proved to be of greater clinical value.

66
Q

T or F. Biochemical assays for tumor-associated enzymes, hormones, and other tumor markers in the blood cannot be utilized for definitive diagnosis of cancer;

A

T. however, they can be useful screening tests and in some instances have utility in quantitating the response to therapy or detecting disease recurrence.

67
Q

What is PSA used to screen for?

A

prostatic adenocarcinoma. Prostatic carcinoma can be suspected when elevated levels of PSA are found in the blood.

68
Q

What is a problem is using PSA?

A

Although PSA levels often are elevated in cancer, PSA levels also may be elevated in benign prostatic hyperplasia or after a prostate exam.

Furthermore, there is no PSA level that ensures that a patient does not have prostate cancer. Thus, the PSA test suffers from both low sensitivity and low specificity.

69
Q

What is CA-125 used to identify?

A

ovarian cancer

70
Q

What is CA-19-9 used to identify?

A

colon or pancreatic cancer

71
Q

What is CA-15-3 used to identify?

A

breast cancer

72
Q

What is human chorionic gonadotropin used to identify?

A

tropoblastic tumors, nonseminomatous testicular tumor

73
Q

What is calcitonin used to identify?

A

medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

74
Q

What is a-fetoprotein used to identify?

A

liver cell cancer, nonsemimatous germ cell tumors of testis

75
Q

What is carcinoembryonic antigen used to identify?

A

carcinoma of the colon, pancreas, lung, stomach, and heart cancer

76
Q

What is expression profiling?

A

can tell you if gene are overexpressed or underexpressed