Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Reproductive > Path > Flashcards

Path Flashcards

1
Q

fetal growth restriction due to fetal abnormalities

A

SYMMETRIC

caused by: chromosomal disorders, congenital anomalies, congenital infections (TORCH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

TORCH

A

group of infections (transplacental)

toxoplasmosis (cat litter), rubella, CMV, herpesvirus, other viruses and bacteria (syphilis and listeria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

fetal growth restriction due to placental abnormalities

A

ASYMMETRIC
spares brain
caused by: UTEROPLACENTAL INSUFFICIENCY: umbilical-placental vascular anomalies, plactena abruption, placenta previa, placental thrombosis/infarction, placental infection, multiple gestations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a third trimester loss usually due to?

A

placental insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

fetal growth restriction due to maternal abnormalities

A

maternal conditions that result in decreased placental blood flow
caused by: vascular disease: PREECMAPSIA, CHRONIC HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

spontaneous abortion

A

pregnancy loss before 20 weeks gestation
causes
1. fetal chromosomal anomalies (50% of early loss)
2. maternal endocrine factors
3. physical defects of uterus
4. systemic disorders affecting the maternal vasculature
5. ascending infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does an maternal infection cause a fetal inflammatory response?

A

inflammation of umbilical vessels (vasculitis) and cord substance (funisitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Twin-twin transfusion

A

MONOCHORIONIC

ARTERIOVENOUS SHUNT increases blood flow to one twin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

monochorionic

A

twin placentas have vascular anastomoses that connect the twins’ circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

decidua

A

endometrium of uterus in a pregnant woman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Homeobox genes (HLX and DLX3)

A

expressed in trophoblast and its blood vessels

dysfunctional in preeclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

amnion nodosum

A

nodules seen in placentas effected by oligohydramnios
associated with: stratified squamous metaplasia
due to: renal agenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

IHC: p57

A

neg. has relationship to hydatidiform moles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Choriocarcinoma: gross appearance

A

soft, fleshy, yellow-white tumor with large areas of necrosis and extensive hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

complications of pre-maturity

A
  1. neonatal distress syndrome, hyaline membrane disease
  2. necrotizing enterocolitis
  3. sepsis
  4. intraventricular and germinal matrix hemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

pathology of hyaline membrane disease

A
  1. reduced surfactant (increase tension)
  2. atelectasis (uneven perfusion, hypoventilation)
  3. hypoxemia and CO2 retention (acidosis, pulmonary vasoconstriction and hypoperfusion)
  4. endothelial and epithelial damage
  5. plasma leak into alveoli: fibrin and necrotic cells increase diffusion gradient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

fetal hydrops

A

accumulation of edema fluid in the fetus during intrauterine growth
caused by: CV, chromosomal, fetal anemia (immune (Rh, ABO), ParvoB19, homozygous alpha thalassemia), twin-twin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

triple risk model of SIDS

A
  1. vulnerable infant
  2. critical developmental period in homeostatic control
  3. exogenous stressor (smoking, cockroach, sleeping on belly, overweight, sleep with parents)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

progesterone withdrawal test

A

pos. for bleeding: PCOS

neg. for bleeding: premature ovarian failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When will the majority of breast cancers metastasize?

A

by the time you can palpate them: 2-3cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Most common presentation of breast CA

A

abnormal mammogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

fibrocystic changes: radial scar

A

proliferative type: increased risk for invasive carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

lymphocytic mastitis

A

type of breast inflammation

due to: DM, autoimmune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

granulomatous mastitis

A

type of breast inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Genetic profile of breast CA

  1. luminal A
  2. luminal B
  3. HER2 positive
  4. Basal type
A
  1. ER pos.; HER2 neg.
  2. ER pos.; HER2 overexpressed
  3. ER neg.; HER2 overexpressed
  4. ER and HER2 neg.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Characteristics of breast CA linked to inherited mutations

A

more likely to be/have

  1. bilateral
  2. other CA (ovarian)
  3. Family Hx
  4. CA before menopause
  5. certain ethnicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

BRCA mutation

A

tumor suppressor genes
breast CA (BOTH alleles must be inactivated)
more common in Ashkenazi Jew
most carriers develop CA by 70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Li-Fraumeni

A

p53 mutation

Breast CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cowden

A

PTEN mutation

breast CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ataxia-telangiectasia carriers

A

breast CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

BRCA1

A

AD: breast CA, serous ovarian and fallopian tube CA
may interact with p53
strongest predictors :TRIPLE NEG. breast CA, CA before 50 yrs
prophylaxis: mastectomy or follow closely, tamoxifen
increased risk of recurrence after breast conserving Sx
does not affect death rates, but is associated with resistance to certain chemo drugs
MEDUALLARY, DCIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

BRCA2

A 
Breast CA
usually CA by 50
higher risk of CA of: OVARY (serous), bone, pharynx, prostate, pancreas 
more frequent in blacks than whites
INVASIVE DUCTAL CA, DCIS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Types of DCIS

A
  1. solid
  2. comedo
  3. cribiform
  4. papillary
  5. micropapillary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Tx options for DCIS

A
  1. lumpectomy
  2. radiation
  3. anti-estrogs (tamoxifen and aromatase)
35
Q

E-cadherin

A

lost in LCIS and INVASIVE LOBULAR CA

GASTRIC SIGNET RING CELL CA

36
Q

Tx options for LCIS

A
  1. chemo

2. close follow up

37
Q

What type of breast tumor lacks the myoepithelial cell layer?

A

invasive ductal carcinoma

38
Q

CDH1

A

gene encoding E-cadherin
LOBULAR CA and LCIS
heterozygous germline mutation: increased risk of GASTRIC SIGNET RING CELL CA

39
Q

Causes of gynecomastia

  1. pathologic
  2. physiologic
A
  1. cirrhosis, anabolic steroids, Klinefelter syndrome, drugs

2. puberty, old age

40
Q

HSV-2 migrates to where in latent phase?

A

regional lumbosacral ganglia

41
Q

What typically causes death in cervical CA?

A

local tumor invasion (urethral obstruction, pyelonephritis, uremia)

42
Q

What does E7 inhibit?

A

RB

p21, p27 (cyclin dependent kinase inhibitors)

43
Q

Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL)

A

CIN I (mild dysplasia)

44
Q

High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)

A

CIN II, III (mod. severe dysplasia (carcinoma in situ)

high risk for progression to carcinoma

45
Q

At what size does the risk of metastasis of cervical carcinoma increase to 10%

46
Q

PTEN inactivation

A 
endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma (hyperplasia pathway not sporadic)
breast CA (Cowden)
47
Q

Classification of endometrial hyperplasia

A

simple vs. complex
with or without atypia
atypia: endometrioid intraepithelial neoplasia

48
Q

MSI mutation

A

endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma (hyperplasia pathway not sporadic)

49
Q

What defect in cellular repair predisposes to endometrial carcinoma?

A

DNA mismatch repair

50
Q

HNPCC

A

hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal carcinoma
LYNCH syndrome: COLON CA
ENDOMETRIAL carcinomas

51
Q

p53 mutations

A

sporadic endometrial carcinoma

52
Q

Where do serous ovarian carcinomas arise?

A

fallopian tube

53
Q

Common pathologies of the fallopian tubes

A
  1. infection: Gonococcus, Chlamydiae, TB
  2. benign paratubal cysts
    Tumors are UNCOMMON
54
Q

Two pathways of epithelial ovarian tumors

A
  1. cystadenoma/endometriosis to borderline tumor to low grade serous, endometrioid, mucinous
  2. fallopian tube to inclusion cyst to high grade serous
55
Q

KRAS mutation

A

mucinous ovarian cystadenoma/adenocarcinoma

56
Q

Where do most metastatic tumors of the ovary come from?

A

mullerian origin: uterus, fallopian tube, contralateral ovary, pelvic peritoneum
other: breast, GI, appendix

57
Q

IHC: inhibin

A

granulosa tumor

58
Q

Meigs syndrome

A

ovarian tumor (fibrothecoma), hydrothorax, ascites

59
Q

basal cell nevus syndrome

A

fibrothecoma ovarian tumor

60
Q

Categories of ovarian teratoma

A
  1. mature (benign)
  2. immature (malignant)
  3. monodermal (highly specialized)
61
Q

C-KIT (CD117)

A

receptor tyrosine kinase

activating mutation in DYSGERMINOMA

62
Q

alpha fetoprotein

63
Q

Hypospadia associations

A

inguinal hernia

undescended testis

64
Q

balanoposthitis

A

inflammation of prepuce overlying the glans penis

65
Q

Agents that cause balanitis and balanoposthitis

Most cases are caused by?

A 
Candida
anaerobic bacteria
Gardnerella
pyogenic bacteria
caused by: poor hygiene in uncircumcised male
66
Q

phimosis

A

prepuce cannot be retracted over glans penis

67
Q

orchiopexy

A

reduces risk of sterility and CA in those with cryptorchidism

68
Q

Where in the testis is an inflammatory lesion most likely to occur?
Causes of inflammatory lesion of testis?

A

epididymis

causes: sexually transmitted, nonspecific epididymitis and orchitis, MUMPS, TUBERCULOSIS

69
Q

orchitis: mumps histology

A

lymphoplasmacytic

70
Q

orchitis: TB histo

A

granulomatous

caseous necrosis

71
Q

neonatal testicular torsion

A

in utero or shortly after birth

NO associated anatomic defect

72
Q

adult testicular torsion

A

due to bilateral anatomic defect with increased mobility

73
Q
  1. Most common cell type of testicular neoplasm? more likely benign or malignant?
  2. Less common?
  3. Are whites or blacks more likely to have testicular CA?
A
  1. most common: Germ cell: malignant
  2. less common: Sertoli or Leydig (sex cord): benign
  3. White
74
Q

obstructive lesion of the ureters

  1. intrinsic
  2. extrinsic
  3. complications
A
  1. calculi, strictures, tumors, blood clots, neurogenic
  2. pregnancy, periureteral inflammation, endometriosis, tumors
  3. hydroureter, hydronephrosis, pyelonephritis
75
Q

vesicoureteral reflux

A

most common and serious bladder congenital anomaly
backwards flow of urine from bladder into kidneys
complications: renal infection, scarring

76
Q

urachal anomalies

  1. totally patent
  2. other
A

urachus (fetal canal connecting bladder to allantois in umbilical cord)

  1. fistulous urinary tract: connect bladder to umbilicus
  2. urachal cyst (adenoCA can arise from the cyst)
77
Q

racemase stain

A

red

prostate CA

78
Q

Which bladder neoplasms

  1. recur
  2. have coexisting invasion
  3. progress
  4. cause death
A
  1. PUNLMP, LGUC, HGUC
  2. HGUC, sometimes LGUC
  3. LGUC and HGUC
  4. LGUC and HGUC
79
Q

Types of bladder neoplasms

A

papilloma
PUNLMP: papillary urothelial neoplasm of low malignant potential
LGUC: low grade urothelial carcinoma
HGUC: high grade urothelial carcinoma

80
Q

primary syphilis

81
Q

secondary syphilis

A

palmar rash
lymphadenopathy
condyloma latum

82
Q

tertiary syphilis

A

neuro
aortitis
gummas (irregular, firm mass of necrosis surrounded by connective tissue): hepar lobatum, skin, bone

83
Q

congenital syphilis

A
  1. late abortion, stillbirth
  2. infant: rash, osteochondritis, periostitis, liver and lung fibrosis
  3. child: interstitial keratitis, hutchinson teeth, deaf
84
Q

PLAP

A

DYSGERMINOMA

Reproductive (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions