Path Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Kayser-Fleischer rings are associated with deposition of…

A) Lipofuscin
B) Coal
C) Copper
D) Iron
E) Melanin
A

Copper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which intracellular substance is considered as “wear and tear” pigment?

A) Coal
B) Hemosiderin
C) Melanin
D) Lipofuscin
E) Hyaline
A

Liposuction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which process is characterized by fragmentation of the cell nucleus?

A) Pyknosis
B) Myelin Figures
C) Karyolysis
D) Karyorrhexis

A

Karryorrhexis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Uniformly distributed damage within a diseased organ is considered as…

A) Local
B) Diffuse
C) Idiopathic
D) Focal
E) Systemic
A

Diffuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In the inflammatory response the leukocyte emigration occurs in…

A) Arterioles
B) Capillaries
C) Postcapillary Venules
D) B + C
E) A + B
A

Post capillary Venules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The diffuse supprative inflammation is called…

A) Serous
B) Fibrinous
C) Cellulitis
D) Adscess

A

cellulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which substance is a part of the oxygen-independent mechanisms of killing of microorganisms in the process of phagocytosis?

A) Hydrogen Peroxide
B) Defensin
C) Hypochlorous Acid
E) Free Radicals

A

Defensin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Thromboembolus derived from the left atrium, usually results in infarction of which of the following organisms?

A) Brain
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Rectum

A

Brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The platelets produce all these substances except…

A) Thromboxane
B) ADP
C) Growth Factors
D) All of the above are produced by platelets

A

all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which is correct for pellagra?

A) Subperiosteal Hemorrhage
B) Wernicke Encephalopathy
C) Hypoalbuminemia
D) Casal’s Necklace

A

Casal’s necklace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Skeletal Changes in scurvy are associated with disturbance of which of the following processes?

A) Provisional Calcification
B) Osteoclastic Activity
C) Utilization of Calcitonin
D)Formation of osteoid matrix

A

Formation of Osteoid Matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

“Flaky Paint” appearance on the skin is typical for which pathology?

A) Kwashiorkor
B) Zinc Deficiency
C) Hypervitaminosis A
D) Ariboflavinosis

A

Kwashiorkor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In scleroderma, in the acronym CREST, the letter “S” means which of the following?

A) Sclerosis
B) Sclerodactyly
C) Scleroderma
D) Spasm

A

Scelerodactyly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction is induced by sensitization of which of the following cells?

A) CD4+ TH1 Type
B) CD4 + TH2 Type
C) B-cells
D) T-cytotoxics

A

CD4+ TH1 type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Arthus reaction is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reactions?

A) Cell-mediated
B) Anaphylactic
C) Immune Complex Mediated
D) Antibody-dependent

A

Immune Complex Type 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which malignant tumor is an example of scirrhous cancer?

A) Breast adenocarcinoma
B) Cancer of uterus
C) Cervical Carcinoma
D) Pancoast tumor

A

Breast adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which tumors have a tendency to metastasize via blood vessels?

A)In which the tissue of embryonic origin is endoderm
B) In which the tissue of origin is mesoderm
C) In which the tissue of embryonic origin is ectoderm
D) A + C

A

Tissue with mesoderm origin

18
Q

Which of the following tumors is malignant?

A) Rhabdomyoma
B) Adenoma
C) Leiomyoma
D) Lymphoma

A

Lymphoma

19
Q

Which HLA-antigens are found in majority of rheumatoid arthritis patients?

A) DR1 and DR2
B) DR2 and DR3
C) DR3 and DR4 
D) DR2 and DR4
E) DR1 and DR4
A

dr2 and dr4

20
Q

Which of the following is/are correct name(s) of the bone overgrowth on the periphery of vertebral body in spinal osteoarthritis?

A)Syndesmophyte
B) Spondylophyte
C) Spur
D) A + B
E) B + C
A

B&C

21
Q

The form of rheumatoid arthritis characterized by development of leukopenia is known as…

A) Barrett's Syndrome
B) Caplan's Syndrome
C) Felty's Syndrome
D) Still's Disease
E) none of the above
A

Felty’s Syndrome

22
Q

Which of the following bone tumors is characterized by night pain relieved by aspirin?

A) osteoblastoma
B) Osteoid Osteoma
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Enchondroma

A

osteoid osteoma

23
Q

Periosteal reaction with elevation of periosteum on the external surface is characteristically seen in…

A) Osteochondroma
B) Enchondroma
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Non-ossifying fibroma

A

Osteosarcoma

24
Q

Which is the most common malignant bone tumor in boys?

A) Chondrosarcoma
B) Giant cell tumor of bone
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Ewing Sarcoma
E) Osteochondroma
A

Ewings Sarcoma

25
Q

Bronchiolitis Obliterans is on of the outcomes of which chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

A) Emphysema
B) Chronic Bronchitis
C) Bronchial Asthma
D) Bronchiectasis

A

Chronic Bronchitis

26
Q

Extrinsic Bronchial Asthma is associated with ___ type of hypersensitivity reaction, intrinsic bronchial asthma with ___ type hypersensitivity.

A) I, IV
B) II, IV
C) none, I
D) I, none

A

Extrinsic is type 1 and intrinsic has no hypersensitivity

27
Q

Which type of lung emphysema results in spontaneous pneumothorax more often?

A) Panacinar
B) Centriacinar
C) Distal Acinar
D) Each type has equal chance to cause pneumothorax

A

Distal acinar

28
Q

The most common cause of acute bacterial endocarditis is ___, of subacute bacterial endocarditis is ___

A) Strep Viridans, Staph Aureus
B) Staph Aureus, Strep Mitis
C) Staph Epidermitidis, Strep Viridans
D) Strep pneumoniae, Strep mitis

A

Staph aureus acute

Strep Viridan aka mitis

29
Q

Cor Pulmonare results from which of the following disorders?

A) Congestion of venous circulation
B) Pulmonary Edema
C) Lung emphysema
D) Left Ventricular hypertrophy

A

Lung Empysema

30
Q

Aschoff’s nodes are the typical findings in which disease?

A) Ischemic Heart Disease
B) Left-sided heart failure
C) Bacterial Endocarditis, Complicated with mitral stenosis
D) Rheumatic Endocarditis

A

Rheumatic fever

31
Q

What is incorrect for Monckenberg’s medial calcific stenosis?

A) Results in narrowing of arterial lumen
B) Characterized by calcification within the media of arteries
C) Affects arteries of genital tract
D) All of the above

A

it does NOT result in narrowing of arterial lumen

32
Q

What is NOT a part of stomach mucous barrier?

A) Gastrin secretion into the mucus
B) Surface mucus secretion
C) Elaboration of prostaglandins
D) Mucosal blood flow

A

Elaboration of prostaglandins

33
Q

Location of which esophageal diverticulumis closer to upper esophageal sphincter?

A) Traction diverticulum
B) Zenker Diverticulum
C) Mallory Diverticulum
D) Epiphrenic Diverticulum
E) Chagas Diverticulum
A

Zenker Diverticulum

34
Q

Trypanosoma Cruzi invasion can result in which pathology of the esophagus?

A) Mallory Weiss Syndrome
B) Paraesophageal Hernia
C) Zenker Diverticulum
D) Sliding Hernia
E) Achalasia
A

Achalasia

35
Q
What is the most common cause of Pyelonephritis?
A) E. Coli
B) Deposition of immune complexes
C) Beta- Hemolytic Strep. Group A
D) Candida Albicans
E) anti-GBM antibodies
A

E. Coli

36
Q

Which disease of the glomeruli most often turns into chronic glomerulonephritis?

A) Membranous Glomerulonephritis
B) IgA Nephropathy
C) acute proliferative post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
D) Focal glomerulosclerosis
E) Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis

A

Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis

37
Q

Which nephritis is associated with nerve deafness and various eye disorders?

A) Buerger’s
B) Alport Syndrome
C) IgA Nephropathy
D) lipoid nephrosis

A

Alport

38
Q

Conn’s syndrome is aka which of the following?

A) Hypercortisolism
B) Acute adrenocortical insufficiency
C) Hyperaldosteronism
D) Hyperfunction of adrenal medulla

A

hyperaldosteronism

39
Q

Which of the following is associated with Addison’s Disease?

A. Hyperfunction of adenohypophysis
B) Adrenocortical insufficiency
C) Hyperfunction of adrenal medulla
D) Insufficiency of thyroid gland function

A

Adrenocortical Insufficiency

40
Q

Aneurysms are predisposing factors for the development of which diseases?

A) Subarachnoid hemorrhagic stroke
B) Lacunar Infarction
C) Transient Ischemic attack
D) Parenchymal hemorrhagic stroke

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhagic stroke

41
Q

The term Amaurosis Fugal is associated with which of the following?

A) Hemorrhage into retina
B) Non-communicating hydrocephalus
C) Temporary thrombosis of ophthalmic artery
D) temporary thrombosis of common carotid artery

A

Temporary Thrombosis of the Opthalmic Artery

42
Q

Territory of which cerebral artery is the most vulnerable for ischemic stroke?

A) middel Cerebral
B) Basilar
C) Anterior Cerebral
D) Anterior Communicating
E) Posterior Communicating
A

middle cerebral