Path Flashcards
Kayser-Fleischer rings are associated with deposition of…
A) Lipofuscin B) Coal C) Copper D) Iron E) Melanin
Copper
Which intracellular substance is considered as “wear and tear” pigment?
A) Coal B) Hemosiderin C) Melanin D) Lipofuscin E) Hyaline
Liposuction
Which process is characterized by fragmentation of the cell nucleus?
A) Pyknosis
B) Myelin Figures
C) Karyolysis
D) Karyorrhexis
Karryorrhexis
Uniformly distributed damage within a diseased organ is considered as…
A) Local B) Diffuse C) Idiopathic D) Focal E) Systemic
Diffuse
In the inflammatory response the leukocyte emigration occurs in…
A) Arterioles B) Capillaries C) Postcapillary Venules D) B + C E) A + B
Post capillary Venules
The diffuse supprative inflammation is called…
A) Serous
B) Fibrinous
C) Cellulitis
D) Adscess
cellulitis
Which substance is a part of the oxygen-independent mechanisms of killing of microorganisms in the process of phagocytosis?
A) Hydrogen Peroxide
B) Defensin
C) Hypochlorous Acid
E) Free Radicals
Defensin
Thromboembolus derived from the left atrium, usually results in infarction of which of the following organisms?
A) Brain
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Rectum
Brain
The platelets produce all these substances except…
A) Thromboxane
B) ADP
C) Growth Factors
D) All of the above are produced by platelets
all of the above
Which is correct for pellagra?
A) Subperiosteal Hemorrhage
B) Wernicke Encephalopathy
C) Hypoalbuminemia
D) Casal’s Necklace
Casal’s necklace
Skeletal Changes in scurvy are associated with disturbance of which of the following processes?
A) Provisional Calcification
B) Osteoclastic Activity
C) Utilization of Calcitonin
D)Formation of osteoid matrix
Formation of Osteoid Matrix
“Flaky Paint” appearance on the skin is typical for which pathology?
A) Kwashiorkor
B) Zinc Deficiency
C) Hypervitaminosis A
D) Ariboflavinosis
Kwashiorkor
In scleroderma, in the acronym CREST, the letter “S” means which of the following?
A) Sclerosis
B) Sclerodactyly
C) Scleroderma
D) Spasm
Scelerodactyly
Delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction is induced by sensitization of which of the following cells?
A) CD4+ TH1 Type
B) CD4 + TH2 Type
C) B-cells
D) T-cytotoxics
CD4+ TH1 type
Arthus reaction is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reactions?
A) Cell-mediated
B) Anaphylactic
C) Immune Complex Mediated
D) Antibody-dependent
Immune Complex Type 3
Which malignant tumor is an example of scirrhous cancer?
A) Breast adenocarcinoma
B) Cancer of uterus
C) Cervical Carcinoma
D) Pancoast tumor
Breast adenocarcinoma
Which tumors have a tendency to metastasize via blood vessels?
A)In which the tissue of embryonic origin is endoderm
B) In which the tissue of origin is mesoderm
C) In which the tissue of embryonic origin is ectoderm
D) A + C
Tissue with mesoderm origin
Which of the following tumors is malignant?
A) Rhabdomyoma
B) Adenoma
C) Leiomyoma
D) Lymphoma
Lymphoma
Which HLA-antigens are found in majority of rheumatoid arthritis patients?
A) DR1 and DR2 B) DR2 and DR3 C) DR3 and DR4 D) DR2 and DR4 E) DR1 and DR4
dr2 and dr4
Which of the following is/are correct name(s) of the bone overgrowth on the periphery of vertebral body in spinal osteoarthritis?
A)Syndesmophyte B) Spondylophyte C) Spur D) A + B E) B + C
B&C
The form of rheumatoid arthritis characterized by development of leukopenia is known as…
A) Barrett's Syndrome B) Caplan's Syndrome C) Felty's Syndrome D) Still's Disease E) none of the above
Felty’s Syndrome
Which of the following bone tumors is characterized by night pain relieved by aspirin?
A) osteoblastoma
B) Osteoid Osteoma
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Enchondroma
osteoid osteoma
Periosteal reaction with elevation of periosteum on the external surface is characteristically seen in…
A) Osteochondroma
B) Enchondroma
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Non-ossifying fibroma
Osteosarcoma
Which is the most common malignant bone tumor in boys?
A) Chondrosarcoma B) Giant cell tumor of bone C) Osteosarcoma D) Ewing Sarcoma E) Osteochondroma
Ewings Sarcoma
Bronchiolitis Obliterans is on of the outcomes of which chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
A) Emphysema
B) Chronic Bronchitis
C) Bronchial Asthma
D) Bronchiectasis
Chronic Bronchitis
Extrinsic Bronchial Asthma is associated with ___ type of hypersensitivity reaction, intrinsic bronchial asthma with ___ type hypersensitivity.
A) I, IV
B) II, IV
C) none, I
D) I, none
Extrinsic is type 1 and intrinsic has no hypersensitivity
Which type of lung emphysema results in spontaneous pneumothorax more often?
A) Panacinar
B) Centriacinar
C) Distal Acinar
D) Each type has equal chance to cause pneumothorax
Distal acinar
The most common cause of acute bacterial endocarditis is ___, of subacute bacterial endocarditis is ___
A) Strep Viridans, Staph Aureus
B) Staph Aureus, Strep Mitis
C) Staph Epidermitidis, Strep Viridans
D) Strep pneumoniae, Strep mitis
Staph aureus acute
Strep Viridan aka mitis
Cor Pulmonare results from which of the following disorders?
A) Congestion of venous circulation
B) Pulmonary Edema
C) Lung emphysema
D) Left Ventricular hypertrophy
Lung Empysema
Aschoff’s nodes are the typical findings in which disease?
A) Ischemic Heart Disease
B) Left-sided heart failure
C) Bacterial Endocarditis, Complicated with mitral stenosis
D) Rheumatic Endocarditis
Rheumatic fever
What is incorrect for Monckenberg’s medial calcific stenosis?
A) Results in narrowing of arterial lumen
B) Characterized by calcification within the media of arteries
C) Affects arteries of genital tract
D) All of the above
it does NOT result in narrowing of arterial lumen
What is NOT a part of stomach mucous barrier?
A) Gastrin secretion into the mucus
B) Surface mucus secretion
C) Elaboration of prostaglandins
D) Mucosal blood flow
Elaboration of prostaglandins
Location of which esophageal diverticulumis closer to upper esophageal sphincter?
A) Traction diverticulum B) Zenker Diverticulum C) Mallory Diverticulum D) Epiphrenic Diverticulum E) Chagas Diverticulum
Zenker Diverticulum
Trypanosoma Cruzi invasion can result in which pathology of the esophagus?
A) Mallory Weiss Syndrome B) Paraesophageal Hernia C) Zenker Diverticulum D) Sliding Hernia E) Achalasia
Achalasia
What is the most common cause of Pyelonephritis? A) E. Coli B) Deposition of immune complexes C) Beta- Hemolytic Strep. Group A D) Candida Albicans E) anti-GBM antibodies
E. Coli
Which disease of the glomeruli most often turns into chronic glomerulonephritis?
A) Membranous Glomerulonephritis
B) IgA Nephropathy
C) acute proliferative post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
D) Focal glomerulosclerosis
E) Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis
Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis
Which nephritis is associated with nerve deafness and various eye disorders?
A) Buerger’s
B) Alport Syndrome
C) IgA Nephropathy
D) lipoid nephrosis
Alport
Conn’s syndrome is aka which of the following?
A) Hypercortisolism
B) Acute adrenocortical insufficiency
C) Hyperaldosteronism
D) Hyperfunction of adrenal medulla
hyperaldosteronism
Which of the following is associated with Addison’s Disease?
A. Hyperfunction of adenohypophysis
B) Adrenocortical insufficiency
C) Hyperfunction of adrenal medulla
D) Insufficiency of thyroid gland function
Adrenocortical Insufficiency
Aneurysms are predisposing factors for the development of which diseases?
A) Subarachnoid hemorrhagic stroke
B) Lacunar Infarction
C) Transient Ischemic attack
D) Parenchymal hemorrhagic stroke
Subarachnoid hemorrhagic stroke
The term Amaurosis Fugal is associated with which of the following?
A) Hemorrhage into retina
B) Non-communicating hydrocephalus
C) Temporary thrombosis of ophthalmic artery
D) temporary thrombosis of common carotid artery
Temporary Thrombosis of the Opthalmic Artery
Territory of which cerebral artery is the most vulnerable for ischemic stroke?
A) middel Cerebral B) Basilar C) Anterior Cerebral D) Anterior Communicating E) Posterior Communicating
middle cerebral
