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1
Q

Diagnostic criteria of SIADH

A

Low plasma sodium (< 135)
* Low plasma osmolality (< 270)
* High urinary sodium (> 20)
* High urinary osmolality (> 100)
* No adrenal/thyroid/renal dysfunction

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2
Q

Sodium in DI?

A

High

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3
Q

Treatment for high potassium?

A
  • IV calcium gluconate
  • IV insulin with dextrose
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4
Q

If potassium is low, remember to check what?

A

Magnesium level

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5
Q

What to do if high potassium level?

A

Check again before treating

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6
Q

A patient has had hypertension at a young age and the following blood test results on his U&Es: Na 147, K 3.2, urea 5.0, Cr 70.
What is the next best investigation to confirm the likely diagnosis?

A

Aldosterone renin ration

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7
Q

Effect of calcitonin?

A

Less bone reabsorption by osteoclasts
Decreased Ca reabsorption at
DCT

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8
Q

Severe low calcium treatment

A

IV calcium gluconate

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9
Q

What has lowest calcium: osteomalacia or secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Osteomalacia

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10
Q

Management of hypercalcaemia in the acute setting is?

A

Fluids, fluids, fluids

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11
Q

Commonest cancers that can metastasise to the bone are?

A

Prostate, breast, lung

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12
Q

Normal anion gap level?

A

14-18

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13
Q

Normal plasma osmolality?

A

275-295

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14
Q

Marker of acute liver dysfunction?

A

INR/PT

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15
Q

Should urobilinogen be in urine?

A

YES

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16
Q

Raised AST:ALT > 2:1?

A

Alcoholic hepatitis

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17
Q

Raised AST:ALT < 1:1

A

Viral hepatitis

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18
Q

ALT/AST in the 1000s

A

Acute viral hepatitis, ischaemic hit, toxins

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19
Q

Antibodies in Hashimoto’s disease

A

Anti-thyroid peroxidase, anti thyroglobulin

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20
Q

Primary atrophic - goitre or no goitre?

A

No goitre

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21
Q

Treatment for myxoedema coma

A

I.V Liothyronine

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22
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism results?

A

Pre-hypothyroid
Pituitary gland can compensate
High TSH, normal T3/4
If positive anti TPO Ig then higher risk of hypothyroidism later

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23
Q

Radiolabelled iodine uptake scan.
Multiple nodules?

A

Toxic goitre

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24
Q

Radiolabelled iodine uptake scan.
Generalised increase

A

Grave’s disease

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25
Q

Radiolabelled iodine uptake scan.
De Quervain’s sign?

A

Cold thyroid

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26
Q

Radiolabelled iodine uptake scan. What is seen with adenomas??

A

Focal lesions

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27
Q

Graves’ specific signs and symptoms?

A

Pretibial myxoedema (soft tissue growth at the shins and skin changes), graves’ orbitopathy is also another specific sign (caused by retrobulbar soft tissue growth), and is characterised by lid lag, exopthalmos and opthalmoplegia.

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28
Q

Medical management of hyperthyroidism

A

include carbimazole and propylthiouracil.

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29
Q

There are five indications for a thyroidectomy (either full or partial) - name them

A

)Treatment resistant graves, suspicion of malignancy, cosmetic, or co-existing hyper-parathyroidism.
It is important to ensure patients are euthyroid before radio-iodine or surgery because the treatment / operation can both induce thyroid storm.

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30
Q

Acromegaly Ix

A

Oral glucose tolerance test
Measurement of GH
Plasma IGF-1

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31
Q

Hashimoto’s can cause which thyroid tumour?

A

Lymphoma

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32
Q

Psammoma bodies in which thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary

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33
Q

What stimulates prolactin?

A

TRH

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34
Q

CPFT: combined pituitary function test - what is given?

A

GnRH, TRH and insulin

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35
Q

Which blood marker is monitored to check for recurrence of papillary thyroid carcinoma post resection?

A

Thyroglobulin

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36
Q

Which medication is used for hyperthyroidism?

A

Carbimazole

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37
Q

Commonest cause of hypothyroidism in the UK?

A

Hashimoto’s

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38
Q

Reticularis secretes what?

A

Sex hormones

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39
Q

What does the adrenal medulla produce?

A

Catecholamines

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39
Q

What does the adrenal medulla produce?

A

Catecholamines

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40
Q

Purpose of high dose dexamethasone test?

A

Helps to determine Cushing’s syndrome from disease

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41
Q

What is Cushing’s disease?

A

Cushing disease occurs when Cushing syndrome is caused by an ACTH-producing pituitary tumour, whereas Cushing syndrome is the set of symptoms that results when there is a surplus of cortisol in the body.

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42
Q

Treatment of Conn’s syndrome?

A

Spironolactone

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43
Q

Sulphonylurea

A

gliclazide

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44
Q

DPP-4 agonists

A

Sitagliptin

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45
Q

SGLT-2 inhibitors

A

Empagliflozin.

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46
Q

Add GLP-1 antagonist

A

Liraglutide

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47
Q

DKA criteria:

A

Ketones >3
pH <7.3
BM >15

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48
Q

A patient presents with new-onset type 2 diabetes, an enlarged jaw and forehead and carpal-tunnel syndrome. Which investigation would be most useful to diagnose the likely cause?
Short SynACTHen test
Combined pituitary function test
Measurement of plasma [growth hormone]
Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
Oral glucose tolerance test

A

c)

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49
Q

Sign of AML?

A

Auer rods

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50
Q

Acute Promyelocytic Leukaemia

A

T(15;17)
Presents with DIC. Good prognosis
All-Trans Retinoic Acid (ATRA)
Forces cells to differentiate, stops proliferation

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51
Q

Ruloxitnib is what?

A
  • JAK inhibitor
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52
Q

CML association?

A

Philadelphia chromosome - treat with imatinib

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53
Q

How is 9:22 dected?

A

FISH

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54
Q

Blast phase of CML?

A

> 20% blasts in bone marrow
Behaves like an acute leukaemia

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55
Q

Accelerated of CML?

A

> 10% blasts in bone marrow

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56
Q

Sign of CLL?

A

Smudge cells

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57
Q

Richters syndrome:

A

Transformation of CLL to aggressive disease (ALL / high grade lymphoma)

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58
Q

Staging of CLL?

A

A – no cytopenia, <3 areas of lymphoid involvement
B – no cytopenia, 3+ areas of lymphoid involvement
C – cytopenias

A – watch and wait
B – consider treatment
C – treat

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59
Q

Treatment for CLL?

A

Venetoclax (BCL2)
Obinutuzumab (CD20)
Ibrutinib (Brutons TK inhibitor)
FCR (fludarabine, cyclophosphamide, rituximab)

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60
Q

> 20% blasts = What?

A

AML

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61
Q

Most common Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Nodular sclerosing is the most common type

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62
Q

MGUS

A

Serum monoclonal protein <30g/l
Plasma cells <10% on Bone Marrow

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63
Q

Smouldering myeloma

A

Serum monoclonal protein (IgG / IgA) >30g/l or Bence Jones Protein
And/or
Clonal bone marrow plasma cells 10%-60% in the marrow

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64
Q

waldenstrom’s

A

lymphadenopathy, weight loss, splenomegaly
IgM paraproteins

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65
Q

55 year old man presents to his GP with lethargy, fatigue and lymphadenopathy. Blood results show: WCC 7 Hb 90 MCV 80 Na 140 K 4.0 Creatinine 90 Calcium 2.5
Serum electrophoresis shows an IgM paraprotein of 37 g/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Acute leukaemia
Multiple Myeloma
Smouldering Myeloma
MGUS
Waldenstrom’s Macroglobulinaemia

A

E)

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66
Q

55 year old man presents to his GP after a 2 week history of fatigue and easy bruising. Blood results show:
WCC 27 Hb 90 Plt 30
Na 140 K 4.0 Creatinine 90 Calcium 2.5
Blood film shows presence of blasts (see below) with 55% blasts in marrow. Flow cytometry shows a clonal population of cells expressing CD34, MPO, CD13, CD33.

A

AML

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67
Q

ALL has which cells?

A

Hand-mirror cells
Do flow cytometry

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68
Q

TREMATODA- flukes?

A

Schistosoma spp.
Fasciola hepatica

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69
Q

CESTODA- tapeworms

A

Taenia solium

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70
Q

APICOMPLEXA

A

Toxoplasma gondii
Plasmodia spp

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71
Q

Complication of taenia solim?

A

Cysterciocisis (in the brain)

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72
Q

Treatment of neurocysticercosis

A

Steroids
Anti-convulsants
Anti-parasitics
Surgery

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73
Q

How does hookworm infect?

A

Penetrates skin

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74
Q

Schistoma affects what organ?

A

Liver

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75
Q

Treatment for schistomiasis?

A

Praziquantel

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76
Q

Name the process by which a strain of influenza may rapidly modify whole segments of its genome?

A

Antigenic shift

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77
Q

What step in the influenza replication cycle does tamiflu inhibit?

A

Cell exit

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78
Q

Which Plasmodium species causes cerebral malaria?

Plasmodium ovale
Plasmodium knowlesi
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium malariae

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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79
Q

What is Toxoplasma gondii’s definitive host?

A

Domestic cat

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80
Q

Which organism is the leading cause of adult onset seizures in the developing world?

A

Taenia solim?

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81
Q

Gram positive bacteria stain what colour?

A

Purple

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82
Q

Gram negative stain what colour?

A

Red/pink

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83
Q

8-16hrs after reheated meat, watery diarrhoea lasts 24hrs
Gas gangrene

A

Clostridium perfringens

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84
Q

Descending paralysis after canned foods/honey

A

Clostridium botulinum

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85
Q

Treatment of typhoid?

A

IV ceftriaxone

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86
Q

Treatment for mild malaria?

A

Mild: artemisin combination therapy (Riamet – artemether + lumefantrine)

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87
Q

What are Negri bodies associated with?

A

Rabies
Treatment - Rabies IgG post-exposure (passive vaccination)

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88
Q

Cause of Q fever?

A

Coxiella burnetii, from cattle/sheep

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89
Q

Signs of Q fever?

A

Atypical pneumonia symptoms: fever, dry cough, pleural effusion

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90
Q

Mixed growth, squamous epithelium - MC&S?

A

Contaminated sample

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91
Q

Upper UTI management?

A

Upper: admit, IV co-amox + gent

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92
Q

Chlamydia Serovars L1, L2, L3 cause what?

A

lympho-granuloma venereum (LGV)

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93
Q

Serovars A, B, C: trachoma can cause what?

A

Blindness

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94
Q

Treatment for chlamydia infection

A

Treatment:
Azithromycin 1g stat, or
Doxycycline 100mg BD 7d

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95
Q

Male urethral discharge?

A

Gonorrhoea

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96
Q

Treatment for gonorrhoea?

A

Treatment:
Ceftriaxone 250mg IM STAT

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97
Q

Secondary syphilis?

A

Bacteraemia after 1-6 months fever, lymphadenopathy
Rash on palms and soles
Condyloma acuminate (genital warts)

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98
Q

Signs of tertiary syphilis:

A

30yrs later  3 different syndromes:
Gummatous: skin/bone/mucosal granulomas
Cardiovascular: mimics any cardiac disease; aortic root dilatation
Neurosyphilis: dementia, tabes dorsalis, Argyll-Robertson pupil

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99
Q

Treatment for syphillis

A

Treatment: IM benzathine penicillin STAT

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100
Q

TB meningitis findings on LP?

A

Clear / turbid
Low
High - mononuclear

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101
Q

Bacterial meningitis findings on LP?

A

Bacterial
Turbid
Low
High - polymorphs

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102
Q

Hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

S. aureus, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, Haemophilus

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103
Q

ABx cause of pseudomembranous colitis

A

3Cs (clindamycin, cephalosporins, ciprofloxacin)

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104
Q

Small non-tender nodules in IE?

A

Janeway lesions

105
Q

Painful nodules in IE?

A

Osler’s nodes

106
Q

Example of glycopeptide?

A

Vancomycin

107
Q

Example of aminoglycoside?

A

Gentamicin

108
Q

Example of macrolide?

A

Erythromycin

109
Q

Example of fluoroquinolone?

A

Ciproflaxin

110
Q

Which antibiotic inhibits DNA synthesis?

A

Fluoroquinolones - Ciprofloaxin

111
Q

Treatment for pharyngitis?

A

Benzylpenicillin

112
Q

MRSA resistance mechanism?

A

Bypass antibiotic-sensitive step in the pathway

113
Q

Beta-lactam resistance mechanism?

A

Enzyme-mediated drug inactivation

114
Q

Tetracycline resistance mechanism?

A

Impairment of accumulation of the drug

115
Q

Modification of the drug target is the mechanism for which resistance?

A

Quinolone

116
Q

Signs of late LGV?

A

Inguinal lymphadenopathy, genital elephantiasis

117
Q

Treatment for syphillis?

A

Single dose IM benzathine penicillin

118
Q

Jarisch-herxheimer reaction is seen with which disease?

A

Syphilis

119
Q

Donovanosis associated with what?

A

Large, beefy red ulcers. Donovan bodies.

120
Q

Duke’s criteria for IE?

A

2 major, 1 major + 3 minor, 5 minor

121
Q

What organism causes the plague?

A

Yersinia pestis

122
Q

What organism causes the plague?

A

Yersinia pestis

123
Q

What causes anthrax?

A

Bacillus anthracis

124
Q

Signs of anthrax?

A

Painless round black lesions + rim of oedema
Massive lymphadenopathy + mediastinal haemorrhage

125
Q

Visceral leishmania is also known as what?

A

Kala Azar

126
Q

Treatment for aspergillus?

A

voriconazole

127
Q

What does terbinafine target?

A

Mould cell membrane

128
Q

Echinocandin eg. caspfungin inhibits what?

A

Cell wall yeast (less toxic SEs)

129
Q

How can varian CJD be diagnosed?

A

Tonsillar biopsy

130
Q

Protein in sporadic CJD?

A

14-3-3

131
Q

Most cases of CJD affect which codon?

A

129 codon MM

132
Q

Which CJD has an earlier age of onset?

A

Variant

133
Q

First symptom of variant cJD?

A

Dementia

134
Q

First symptoms of sporadic cJD?

A

Rapid, progressive dementia with myoclonus

135
Q

What is the fontana stain for?

A

melanin

136
Q

Cytokeratin is a marker of what?

A

Epithelial cells

137
Q

Unstable occlusion is what level of sclerosis?

A

> 90%

138
Q

Arrythmia after MI?

A

Ventricular fibrillation - occurs in the first 24 hours

139
Q

Common causes of heart failure?

A

Ischaemic heart disease, myocarditis, hypertension, cardiomyopathy

140
Q

Mutation in Kostmann syndrome?

A

Mutation in HAX1 protein

141
Q

Treatment of Kostmann syndrome?

A

G-CSF

142
Q

What has absent pus formation?

A

Leucocyte adhesion deficiency. High neutrophil count

143
Q

What is deficient in leukocyte adhesion deficiency?

A

Deficient CD11a/18

144
Q

What is the deficiency in chronic granulomatous disease?

A

Deficiency of NADPH oxidase complex

145
Q

Nitroblue tetrazolium test negative?

A

Yellow

146
Q

Cytokine deficiency

A

Mycobacterial infection
Salmonella infection

147
Q

Membrane attack complex deficiency - what organisms at risk of?

A

NHS
N. meningitidis
S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae

148
Q

Alternative complement deficiencies - at risk of what?

A

Infections with encapsulated bacteria

149
Q

Ix classical pathway activity?

A

CH50

150
Q

Ix alternative pathway activity?

A

AP50

151
Q

A 5 month old baby girl presents with recurrent fungal infections and diarrhoea, with failure to thrive. There is a family history of early infant death. Blood tests show:
Absent B cells
Absent T cells
Absent NK cells

What is the diagnosis?

A

ADA deficiency

152
Q

Reticular dysgenesis mutation?

A

Mutation of adenylate kinase 2 (AK2)

153
Q

Mutation in X-linked SCID?

A

γ-chain of IL-2 receptor

154
Q

ADA deficiency

A

Adenosine deaminase deficiency
Required for lymphocyte metabolism
Low B, T, and NK cells

155
Q

Treatment of Bruton’s X-linked a-gammaglobulinaemia?

A

IVIG

156
Q

Bruton’s X-linked a-gammaglobulinaemia

A

X-linked
Defective B cell tyrosine kinase gene
Pre B cells cannot develop into mature B cells
No circulating Ig after 3 months
Absent lymph nodes and tonsils

157
Q

What cells does SCID have?

A

B cells

158
Q

2 year old girl
Recent episode of severe staph aureus sepsis
Background: delayed separation of umbilical cord and severe skin infections
WCC normal, lymphocytes normal
Neutrophils high
Ig normal
NBT normal

Diagnosis?

A

Leucocyte adhesion deficiency

159
Q

HLA association Goodpasture’s

A

HLA -DR15

160
Q

HLA association SLE?

A

HLA-DR3

161
Q

HLA association Grave’s disease?

A

HLA-DR3

162
Q

What is libman-Sacks endocarditis associated with?

A

associated with SLE andanti-phospholipid syndrome

163
Q

Central tolerance breakdown: APECED

A

Mutation of transcription factor AIRE: responsible for expression of self antigens in thymus to enable –ve selection of autoreactive T cells

164
Q

ALPS

A

Mutation in Fas pathway
T cells NOT killed in thymus  enter periphery untolerised

Autoimmune
Lymphoproliferative
Syndrome

Large spleen and lymph nodes
Autoimmune cytopenia
Lymphoma

165
Q

IPEX signs?

A

Immune dysregulation
Polyendocinopathy
Enteropathy
X-linked syndrome
Diarrhoea, diabetes and dermatitis

166
Q

15 year old with recurrent candidiasis, nail pitting and hypoparathyroidism. Name the causative mutation.

A

Mutation in TF AIRE

167
Q

10 year old with abdominal fullness and splenomegaly. FBC reveals high lymphocytes. History of autoimmune thrombocytopenia. Diagnosis?

A

ALPS

168
Q

Gel and coombs classification of T1DM?

A

Type 4

169
Q

Patient develops skin rash, joint aches and fever after being given penicillin for a chest infection - gel coombs classification?

A

Type 3

170
Q

A 12 year old boy presents with haematuria and proteinuria. He has recently been discharged following severe meningococcal septicaemia. There is abnormal fat distribution.

C3 levels are low, and C4 levels are normal.

What is the underlying diagnosis?

A

Nephritic factor deficiency

171
Q

Examples of conjugate vaccines?

A

NHS

172
Q

Adjuvant

A

= a substance which enhances the body’s immune response to an antigen

173
Q

brown fluid aspirated from a lump, which then resolved spontaneously

A

Benign cyst

174
Q

Stellate mass with fibrosis

A

Radial scar – benign sclerosing lesion, glandular tissue

175
Q

Biopsy of a lump showing epithelial cells

A

Phyllodes (fibroepithelial and stromal) >50y

176
Q

-Man with AF who presented with loin pain and fevers

A

Renal infarct

177
Q

smoker with raised parathyroid-related polypeptide

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

178
Q

-Decreased Na+ in newborn

A

(CAH  17-OH progesterone)

179
Q

Swelling of lower limbs with cANCA positive

A

Wegener’s (against proteinase-3)

180
Q

-Oedema + have to look at picture provided which shows a red cell cast

A
181
Q

Guy with IHD placed on an ACE inhibitor and develops renal failure

A

Renal artery stenosis

182
Q

Guy post prostatectomy with normal urine osmolality and hyponatraemia

A

TURP syndrome

183
Q

Deficiency in beri beri syndrome?

A

B1

184
Q

Causes PML

A

JC virus

185
Q

Cellular mediated rejection

A

T cells

186
Q

Body cavity lymphoma

A

HHV8

187
Q

Blast cells are seen in AML?

A

Yes

188
Q

Normal skin pathogen with low pathogenicity

A

Staph epidermidis

189
Q

Pneumonia in smoker

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

190
Q

● Enzyme raised in rhabdomyolysis

A

Creatinine kinase

191
Q
  • Chronic liver failure sign?
A

Low albumin

192
Q

Enzyme in mumps

A

> Amylase

193
Q
  1. High TSH, low T3 and 4
A

myxoedema

194
Q
  1. Impaired glucose tolerance
A

7.8-11.0?

195
Q

Impaired fasting glucose?

A

6.1-6.9

196
Q
  1. High TSH, high T4, low t3
A

TSH producing pituitary adenoma

197
Q

– hashimoto’s

A

(anti-Thyroid peroxidase), anti-thyroblobulin

198
Q
  1. Rate limiting haem synthesis
A

ALA synthase

199
Q

MI markers

A

Troponin, CK(MB), LDH, AST

200
Q

Types of renal stone

A

● Renal stones: Calcium oxalate (radiopaque, struvit) mg ammonium phosphate (Proteus, Staghorn), Uric acid (radiolucent)

201
Q

● Patient with IgM paraprotein

A

Waldenstrom’s Macroglobulinaemia

202
Q
  1. Greek, anaemic, frontal bossing, HSM, hair on end appearance
A

Thalassaemia

203
Q

Woman who received a transfusion before her hysterectomy who presented with bleeding gums and rash on her shins on discharge

A

Post transfusion purpura

204
Q

c) Transfusion in past, allergy plasma proteins

A

Washed red cells

205
Q
  1. Acute SOB, dry cough, and Hypoxia >
A

Transfusion associated lung injury

206
Q

Coeliac disease cancer?

A

EATL

207
Q

● Fibroepithelial tumour with abundant stromal elements

A

Phyllodes tumour

208
Q

Patient with a cancer in their bladder following chronic schistosomiasis

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

209
Q

loss of E-cadherin in breast cancer?

A

Lobular carcinoma in situ

210
Q
  1. PTH secreting lung tumour?
A

Squamous cell carcinoma

211
Q

GORD cell changes

A

Metaplasia squamous to columnar

212
Q
  1. Polyps not associated with cancer risk
A

Hamartomatous

213
Q
  1. Raised amylase and abdo pain
A

Acute pancreatitis

214
Q

Patient with a mass following acute pancreatitis

A

Pseudocyst

215
Q
  1. Mass under dura mater compressing parietal lobe
A

Meningioma

216
Q
  1. Tumour which secretes oestrogen
A

Theca or Granulosa tumour

217
Q
  1. Most common malighant gynae cancer
A

Endometrial carcinoma

218
Q

Man has an MI 3 years ago. Now he comes into hospital and very unwell. Blood is aspirated from the pericardium

A

Myocardial rupture

219
Q

Cell of the immune system that makes pus when it dies

A

Neutrophils

220
Q

● Cell whose activity is inhibited by MHC Class 1

A

NK cells

221
Q

● When they eat cherries, apples, pears and hazelnuts, they get itchy mouths but are fine when they eat apple pie

A

Oral allergy syndrome

222
Q

lammatory syndrome which is 90% inheritable and associated with sacroilitis

A

Ankylosing spondylitis???

223
Q

Used to treat osteoporosis, when the patient cannot tolerate bisphosphonates

A

Denosumab, RANKL inhibitor

224
Q

Causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

A

John Cunningham Virus

225
Q
  1. Chemokine promoting eosinophil growth
A

IL-5

226
Q
  1. Recurrent meningitis
A

C7 deficiency

227
Q

Monocytes resident in peripheral skin cells

A

Langerhans?

228
Q

Mentioned FAS pathway

A
  • ALPS (Auto-immune Lymphoproliferative Syndrome)
229
Q
  1. TPMT levels should be checked before giving what?
A

Azathioprine

230
Q
  1. In RA high anti CCP levels due to what?
A

PADI enzymes

231
Q
  1. TH1 cells
A

subset of cells that express CD4 and secrete IFN gamma and IL2

232
Q
  1. CTLA4 receptor for CD80/CD86 on t cells
A

asx with autoimmune conditions like diabetes and thyroid disease

233
Q
  1. Anti Jo association?
A

dermatomyositis and polymyositis

234
Q
  1. ANti scl-70
A

diffuse systemic sclerosis

235
Q

hep C treatment?

A

IFN alpha

236
Q

x linker hyper IgM syndrome tx?

A
  1. Human normal immunoglobulin
237
Q
  1. Basiliximab (anti il2 receptor)
A

antibody specific for CD25 which inhibits T cell activation and is used to prevent rejection

238
Q

IMMUNE modulation SEs

A

a. Cyclophosphamide - infertility
b. Prednisolne - osteoporosis
c. Azathioprine neutropenia particulary if TPMT is low
d. Cyclosporin - hypertension
e. Mycophenoloate mofetil - progressive multifocal leakuencephalopathy

239
Q

Man goes to wedding in Devon, comes back with pneumonia + confusion

A

Legionella

240
Q
  1. Urethritis, arthritis, eye problems
A

Reiter’s syndrome (can’t see, pee climb a tree)

241
Q
  1. MSM, severe flatulence, steatorrhoea, Cysts
A

Giardia lamblia

242
Q
  1. Haemorrhagic cystitis in kids
A

Adenovirus?

243
Q
  1. Molluscum contagiosum cause?
A

Pox virus

244
Q

ring enhancing lesion

A

● HIV Tuberculoma

245
Q

mass under dura mater compressing frontal lobe (usually)

A

Meningioma

246
Q

Interferon beta treats what?

A

Behcet’s
Relapsing Multiple Sclerosis

247
Q

Pembrolizumab (PD1)

A

Metastatic Melanoma

248
Q

Ipilimumab (CTLA4)

A

advanced melanoma

249
Q

Nivolumab (PD1)

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

250
Q

Atezolizumab (PDL1)

A

Metastatic Bladder Cancer

251
Q

A 35-year-old man develops diarrhoea with fever and malaise 24 hours after eating a take-away meal. Stool cultures reveal the source of the infection is Salmonella spp. Which antibody is responsible for protecting against gastrointestinal infections?

A

IgA

252
Q

Conjugate vaccine?

A

Pneumococcus

253
Q

Which of the following is not safe in patients with HIV?

A

Yellow fever

254
Q

Mycophenolate

A

Infection, particular risk of HSV reactivation and
progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) (reactivated JC virus)

Progressive neural demyelination condition

255
Q

Replace what with methotrexate?

A

Folate

256
Q

mTor inhibitor MOA?

A

Inhibits IL2 signaling pathways

257
Q

TTP

A

ADAMST13 enzyme
pentad of symptoms including confusino

258
Q

How do you manage TTP?

A

Plasma exchange

259
Q

Serum methylmalonic acid

A

Elevated in vitamin B12 deficiency

V Flashcards (17 decks)

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