Med GEMS Questions Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

A 21 year old woman with transfusion dependent beta thalassaemia normally has a transfusion every two weeks.

She has recently moved into your care and no previous blood results are available.

Pre-Transfusion bloods show a Hb of 76 (low) and a WCC of 23 (Normal Range: <11)

She is clinically well, apyrexial. She denies losing weight or night sweats. Her appetite is good.

What blood test should be ordered to further investigate the raised white cell count given her history?

A

Reticulocyte count

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2
Q

A 62 year old man develops palpitations while undergoing chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukaemia.

ECG shows p wave flattening, hyperacute T waves and a broadened QRS compared to an ECG 5 days prior.

What electrolyte abnormality is responsible for the ECG changes?

A

Hyperkalaemia

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3
Q

What chromosomal translocation is associated with Mantle Cell Lymphoma?

A

t(11:14)

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4
Q

Chromosomal translocation with follicular lymphoma?

A

t(14:18) [Bcl-2]

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5
Q

Chromosomal translocation with Burkitt lymphoma?

A

t(8:14) [c-myc]

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6
Q

Translocation associated with Acute Promyelocytic leukaemia?

A

t(15:17)

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7
Q

A histopathological biopsy of a lymph node is reported as follows:

“Significant infiltrates of homogenous lymphocytes. Macrophages are interspersed between sheets of lymphocytes and clearly contain apoptotic lymphocytes”

What lymphoma is associated with this histopathological description?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

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8
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of hereditary elliptocytosis?

A

Autosomal dominant

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9
Q

What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in the developing world?

A

Hookworm

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10
Q

What blood test is a measure of fibrin degredation products and may reflect activity of the body’s anticoagulant system?

A

D-dimer

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11
Q

A patient is investigated for tiredness.

Blood tests show a low haemoglobin.

A peripheral blood smear shows microcytosis, hypochromia and the presence of cigar cells.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia

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12
Q

What is the term given to a group of genetic condition which affect the synthesis of the haem molecule, which is vital for the function of haemoglobin, peroxidase and P450 enzymes?

A

Poryphyria

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13
Q

What blood film finding may be found in multiple myeloma and is reflective of a paraproteinaemia?

A

Rouleaux formation

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14
Q

A 63 year old man is admitted to hospital with severe pain in his right flank which comes and goes in waves. He cannot remain still while the pain is at its worst.

He has had similar episodes in the past which resolved without him seeing a doctor. He has no other past medical history of note.

Blood tests reveal an elevated calcium (3.1, NR 2.2-2.6); a normocytic anaemia (Hb 90, NR >120); and an elevated urea and creatinine.

After further questioning, he reports pain in his back and his legs which has progressively been worsening.

What is the likely underlying diagnosis?

A

Multiple myeloma

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15
Q

A 55 year old smoker presents to ED with unilateral left arm swelling which developed over a few days.

A D dimer is elevated. Platelets are elevated. An ultrasound doppler of the left arm does not reveal the presence of a blood clot. Other blood tests are unremarkable.

What is the next most appropriate investigation?

A

Chest x-ray

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16
Q

What is the reversal agent for rivaroxaban?

A

Andexanet alfa

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17
Q

What is the characteristic lymph node biopsy finding associated with Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Reed-sternberg cells

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18
Q

Multiple myeloma is a lymphoproliferative malignancy of what type of immune cell?

A

Plasma cells

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19
Q

What protein is classically mutated in hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Spectrin

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20
Q

Secretion of what hormone is responsible for the development of polycythaemia in COPD?

A

Erythropoietin

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21
Q

A medical student is unsure about what cell she is looking at under the microscope. She is looking a peripheral blood film.

She describes a cell that looks plentiful on the film and has a multisegmented nucleus. It is approximately twice the size of the red cells she can see on the film.

What cell is she describing?

A

Neutrophils

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22
Q

What condition is associated with infiltration of large numbers of megakaryocytes into bone marrow, an elevated platelet count and is associated with increased stroke risk?

A

Essential thrombocytosis

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23
Q

What is the most common immunoglobulin produced by plasma cells in multiple myeloma?

A

IgG

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24
Q

A 3 year old boy is seen by his GP after his mother noted that his right knee had swollen during the night and become painful to the touch. This has happened multiple times before in the other knee and it has resolved spontaneously. The child appears well and has no fever. He is able to weight bear. He does not appear distressed by it. His brother has had similar symptoms.

His past medical history includes recurrent epistaxis and his mother says he bruises easily.

The GP suspects this may be a clotting disorder and orders a panel of bloods, including inflammatory markers and a clotting screen.

Given the most likely diagnosis, what blood test would you expect to be elevated?

A

APTT

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25
Q

A 80 year old man is seen by their GP.

His wife is concerned that his gums have grown. He says when he brushes his teeth, they tend to bleed.

He has had weight loss (10% in the last 6 months) and now bruises easily.

A full blood count shows a low haemoglobin and low platelets. There is an elevated white cell count, with a large number of neutrophils.

A blood film shows the presence of myeloid blast cells.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia

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26
Q

How can M3 subtype (acute promyelocytic leukaemia) of AML be treated?

A

all-trans retinoic acid.

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27
Q

What blood test is used clinically to measure the activity of the extrinsic and common clotting pathways?

A

Prothrombin time

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28
Q

What inherited condition, after cystic fibrosis, is the most common cause of pancreatic exocrine dysfunction in children?

A

Shwachman Diamond syndrome

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29
Q

What is Diamond–Blackfan syndrome?

A

typically affects red blood cells only - presents with anaemia

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30
Q

What is the classical inheritance pattern of G6PD deficiency?

A

X-linked recessive

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31
Q

What first line small molecule inhibitor is used in the treatment of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?

A

Ibrutinib

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32
Q

What is Richter’s transformation?

A

Where a low-grade CLL converts to a high grade, aggressive Diffuse Large B Cell Lymphoma.

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33
Q

How does Venetoclax work?

A

BCL2 inhibitor

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34
Q

A 28 year old woman is 39 weeks pregnant. Her labour is induced.

During the delivery she becomes unwell with rigors, sweating and vomiting.

Her observations are recorded as: pulse rate 147bpm, blood pressure 92/62mmHg.

Bloods reveal an INR of 2.4 (1), APPT 47 seconds (22-42), fibrinogen 0.8 (1.5-4.0g/L), D Dimer 3350 (<250)

What condition has been precipitated by her induction of labour?

A

DIC

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35
Q

What description is given to red blood cells which are typically polychromatic and stain heavily for the presence of RNA?

A

Reticulocyte

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36
Q

What drug inhibits the fusion protein BCR-ABL and is used in the treatment of Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia?

A

Imatinib

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37
Q

What abnormality is commonly seen on a full blood count of patients with fanconi anaemia?

A

Pancytopenia (most common cause of bone marrow failure)

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38
Q

Which haemoglobin chain is mutated in sickle cell disease?

A

Beta globin

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39
Q

What prothrombotic condition is associated with thrombocytopenia and immune complex formation?

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia

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40
Q

A 61 year old man undergoes the NHS Health check and has a blood test.

His cholesterol is high and his WCC is 24 (NR: 4-11) with a neutrophil level of 17 (NR: 1.5-8).

On examination, there is fullness in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen but no lymphadenopathy. He denies any recent travel.

He denies any fever, night sweats or weight loss. He does not feel unwell.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

CML

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41
Q

What is the term given to the blood film finding of erythrocytes stacked on top of each other?

A

Rouleaux formation

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42
Q

A 78 year old woman is suspected to have immune thrombocytopenic purpura.

Her platelet count is 115 (NR >150). She reports no bruising, bleeding or rashes.

What is the most appropriate treatment?

A

No treatment

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43
Q

A 55 year old smoker presents to ED with unilateral left arm swelling which developed over a few days.

A D dimer is elevated. Platelets are elevated. Other bloods are unremarkable.

A Chest X ray is normal, although shows hyperexpanded lung fields.

What is the most appropriate next investigation?

A

USS doppler L arm

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44
Q

What is the classical finding on a full blood count for a patient suspected of dyskeratosis congenita?

A

Pancytopenia

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45
Q

Findings o FBC in dyskeratosis congenita?

A

Neutropenia (due to telomere shortening)

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46
Q

What is the most common reaction to transfusion of packed red blood cells?

A

Fever

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47
Q

A 70 year old man presents with painless cervical lymphadenopathy.

Other than an elevated lymphocyte count, his full blood count is normal.

Immunophenotyping of lymphocytes taken from that blood sample reveal the cells are positive for CD19 and CD5.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

CLL

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48
Q

What can be used to treat CLL?

A

Ibrutinib

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49
Q

A 70 year old man is seen in clinic. He describes a history of progressive enlargement of a “lump” in his groin.

USS reveals it to be a lymph node and a biopsy is taken.

What is the likely histopathological type of lymphoma that will be seen on biopsy?

A

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

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50
Q

Most common lymphoma in <15 year olds?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

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51
Q

In which organ is ferritin typically found in the body?

A

Liver

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52
Q

What are inclusions of denatured haemoglobin within erythrocytes commonly called when seen in a peripheral blood film?

A

Heinz bodies

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53
Q

A 18 year old Greek man has just returned from a holiday to Malawi and arranges a GP appointment.

He said during the holiday he turned yellow, his urine turned brown and he felt more tired than normal.

He has no relevant past medical history, is up to date on her vaccinations and took antimalarial prophylaxis as directed.

The doctor suspects an intravascular haemolysis. Blood tests reveal a normocytic anaemia with unconjugated bilirubinemia. Levels of G6PD were normal. DAT negative.

What is the most likely reason for the intravascular haemolysis?

A

G6PD deficiency

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54
Q

A patient has a normocytic anaemia, an elevated unconjugated bilirubin, elevated LDH and low haptoglobin.

A peripheral blood film reveals spherocytes. Direct Coomb’s test is negative.

What investigation will confirm the diagnosis?

A

Eosin-5-malemide test (to confirm hereditary spherocytosis)

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55
Q

What clotting factor has the shortest half life?

A

Factor 7

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56
Q

What abnormality on a full blood count would be expected in Shwachman–Bodian–Diamond syndrome?

A

Neutropenia

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57
Q

A patient with metastatic ovarian cancer is investigated for unilateral lower limb swelling and is confirmed to have a DVT.

What is the most appropriate form of anticoagulation?

A

DOAC

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58
Q

What infectious agent is associated with malignancy of germinal centre B lymphocytes?

A

Epstein barr virus

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59
Q

A doctor suspects that their patient may be anaemic.

The doctor orders a panel of blood tests and a urine dip.

The urine dip was positive for blood.

A FBC reveals a normocytic anaemia.

The results of Iron Studies are below.

Serum iron Normal
Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC) Normal
C Reactive Protein 3 (NR 2-8)
Ferritin Normal
Bilirubin Elevated

What type of anaemia does this patient have?

A

Haemolytic anaemia

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60
Q

Which chemical ion is required to convert Factor IX to Factor X in the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and Factor VII to Factor X in the extrinsic pathway of the clotting disorder?

A

Calcium

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61
Q

A 48 year old female with bilateral hot, swollen and painful wrists presents to her GP.

She says she has been feeling under the weather for about a year, however in the last week her joints have become exquisitely painful. She’s also felt very tired and thinks she’s been losing weight.

A full blood count reveals a normocytic anaemia, however there is a decreased total iron binding capacity (TIBC) and elevated serum ferritin.

What type of anaemia does this patient have?

A

Anaemia of chronic disease

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62
Q

Haematology (Bone Marrow Failures)
A 14 year old boy is seen by a haematologist.

He has been referred due to concerns from his GP about a clotting disorder, as he has had recent unexplained petechiae, nosebleeds, tiredness and fatigue.

Bloods from the GP showed a pancytopenia.

The haematologist performs a full physical examination and notes the presence of longitudinal ridging in the nails and areas of whitish grey discolouration in the mouth. There are fine, end inspiratory crackles at both lung bases.

The haematologist suspects a primary bone marrow disorder.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Dyskeratosis congenita

Dyskeratosis congenita is an inherited bone marrow failure which typically presents around age 15. The classical triad is of nail dystrophy (nail loss, longitudinal ridging), oral leukoplakia (white patches in the mouth) and skin pigmentation (lace like hyperpigmentation of skin creases), although this is thought to occur less commonly than previously described.

A newer definition involves at least one of the features of the classical triad, with associated bone marrow failure (aplastic anaemia) and two other internal signs (like pulmonary fibrosis).

The condition is caused by mutations in genes which protect telomeres. Telomeres protect the ends of chromosomes from damage and are associated with aging. Essentially, this condition reflects abnormal, advanced, cellular aging.

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63
Q

A 6 year old boy is seen by his GP.

His dentist said that he should have his blood tested after a recent tooth extraction took a long time to clot.

Blood tests show a normal INR, prolonged APTT, normal PT, normal level of platelets, normal levels of Von Willebrand factor, normal factor IX but low Factor VIII. Bleeding time is normal.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Haemophilia A

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64
Q

What scoring system can be used to calculate the probability of developing heparin induced thrombocytopenia?

A

4T score

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65
Q

A 1 year old has been experiencing excessive sleepiness over the last month. She now sleeps for 18 hours a day and before that her parents noticed her becoming slower and more withdrawn.

Her parents are concerned and bring her to see her GP.

On examination, there are bruises on her wrist, arms and stomach. There is palpable splenomegaly.

The GP makes an urgent safeguarding referral.

Blood tests show a low haemoglobin and low platelets. There is an elevated white cell count, reported as neutrophils. A manual differentiation reveals the presence of an abundance of myeloid precursor cells.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia

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66
Q

A bone marrow biopsy for a patient suspected of having multiple myeloma shows 15% clonal plasma cells in the bone marrow. She does not have any symptoms of end organ damage.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Smouldering myeloma

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67
Q

Plasma cells in MGUS?

A

MGUS has <10% plasma cells in the bone marrow on biopsy

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68
Q

After myelodysplastic syndrome, which haematological malignancy does Fanconi anaemia carry an approximate 10% lifetime risk of developing?

A

AML

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69
Q

Signs of Fanconi anaemia?

A

The most common type of inherited primary bone marrow failure. It presents between the ages of 5-9 with skeletal abnormalities (abnormal thumbs), short stature, cafe au lait spots and pancytopenia.

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70
Q

A 75 year old woman is seen in A&E with severe, right sided pain. She points to her right PSIS and says the pain is worse there. Palpation does not make the pain worse. Nothing makes the pain better. It is throbbing in nature. She denies trauma and this has worsened over the last two months.

In this time, she has lost 5% of her body weight. She is anaemic and has an elevated serum corrected calcium.

Serum protein electrophoresis shows the presence of a large, monoclonal band. Urinary bence jones proteins were negative.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Multiple myeloma

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71
Q

What is the most common adulthood leukaemia?

A

CLL

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72
Q

Most common childhood leukaemia?

A

ALL

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73
Q

A long term alcoholic presents to their GP for a review.

The doctor orders a panel of blood tests.

A FBC reveals a normocytic anaemia.

The results of Iron Studies are below.

Serum iron Elevated
Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC) Normal
Ferritin Elevated
C Reactive Protein 3 (NR 2-8)

A blood film is ordered and reveals the presence of immature red blood cells with inclusions of iron deposits in a ring formation.

What type of anaemia does this patient have?

A

Sideroblastic anaemia

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74
Q

What is the most sensitive biomarker for iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Serum ferritin

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75
Q

What blood test is used clinically to measure the activity of the instrincit and common clotting pathways?

A

APTT

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76
Q

A 82 year old man is seen in A+E following 2 weeks of being nonspecifically unwell.

Blood tests reveal a profound anaemia (Hb 45 NR >125) and thrombocytopenia (Plts 42 NR >150). Neutrophils are elevated at 4x the upper limit of normal. C reactive protein is normal.

Blood cultures are negative. A CXR reveals no consolidation or hilar enlargement. A urine sample reveals protein +1.

These haematological abnormalities were not present on a blood test 2 weeks prior.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

AML

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77
Q

What is the term given to describe spherical erythrocytes which may be congenital or due to autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

Spherocyte

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78
Q

What clotting factor do the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways converge onto?

A

Factor 10

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79
Q

A 74 year old woman is seen following blood tests done for monitoring of pernicious anaemia.

Her blood tests show a Hb 132 (normal), MCV 92 (normal), Plts 89 (low), WCC 8 (normal). B12 and folate were normal. LFTs were normal.

She is tested for HIV (-ve) and Hepatitis B (HbSAg -ve).

Her GP sends a blood film and a repeat full blood count, which was normal other than thrombocytopenia.

What is the likely cause of her thrombocytopenia?

A

Immune thrombocytopenia purpura

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80
Q

What is the typical finding on a full blood count for patients with Diamond Blackfan anaemia?

A

Anaemia

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81
Q

What is the reversal agent for dabigatran?

A

Idarucizumab

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82
Q

The M3 subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukaemia can be treated effectively with which first line drug?

A

All Trans Retinoic Acid

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83
Q

The myeloproliferative syndromes, which include essential thrombocytosis, all carry a risk of transformation to what life threatening malignancy?

A

AML

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84
Q

A 71 year old woman is seen by her GP due to progressive tiredness. She also thinks she has been losing weight.

On examination, there was cervical lymphadenopathy.

A full blood count showed a low haemoglobin and an elevated white cell count, predominantly lymphocytes.

A blood film was performed and did not show any immature cells.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

CLL

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85
Q

A 70 year old man is admitted to the general medical ward following a paracetamol overdose. He completes treatment for his overdose without complication and is discharged. He is normally fit and well. He received standard venous thromboprophylaxis during his stay with enoxaparin.

Blood tests 10 days later at his GP show a severe thrombocytopenia, with normal liver function tests.

Other cell lineages are normal. He denies any symptoms of bleeding. He feels well.

What is the most likely explanation for his thrombocytopenia?

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia

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86
Q

An 18 year old presents to their GP with a neck lump.

It is approximately 3.5cm, mobile and untethered in the posterior triangle of the neck.

On further questioning, he reports weight loss and drenching night sweats.

A blood film showed the presence of multinucleated and reactive lymphocytes.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

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87
Q

Give an example of a chemotherapy drug which inhibits BCL2 and hence increases lymphocyte apoptosis in CLL.

A

Venetoclax

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88
Q

A 68 year old man feels unwell while undergoing his first cycle of chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukaemia.

He is known to have primary hyperparathyroidism and takes an inhaled corticosteroid for asthma.

A VBG performed by the oncall F1 shows a calcium of 1.6mmol/L.

Pre chemotherapy bloods 2 weeks prior show a calcium of 2.71mmol/L

What is the diagnosis?

A

Tumour lysis syndrome

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89
Q

Which cofactor is required for synthesis of the anticoagulant proteins C and S?

A

Vitamin K

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90
Q

A medical student is unsure about what cell she is looking at under the microscope. She is looking a peripheral blood film.

She describes a cell with a bilobed nucleus. The cytoplasm of the cell has stained some areas with a reddish-purple colour. She says there aren’t many of these in the blood film.

What cell is she describing?

A

Eosinophil

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91
Q

A medical student is unsure about what cell she is looking at under the microscope. She is looking a peripheral blood film.

She describes an odd looking cell that she hasn’t seen before in this patient. It has lots of dark blue speckles in the cytoplasm of the cell. It is much larger than the red blood cells.

What cell is she describing?

A

Basophil

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92
Q

What chromosomal translocation is associated with Follicular Lymphoma?

A

t(14:18)

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93
Q

A 1 month old child is investigated for the cause of a macrocytic anaemia, identified during routine workup for surgery for treatment of her cleft palate. She is noted to be quite underweight. Her brother has suffered from similar issues.

Vitamin B12 and folate levels were normal. Haemoglobin electrophoresis showed elevated fetal haemoglobin, but no other abnormalities. Her reticulocyte count was low.

What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

A

Diamond blackfan syndrome

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94
Q

A medical student is unsure about what cell she is looking at under the microscope. She is looking a peripheral blood film.

She describes a cell that is nearly completely dark purple, except for a thin rim of slightly blue stained cytoplasm. It’s roughly the same size as red blood cells.

What cell is she describing?

A

Lymphocyte

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95
Q

A 56 year old man is reviewed by his GP after his blood tests suggested a new microcytic anaemia.

His ferritin and serum iron is low. His full blood count, CRP, renal function, LFTs, B12 and folate are otherwise normal.

A blood film reveals the presence of hypochromic erythrocytes with pencil cells.

What is the next most appropriate blood test to request, prior to an OGD and colonoscopy?

A

Anti Tissue Transglutaminase Antibodies

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96
Q

What clotting disorder is associated with a reduced platelet count, elevated PT, elevated APTT and an elevated bleeding time?

A

DIC

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97
Q

A 78 year old woman is admitted to hospital following blood tests which showed profound anaemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia.

Her abdominal exam reveals hepatosplenomegaly. A blood film shows dacrocytes and the presence of immature haematological cells.

What investigation would confirm the diagnosis?

A

Bone marrow biopsy

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98
Q

What chromosomal translocation is associated with a poor prognosis in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia?

A

t(9:22)

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99
Q

What enzyme is inhibited by warfarin and leads to a reduction in clotting factors II, VII, IX and X?

A

Vitamin K epoxide reductase

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100
Q

What chromosomal translocation is associated with Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia?

A

t(9;22)

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101
Q

What molecule, secreted by the liver, inhibits iron absorption from the gut by inhibiting ferroportin?

A

Hepcidin

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102
Q

What intracellular inclusion may be found in the neutrophils of a patient with acute myeloid leukaemia?

A

Auer rods

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103
Q

Which haematological malignancy is most commonly associated with formation of the Philadelphia Chromosome (9;22 translocation)?

A

CML

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104
Q

What amino acid is glutamate substituted for in sickle cell disease?

A

Valine

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105
Q

Indications for dialysis:

A
  • Pulmonary oedema
  • Refractory hyperkalaemia
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Uraemic encephalopathy
  • Also some drug toxicity (e.g. lithium)
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106
Q
  1. What does the number of True positives divided by the total number who have the disease describe?
A

Sensitivity

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107
Q
  1. Which of these ions (K, CL, Na, Mg) is most likely to be outside its normal range in an alkalotic picture (& if person is urinating a lot????)?
A

Potassium

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108
Q
  1. A Girl develops a throat infection. She is given amoxicillin, and a rash develops. It is later found out that she has infectious mononucleosis, and her symptoms persist
    a. Drug reaction
    b. Penicillin allergy
    c. Mastocytosis
A

Drug reaction

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109
Q
  1. Cushing disease person – Which is the best investigation to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
    a. High dose dexamethasone suppression test
    b. Low dose dexamethasone suppression test
    c. Long synacthen test
    d. Short synacthen test
A

High or low??

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110
Q
  1. pH 7.1, pCO2 low (2.2 or 3 or something)
    a. metabolic acidosis
    b. metabolic alkalosis
    c. respiratory acidosis
    d. respiratory alkalosis
A

Metabolic acidosis

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111
Q
  1. A man has gout and is kept up at night by it. His symptoms are relieved by ibuprofen, but when he stops taking it, the symptoms come back. His neighbour is on allopurinol, and he would like to be on it too. Which of these medications would need to be altered for them to be able to be prescribed allopurinol?
A

Azathioprine

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112
Q
  1. Which of these is a common finding in someone who has portal hypertension?
    a. Splenomegaly
    b. Hepatomegaly
    c. Spider Naevi in distribution of Superior vena cava (SVC)
    d. Hand flapping
    e. Jaundice
A

Splenomegaly

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113
Q
  1. Person is discharged after surgery, who had a bilateral hemianopia, with removal of pituitary adenoma. Consultant says it is alright to discharge them. What do you prescribe the patient on discharge?
    a. DDAVP
    b. Fludrocortisone
    c. Testosterone
A

DDAVP

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114
Q

CAH: what metabolic disturbance?

A

Hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, hypovolaemia

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115
Q

Woman presents worried because she has low glucose when she tests using daughter’s meter (her daughter has T1DM) but denies taking any drugs. Low glucose, high insulin, low C peptide, she has a high BMI

A

Factitious/ surreptitious insulin (i.e. taking too much external insulin)

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116
Q

Red cell lysis, what ion is raised?

A

Potassium

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117
Q

Which molecule takes cholesterol and moves it to liver and steroidogenesis organs?

A

Cholesterol ester transferase? HDL?

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118
Q

Which disease do you see in both MEN1 and MEN2a?

A

Primary hyperaparathyroidism

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119
Q

High PTH and low Ca, what can this be?

A

Osteomalacia

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120
Q

What would be high in the most common cause of CAH?

A

ACTH

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121
Q

Publican with diabetes, fatty stools, weight loss, ‘slate grey skin’ and joint pains. What is the underlying diagnosis causing this?

A

Haemachromatosis

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122
Q

What enzyme to confirm cardiac failure?

A

BNP (brain narituretic peptide)

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123
Q

Deficiency of which enzyme leads to hyperuricemia?

A

HGPRT (Nesch Hyan syndrome)

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124
Q

Which/What enzyme is raised in mumps?

A

Amylase-5

125
Q

In Rhabdomyolysis, which biomarker is likely to be raised?

A

Creatinine kinase

126
Q

What is a sign that your patient has been taking cocaine?

A

AST

127
Q

Low plasma sodium, low urine sodium

A

Psychogenic polydipsia

128
Q

Hyperaldosterone picture with raised Na, low K, HTN but raised renin

A

Renal artery stenosis

129
Q

Most common brain tumour in children?

A

Pilocytic astrocytoma (grade 1)

130
Q

What does brain tumour grade tell us?

A

Survival

131
Q

Most common brain tumour in adults?

A

Metastatic deposits

132
Q

Which mutation identifies astrocytic tumours with a better prognosis?

A

IDH mutation

133
Q

What causes a buruli ulcer?

A

Mycobacterium ulcerans

134
Q

Natural reservoir for influenza A virus?

A

Ducks

135
Q

A man has gout and is kept up at night by it. His symptoms are relieved by ibuprofen, but when he stops taking it, the symptoms come back. His neighbour is on allopurinol, and he would like to be on it too. Which of these medications would need to be altered for them to be able to be prescribed allopurinol?

A

Azothioprine

136
Q

A Girl develops a throat infection. She is given amoxicillin, and a rash develops. It is later found out that she has infectious mononucleosis, and her symptoms persist

A

Drug reaction

137
Q

What does the number of True positives divided by the total number who have the disease describe?

A

Sensitivity

138
Q

Person is discharged after surgery, who had a bilateral hemianopia, with removal of pituitary adenoma. Consultant says it is alright to discharge them. What do you prescribe the patient

A

DDAVP

139
Q

What can cause pleural effusion?

A

heart failure

140
Q

Low plasma sodium (124) and urine specific gravity of 1.000 cause?

A

Psychogenic polydipsia

141
Q

What would be high in the most common cause of CAH?

A

ACTH

142
Q

A patient is found to have a high Na+, low K+, and low renin. What is the likely cause?

A

Conn’s syndrome

143
Q

What happens to the heart in chronic hypertension?

A

Left ventricular hypertrophy

144
Q

What can cause ascites?

A

Liver failure

145
Q

A man develops signs of hyperthyroidism. Bloods show low TSH and high thyroxine. A technetium scan shows no uptake. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

De Quervain’s thyroiditis

146
Q

What does Denosumab target?

A

RANK ligand (on osteoclasts)

147
Q

What is associated with mesothelioma?

A

Asbestos

148
Q

Old man who fell over, been on floor for days. Severely dehydrated. Dark urine. Not blood on microscopy. What causes the dark urine? And what enzyme would be raised?

A

Myoglobin, creatinine kinase

149
Q

What liver enzyme is raised in MI?

A

Aspartate aminotransferase

150
Q

What enzyme to confirm cardiac failure?

A

Brain nariuretic peptide

151
Q

5yr old, tetany, bone pain. Widened epiphyses + ‘Cupping’ of metaphysis shown on x-ray. What is the cause?

A

Rickets

152
Q

Publican with diabetes, fatty stools, weight loss, ‘slate grey skin’ and joint pains. What is the underlying diagnosis causing this?

A

Haemachromatosis

153
Q

Swollen joint, needle-shaped aspirate with negative birefringence, which enzyme manufactures the material that makes up the crystals?

A

Xanthine oxidase

154
Q

T1DM with hypoglycaemia, what is the management option if no IV access?

A

IM glucagon

155
Q

Which cancer typically causes an increase in calcitonin?

A

Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid

156
Q

Patient with High PTH vitamin deficiency?

A

Calcium

157
Q

Patient with Pellagra vitamin deficiency?

A

Niacin (B3 deficiency)

158
Q

Baby with seizures: low Ca, low PT

A

Hypopoarathyroidism

159
Q

10 year old with seizures: low Ca, high PO4, high PTH

A

Renal osteodystrophy

160
Q

In Rhabdomyolysis, which biomarker is likely to be raised?

A

Creatinine kinase

161
Q

Deficiency of which enzyme leads to hyperuricemia?

A

HGPRT

162
Q

Which enzyme regulates the rate limiting step in the haem biosynthesis pathway?

A

ALA synthase

163
Q

Which/What enzyme is raised in mumps?

A

Amylase-S

164
Q

Woman with colicky abdominal pain, markedly raised ALP, other LFTs also deranged?

A

Acute cholestasis

165
Q

Mechanism of death due to raised ICP?

A

Coning

166
Q

22 year old student with two weeks anorexia, fever and malaise – ALT was most elevated, raised ALP + GGT?

A

Viral hepatitis

167
Q

A 57 year old man presents following hematemesis and is found to have high ALT + GGT, slightly raised ALP, and low Albumin

A

Cirrhosis

168
Q

Patient can’t fit in her shoes or put on her wedding ring and has prognathism, what test do you need to do to confirm?

A

serum IGF then oral glucose tolerance test

169
Q

BP 190/100, thin skin, overweight, high-normal sodium, low normal potassium, OGTT done (glucose high normal)

A

Low dose dexamethasone suppression test then inferior petrosal sinus sampling

170
Q

Pt with low Na, High K + postural hypotension

A

SynACTHten test

171
Q

Diabetic visiting his GP for a routine appointment

A

HbA1c

172
Q

Lichen sclerosis has what type of inflammatory pattern?

A

Lichenoid reaction

173
Q

Calcium high, PTH low?

A

Bone metastasis

174
Q

Calcium low, PTH low?

A

Hypoparathyroidism

175
Q

Temporal arteritis test which will help with diagnosis?

A

ESR

176
Q

Hyperaldosterone picture with raised Na, low K, HTN but raised renin

A

Renal artery stenosis

177
Q

Low plasma sodium, low urine sodium?

A

Psychogenic polydipsia

178
Q

Man who has been in a car accident, raised sodium and plasma osmolality, low urine osmolality?

A

Cranial DI

179
Q

Which is the most common cytogenic abnormality in myeloma?

A

Hyperdiploid karyotype

180
Q

ST elevation in leads V2,3,4 indicates coronary artery?

A

Left

180
Q

ST elevation in leads V2,3,4 indicates coronary artery?

A

Left

181
Q

First choice for imaging of kidney stone?

A

?

182
Q

Measures to define AKI?

A

Urine output and urea

183
Q

What would make you want to start antimicrobials immediately?

A

Low BP

184
Q

Biggest prognostic indicator for graft vs host disease?

A

Prior acute GvHD

185
Q

What prothrombotic condition is associated with thrombocytopenia and immune complex formation?

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia

186
Q

A 61 year old man undergoes the NHS Health check and has a blood test.

His cholesterol is high and his WCC is 24 (NR: 4-11) with a neutrophil level of 17 (NR: 1.5-8).

On examination, there is fullness in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen but no lymphadenopathy. He denies any recent travel.

He denies any fever, night sweats or weight loss. He does not feel unwell.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

CML

187
Q

What is the classical finding on a full blood count for a patient suspected of dyskeratosis congenita?

A

Pancytopenia

188
Q

A 70 year old man is seen in clinic. He describes a history of progressive enlargement of a “lump” in his groin.

USS reveals it to be a lymph node and a biopsy is taken.

What is the likely histopathological type of lymphoma that will be seen on biopsy?

A

Diffuse large B cell

189
Q

A bone marrow biopsy for a patient suspected of having multiple myeloma shows 15% clonal plasma cells in the bone marrow. She does not have any symptoms of end organ damage.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Smouldering myeloma

190
Q

MGUS has what percentage of plasma cells in the bone marrow on biopsy?

A

<10%

191
Q

After myelodysplastic syndrome, which haematological malignancy does Fanconi anaemia carry an approximate 10% lifetime risk of developing?

A

AML

192
Q

What is the most sensitive biomarker for iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Serum ferritin

193
Q

What clotting factor do the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting pathways converge onto?

A

Factor 10

194
Q

What is the typical finding on a full blood count for patients with Diamond Blackfan anaemia?

A

Anaemia

195
Q

What is the reversal agent for dabigatran?

A

Idarucizumab

196
Q

What drug should be given urgently to a patient on LMWH therapy who has significant, life threatening bleeding?

A

Protamine sulfate

197
Q

A 1 month old child is investigated for the cause of a macrocytic anaemia, identified during routine workup for surgery for treatment of her cleft palate. She is noted to be quite underweight. Her brother has suffered from similar issues.

Vitamin B12 and folate levels were normal. Haemoglobin electrophoresis showed elevated fetal haemoglobin, but no other abnormalities. Her reticulocyte count was low.

What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

A

Diamond-blackfan

198
Q

What enzyme is inhibited by warfarin and leads to a reduction in clotting factors II, VII, IX and X?

A

Vitamin K epoxide reductase

199
Q

A 74 year old man is seen in the haematological outpatients clinic following a routine GP blood test which showed a lymphocytosis.

His medication includes intramuscular hydroxocobalamin for pernicious anaemia.

The patient feels well.

Haemoglobin and platelets are normal. The patient has an elevated serum B12 at 3x the upper limit of normal. Lymphocytes >10x the upper limit of normal.

An abdominal examination is normal. Neurologically he has reduced fine touch sensation bilaterally to his ankles.

A blood film is pending.

What is the likely explanation for his abnormal blood tests?

A

CLL

200
Q

What oncogene is typically found in Burkitt’s lymphoma and is created by a translocation between chromosome 8 and 14?

A

C-myc

201
Q

What are inclusions of clusters of nuclear DNA within erythrocytes commonly called when seen in a peripheral blood film?

This finding is often associated with Sickle Cell Disease in adults.

A

Howell jolly bodies

202
Q

A 60 year old woman is seen in the emergency department. She is known to have Immune thrombocytopenic purpura and a previous cholecystectomy.

A contrast enhanced CT Abdomen Pelvis shows the presence of a small amount of free fluid in the abdomen and fat stranding around the ileocecal area in the right iliac fossa.

The surgeons wish to take her to theatre, however, her platelets are 14 (NR >150).

What is an appropriate treatment to raise her platelet count quickly preoperatively?

A

IVIG

203
Q

What dysfunctional gene is common to myelofibrosis, essential thrombocytosis and polycythaemia rubra vera?

A

JAK2

204
Q

A medical student is unsure about what cell she is looking at under the microscope. She is looking a peripheral blood film.

She says she has seen a number of these cells in this sample, but that they are not too common. This cell is very large and has a bilobed nucleus. She says at least 4 red blood cells could fit inside this cell.

What cell is she describing?

A

Monocyte

205
Q

What blood test should be monitored regularly on a patient treated with unfractionated heparin?

A

APTT

206
Q

A 60 year old man is diagnosed with Immune thrombocytopenic purpura.

He reports nosebleeds quite frequently, usually every 2-3 days.

His platelet count is 34.

What is an appropriate treatment to improve his platelet count?

A

Prednisolone

207
Q

What coagulation factor decreases after starting warfarin therapy and causes an initial prothrombotic state?

A

Protein C and Protein S

208
Q

How is the influeza virus comprised?

A

A purified fraction containing HA and NA of an inactivated virus

209
Q

Tau staining in the peristriate but not the striate cortex is consistent with which brakk grading?

A

Five

210
Q

Which herniation does not involve the cortex?

A

Tonsillar

211
Q

Frontal lesion tumour?

A

Glioblastoma multiforme (Grade 4)

212
Q

What is raised in true secondary polycythaemia?

A

EPO

213
Q

Name a narrow spectrum agent?

A

Amoxicillin

214
Q

Risk of thrombosis is increased by?

A

Reduced protein S

215
Q

IPEX syndrome is what?

A

Monogenic autoimmune disease

216
Q

What is dermatomyositis associated with?

A

Anti-jo1, high CK, positive ANA

217
Q

Which part of the female reproductive track most likely gets metastatic deposits?

A

Ovaries

218
Q

Signs of typhoid?

A

Fever, rose spots, Faget’s sign, constipation, relative bradycardia, epistaxis, hepatosplenomegaly, malaise, headache

219
Q

What drug causes hypokalaemia?

A

furosemide

220
Q

Which interleukin is

A
221
Q

Which benign breast condition can mimic breast cancer on radiology?

A

Radical scar

222
Q

Histopathological myeloma marker?

A

CD138

223
Q

Major toxic effect of cocaine?

A

cardiotoxic

224
Q

Organism causing intercranial abscess?

A

MRSA

225
Q

Organsim causing prosthetic joint infection?

A

Coagulase negative staphylococci

226
Q

Resistance to aciclovir mechanism?

A

Thymidine kinase mutations

227
Q

Treatment for monkey pox?

A

Tecoviromat

228
Q

Treatment for BK virus?

A

Cidofovir

229
Q

Treatment for BK virus?

A

Cidofovir

230
Q

Complications of CMV in neonates?

A

Colitis, pneumonitis, hepatitis, retinitis, bone marrow suppression

231
Q

2nd line anti-viral treatment?

A

Foscarnet

232
Q

Treatment for non-falciparum malaria?

A

Chloroquine and primaquine

233
Q

Toxoid vaccines:

A

Tetanus and diptheria

234
Q

Viral vector vaccine

A

Astra Zeneca

235
Q

Types of immunosuppression: FROM MOST TO LEAST SEVERE

A

Allogenic stem cell transplant
Advanced HIV infection (CD4 dep)
Solid organ transplant
Various monoclonal antibody therapies
Cytotoxic chemotherapy
DMARDs and steroids

236
Q

Disseminated catch stratch disease treatment?

A

Mx: Erythromycin/doxycycline
PLUS rifampicin

237
Q

Brucellosis

A

Predilection to the testis/orchitis
Fever
Back pain
Focal abscesses (psoas, liver etc.)

238
Q

What causes rabies?

A

Lyssa virus

239
Q

Rat bite fever?

A

streptobacillus monoiliformis or spirillum minus
Fevers
Polyarthralgia
Maculopapular progressing to purpuric rash
Endocarditis
Managed with penicillins

240
Q

When is CMV most risky for fetus?

A

Third trimester

241
Q

Anaphylaxis definition:

A

Severe, life-threatening allergic reaction that has an AB or C problem and urticaria.
Don’t need a blood pressure drop to diagnose anaphylaxis.

242
Q

Aetiology of anaphylaxis?

A

Antibodies (IgE) activate mast cells
Release mediators including histamine, proteases, proteoglycans and cytokines.

243
Q

How does adrenaline work?

A

Adrenaline causes bronchodilation, vasoconstriction.
Acts on beta 2 receptors and stops cells from emptying their cell contents.

244
Q

Hughes syndrome

A

Some patients with SLE can also have anti-phospholipid antibody syndrome

245
Q

Something elevated in multiple myeloma?

A

ESR! ALP is not

246
Q

Gene in Bruton’s ?

A

BTK gene

247
Q

What goes up in T cell mediated graft rejection?

A

Creatinine

248
Q

Antibody-mediated rejection takes place where?

A

Intravascularly
Glomerulitis

249
Q

Which type of rejection is easier to treat?

A

T cells

250
Q

Treatment for e antigen positive Hep B in pregnancy?

A

Vaccine at birth + HBIG within 48 hours

251
Q

Treatment for e antigen negative Hep B in pregnancy?

A

Vaccine at birth + routine vaccination schedule

252
Q

Is Hep B+D co-infection or superinfection worse?

A

Superinfection - high risk of severe liver disease

253
Q

HEP E infection route?

A

G1+2 = fecal-oral
G3+4 = zoonotic

254
Q

Hepatitis extra-hepatic manifestations?

A

Encephalitis, ataxia, IgA nephropathy, Guillian barré syndrome. red cell aplasia, thrombocytopenia

255
Q

Antibodies in coeliac disease?

A

IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase, anti-gliadin, anti-endosymial antibodies

256
Q

How many species of schistomiasis?

A
  1. Eggs migrate through the bladder/bowel and cause damage.
257
Q

Strongyloides treatment?

A

Ivermectin
Are capable of autoinfection

258
Q

Signs of filiariasis?

A

Dance sign, loa loa migration

259
Q

Fibroadenoma

A

benign, mobile lump, multinodular composed of expanded intralobular stroma, compressed ‘slit like’ ducts, branching sheets of epithelium

260
Q

Radical scar

A

‘benign sclerosing lesion characterised by a central zone of scarring surrounded by a radiating zone of proliferating glandular tissue’
○ Stellate mass on mammogram (resembles carcinoma), central elastotic nidus surrounded by proliferative corona

261
Q

loss of E-cadherin?

A

Lobular carcinoma in situ

262
Q

, H pylori can cause what?

A

MALT lymphoma

263
Q

● Variant CJD

A
  • Depression then CNS symptoms in young person
264
Q

● Tuberous sclerosis

A

epileptic with patch on back and lumps in brain

265
Q

associated with focal glomerulonephritis?

A

Heroin use

266
Q
  • oncogene, poor prognosis, squamous and small cell
A

K-ras

267
Q

● Squamous cell Carcinoma of the lung

A

prickles, keratinisation, PTHrp secretion, smokers, central but not so much anymore

268
Q

Honeycomb lung?

A

Fibrosing lung disease (idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis)

269
Q

Stages of lobular pneumonia?

A

Stages: 1.Consolidation; 2. Red Hepatisation (neutrophilia); 3. Grey Hepatisation (Fibrosis); 4. Resolution

270
Q

● Polyarteritis nodosa association?

A

Associated with Hep B/C

271
Q

Cryoglobulinaemia

A

● Cryoglobulinaemia (in Meeran’s book) - Igs precipitate at low temps (secondary to connective tissue diseases, lymphoproliferative disease) leading to complement activation, neutrophil recruitment and vascular damage

272
Q

> 20% blasts =?

A

AML

273
Q

What else can cause MALT apart from H pylori?

A

Sjorgen’s syndrome

274
Q

● Acute promyelocytic leukaemia presents as?

A

DIC

275
Q

● Pelger Huet cells ?

A

MDS

276
Q

Another name for diabetes insipidus?

A

Vasopressin deficiency

277
Q

HHS full name?

A

Hyperosomolar hyperglycaemic state

278
Q

● Beri beri syndrome?

A

B1 deficiency

279
Q

● Dementia/dermatitis/Casal’s necklace/diarrhoea deficiency?

A

Niacin/B3 deficiency

280
Q

dexamethasone suppression test
○ If it suppresses with high dose

A

Cushing’s disease (ACTH-producting pituitary tumour)

281
Q

● Polyuria, polydipsia, hyponatraemia and high ish serum osmolality - test?

A

blood glucose, as high lipids can cause pseudohyponatraemia

282
Q

● Hypoglycaemia - test C peptide (which is secreted in equimolar amounts to insulin) results with different conditions?

A

○ C peptide levels are high in insulinoma, normal or low with exogenous insulin, and elevated with oral sulfonylureas

283
Q

● Impaired glucose tolerance

A

2 hours post glucose ≥7.8 and <11.1

284
Q

● Deficiency resulting in urate overproduction

A

HGPRT = lesch nyhan syndrome

285
Q

● Hypoglycaemic neonate, which condition do you want to rule out first?

A

Galactosaemia

286
Q

○ Tay Sachs

A

cell membrane components (gangliosides - kind of sphingolipid) accumulate in nerve cells
■ Months after birth: deterioration of mental and physical abilities, cherry red spot on retina, death before the age of 4
■ Can also present in older children with skill deterioration or as adults when effects can stop progressing

287
Q

○ Lysosomal

A

Substrate accumulation within the organelles leading to organomegaly (connective tissue, solid organs, cartilage, bone, above all - nervous tissue)
■ Urine mucopolysaccharides, oligosaccharides, leucocyte enzyme activities
● Urea cycle

288
Q

Maple syrup urine disease?

A

Sweaty feet, : sweet smelling urine, also smell of ear wax, seem healthy at birth but quickly deteriorate with severe brain damage during times of metabolic crisis & can die of cerebral oedema

289
Q

● Marker of antibody mediated rejection

A

C4d

290
Q

Treatment for GvHD?

A

Steroids
Prophylaxis: Methotrexate, cyclosporine

291
Q

○ Antigen for non-neutralising antibodies HIV

A

p24 gag IgG

292
Q

● Tocilizumab

A

○ Antibody against IL6 receptor
○ Used in caslteman’s, RA if not responding to methotrexate, sulfasalazine
○ IV every 4 weeks: reduces macrophage/T cell/B cell/neutrophil activation

293
Q

● Ustekinumab

A

○ Antibody to p40 subunit of IL12 and IL23
○ Psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, subcut every 12 weeks

294
Q

● Routine but not given to immunocompromised children

A

MMR

295
Q

Hep B is what type of vaccine?

A

Conjugate

296
Q

○ Haemophilus ducreyi

A

Chcolate agar

297
Q

Tests for syphillus

A

VDRL tells you if ever syphilis, can also do RPR

298
Q

silver stain

A

PCP

299
Q

● Moroxella catarrhalis

A

○ Smoking, gram negative coccus

300
Q

○ Recent viral infection, cavitation on CXR, gram positive cocci in grape bunch clusters

A

Staph aureus

301
Q

● Giardia treatment?

A

Metronidazole

302
Q

○ Gram negatives abx treatment?

A

Ciprofloxacin

303
Q

● RUQ abscess/cyst, flask shaped cysts in liver

A

Entamoeba histolytica

304
Q

● Mucor indicus

A

○ Opportunistic, really bad, rapidly spreads, brain, lungs, black discharge from nose
○ Needs amphotericin B

305
Q

○ Chemokine that inhibits HIV entry into cells?

A

MIP-1a

306
Q

● Haemorrhagic cystitis, virus in kids?

A

Adenovirus

307
Q

Antidote: 10 ml 10% calcium gluconate (slow IV infusion)

A

Antidote: 10 ml 10% calcium gluconate (slow IV infusion)