past questions 2020-2021 Flashcards

1
Q

find the correct answers:

a) if the PH of the can is > 4.5: sterilisation is used

b )if the PH of the can is < 4.5: pasteurisation is used

c) the cans are always thermostatically tested at 55˚C temperature
d) clostridium botulinum caused deterioration

A

a) if the PH of the can is > 4.5: sterilisation is used
d) clostridium botulinum caused deterioration

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2
Q

which products contain a security alert in the RASSF:

a) nutritional supplements

b )human food

c )Animal feed

d) medical foods, medicated foods

A

b )human food

c )Animal feed

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3
Q

which statements are true about trichinella test:

a) the test is formed on a faecal sample

b )the test is formed on muscle sample

c )the study is based on microscopic identification of trichinella larvae

d) the examination must be carried out at the slaughterhouse from 5 animals per day

A

b )the test is formed on muscle sample

c )the study is based on microscopic identification of trichinella larvae

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4
Q

which examinations are carried out during the official control of shellfish:

a) Examination of faecal contamination of the production area

b )measurement of histamine concentration

c) testing for the biotoxin content of shellfish
d) measurement of mercury content

A

c) testing for the biotoxin content of shellfish
d) measurement of mercury content

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5
Q

select the correct statements:

a) cold smoking of meat products is less effective against moulds than bacteria
b) cold smoking of products is more effective against mould than bacterial post-infection
c) deterioration of refrigerated meat products with shielding gas is mainly caused by aerobic bacteria
d) deterioration of refrigerated meat products packed with shielding gas is mainly caused by aerotolerant anaerobic bacteria

A

a) cold smoking of meat products is less effective against moulds than bacteria
d) deterioration of refrigerated meat products packed with shielding gas is mainly caused by aerotolerant anaerobic bacteria

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6
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) At lower water activity, deterioration of marinaded/ smoked etc. meat products is done mainly by gram + bacteria

b )At lower water activity, deterioration of marinaded/ smoked meat products is done mainly by gram - bacteria

c )deterioration of fresh meat mainly caused by gram + bacteria

d )deterioration of fresh meat mainly caused by gram - bacteria

A

a) At lower water activity, deterioration of marinaded/ smoked etc. meat products is done mainly by gram + bacteria

d )deterioration of fresh meat mainly caused by gram - bacteria

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7
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) ciguatera toxins accumulate in fish

b )ciguatera toxins accumulate in mussels

c) scombrotoxin is a toxin produced by microscopic algae
d) Scombrotoxin is produced by bacteria in bacteria with high levels of free histamine

A

a) ciguatera toxins accumulate in fish
d) Scombrotoxin is produced by bacteria in bacteria with high levels of free histamine

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8
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) spoilage of raw marinaded meat products is mainly caused by gram + bacteria

b )spoilage of raw marinaded meat products is mainly caused by gram - bacteria

c )spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by gram + bacteria

d )spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by gram - bacteria

A

a) spoilage of raw marinaded meat products is mainly caused by gram + bacteria

d )spoilage of fresh meat is mainly caused by gram - bacteria

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9
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) HACCP includes general industry characteristics

b )GHP includes general industry characteristics

c) the GHP approach is plant and product specific
d) the HACCP system is plant and product specific

A

b )GHP includes general industry characteristics

d) the HACCP system is plant and product specific

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10
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the potency of sodium hydrochloride solution is more pronounced at acidic PH

b )the potency of sodium hydrochloride solution is more pronounced at alkaline PH

c )the potency of sodium hydrochloride solution is more stable at acidic PH

d) the potency of sodium hydrochloride solution is more stable at alkaline PH

A

b )the potency of sodium hydrochloride solution is more pronounced at alkaline PH

d) the potency of sodium hydrochloride solution is more stable at alkaline PH

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11
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) salmonella is a psychrophilic bacteria

b )salmonella is a mesophilic bacteria

c) campylobacter jejuni is a thermophilic bacteria
d) campylobacter jejuni is a psychrophilic bacteria

A

b )salmonella is a mesophilic bacteria

c) campylobacter jejuni is a thermophilic bacteria

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12
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) the number of viruses entering the foods depends on the environmental conditions

b )the number of viruses entering the food does not increase

c) viruses can typically enter the food through primary infection
d) viruses can typically enter the food through secondary contamination

A

b )the number of viruses entering the food does not increase

d) viruses can typically enter the food through secondary contamination

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13
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) nitrosamines can be produced in the stomach of the human body

b )nitrosamines in the human body can be formed more and more in the internal duct

c) nitrosamines are formed by the reaction of amines and nitrates

d )nitrosamines are formed by the reaction of amines and nitrites

A

a) nitrosamines can be produced in the stomach of the human body

d )nitrosamines are formed by the reaction of amines and nitrites

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14
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) water activity products prepared by quick curing is higher than those prepared by slow curing

b )the water activity of products prepared by quick curing is lower than those prepared by slow curing

c) meat products prepared by quick curing must be stored chilled
d) meat products prepared by slow curing must be chilled

A

a) water activity products prepared by quick curing is higher than those prepared by slow curing
c) meat products prepared by quick curing must be stored chilled

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15
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) spoilage is a profound qualitative change of the food
b) spoilage is a profound safety change of the food

c )microbiological spoilage is mostly caused by bacteria and moulds

d )microbiological spoilage is mostly caused by bacteria and viruses

A

a) spoilage is a profound qualitative change of the food

c )microbiological spoilage is mostly caused by bacteria and moulds

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16
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) moulds usually multiply faster than bacteria, therefore in spoilage associations mostly moulds become dominant

b )moulds usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria

c )yeasts usually multiply faster than bacteria, therefore in spoilage associations mostly moulds become dominant

d) yeasts usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage f

A
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16
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) moulds usually multiply faster than bacteria, therefore in spoilage associations mostly moulds become dominant

b )moulds usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria

c )yeasts usually multiply faster than bacteria, therefore in spoilage associations mostly moulds become dominant

d) yeasts usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable to bacteria

A

b )moulds usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria

d) yeasts usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable to bacteria

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17
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) in general, the water activity demand of gram positive bacteria is higher than the gram negative ones

b )in general, the water activity demand of gram negative is higher than gram positive ones

c) in general the water activity demand of bacteria is higher than that of yeasts
d) in general the water activity demand of bacteria is lower than that of yeasts

A

b )in general, the water activity demand of gram negative is higher than gram positive ones

c) in general the water activity demand of bacteria is higher than that of yeasts

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18
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) in food processing plants, water of drinking quality shall be used for hand washing and cleaning, aswell

b )in food processing of plants, water of non-potable duality can be used for hand washing and cleaning

c )Equipment surfaces coming in to direct contact with food shall be easy to clean and disinfect

d) Equipment surfaced coming into direct contact with food shall be sterile

A

a) in food processing plants, water of drinking quality shall be used for hand washing and cleaning, aswell

c )Equipment surfaces coming in to direct contact with food shall be easy to clean and disinfect

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19
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) chlorinated hydrocarbons are cholinesterase inhibitors
b) organophasphates are cholinesterase inhibitors
c) Pyrethroids are synthetic derivatives of pyrethrins
d) pyrethrins are synthetic derivatives of pyrethroids

A

b) organophasphates are cholinesterase inhibitors
c) Pyrethroids are synthetic derivatives of pyrethrins

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20
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) Aflatoxin-producing species may occur also in Central Europe, but do not produce toxins under these climatic conditions
b) Aflatoxin-producing species may occur also in Central Europe, and can also produce toxins there due to the climatic change
c) Ochratoxins can only be produced under hot climate conditions
d) Ochratoxins are also produced under temperate climate conditions

A

b) Aflatoxin-producing species may occur also in Central Europe, and can also produce toxins there due to the climatic change
d) Ochratoxins are also produced under temperate climate conditions

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21
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) Scombrotoxin is a biogenic amine

b )Scombrotoxin is a mycotoxin

c )Patulin is a mycotoxin

d) solanine is a mycotoxin

A

a) Scombrotoxin is a biogenic amine

c )Patulin is a mycotoxin

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22
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the toxin produced by S. aureus in the food is a neurotoxin that causes flaccid paralysis in the muscles

b )the toxin of S. aureus produced in the food is an emetic one

c) the toxin of S. aureus produced in the food is heat resistant and can only be deactivated by long boiling
d) the botulinum toxin is heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling

A

b )the toxin of S. aureus produced in the food is an emetic one

c) the toxin of S. aureus produced in the food is heat resistant and can only be deactivated by long boiling

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23
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) campylobacter usually forms a biofilm on the surface

b )L. monocytogenes usually forms a biofilm on the surface

c) the clinical signs of L. monocytogenes in humans is characterised mostly buy extra intestinal signs

d )the clinical symptoms of L. monocytogenes in humans are characterised mostly by intestinal signs

A

b )L. monocytogenes usually forms a biofilm on the surface

c) the clinical signs of L. monocytogenes in humans is characterised mostly buy extra intestinal signs

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24
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) coxiella burnetii is rather heat resistant, it can survive the pasteurisation

b )C. Burnetii is rather heat sensitive, it cannot survive the pasteurisation

c )zoonotic EHEC strains are rather heat resistant, they can survive the pasteurisation

d )zoonotic EHEC strains are rather heat sensitive, they cannot survive the pasteurisation

A

a) coxiella burnetii is rather heat resistant, it can survive the pasteurisation

d )zoonotic EHEC strains are rather heat sensitive, they cannot survive the pasteurisation

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25
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) broilers infected with salmonella enteritis must be slaughtered by immediate slaughter at the designated slaughterhouse

b )broilers infected with salmonella enteritidis must be slaughtered separately

c )cattle producing positive tuberculin test must be slaughtered by immediate slaughter at a designated slaughterhouse

d) cattle producing a positive tuberculin test must be slaughtered separately

A

b )broilers infected with salmonella enteritidis must be slaughtered separately

d) cattle producing a positive tuberculin test must be slaughtered separately

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26
Q

what parameters can be seen on heat penetration graph from the list below:

a) temperature of can itself
b) retort temperature
c) storage time of the product
d) processing time of the product

A

b) retort temperature
d) processing time of the product

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27
Q

which two of the following sentences are true about clostridia:

a) oblige aerobes

b )produce spores

c) are perfect indicators of the effectiveness of chlorination
d) are able to reduce sulphite to sulphide

A

b )produce spores

d) are able to reduce sulphite to sulphide

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28
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) salmonella contamination of the carcasses should be checked according to the microbiological regulation of the EU

b )salmonella contamination of the carcasses should be checked according to the zoonosis regulation of the EU

c )carcasses can be put on the market irrespective of the result of the salmonella process hygiene checks performed at the slaughterhouse

d )carcasses found positive for salmonella in the process hygiene tests must not be put on the marked

A

a) salmonella contamination of the carcasses should be checked according to the microbiological regulation of the EU

c )carcasses can be put on the market irrespective of the result of the salmonella process hygiene checks performed at the slaughterhouse

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29
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) cattle are stunned by carbon dioxide stunning

b )cattle are stunned by mechanical stunning

c )at the slaughterhouse pigs are stunned by mechanical stunning

d) at the slaughterhouse pigs are stunned by carbon dioxide stunning

A

b )cattle are stunned by mechanical stunning

d) at the slaughterhouse pigs are stunned by carbon dioxide stunning

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30
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) dioxins accumulate in the adipose tissue of the consumer

b )dioxins accumulate in the kidneys of the consumer

c) dioxins are widely used compounds in different industrial processes

d )significant sources of dioxins include the wast incineration of the forest fires

A

a) dioxins accumulate in the adipose tissue of the consumer

d )significant sources of dioxins include the wast incineration of the forest fires

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31
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) Category 1 waste shall be disposed of by incineration

b )category 1 waste can be used for the manufacture of pet food

c )blood from cattle declared fit for human consumption can be used for human consumption

d) blood from pigs declared fit for human consumption can be used for human consumption

A

a) Category 1 waste shall be disposed of by incineration
d) blood from pigs declared fit for human consumption can be used for human consumption

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32
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) an increased potential acidity degree indicates the souring of milk

b )a decreased potential acidity degree indicates the souring of milk

c) the potential acidity degree of mastitis milk is typically lower than normal
d) the potential acidity degree of mastitis milk is typically higher than normal

A

a) an increased potential acidity degree indicates the souring of milk
c) the potential acidity degree of mastitis milk is typically lower than normal

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33
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) campylobacters are rather resistant to heat, they can survive the pasteurisation
b) campylobacters are rather sensitive to heat, they cannot survive the pasteurisation
c) salmonella are rather resistant to heat, they can survive the pasteurisation
d) salmonella are rather sensitive to heat, they cannot survive the pasteurisation

A

b) campylobacters are rather sensitive to heat, they cannot survive the pasteurisation
d) salmonella are rather sensitive to heat, they cannot survive the pasteurisation

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34
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) campylobacter jejuni cannot get into the egg through its pores causing secondary contamination of it

b )campylobacter jejuni can get into the egg through its pores causing secondary infection of it

c) salmonella enteritidis cannot get into the egg through its pores causing secondary contamination of it
d) salmonella enteritidis can get into the egg through its pores causing secondary contamination of it

A

b )campylobacter jejuni can get into the egg through its pores causing secondary infection of it

d) salmonella enteritidis can get into the egg through its pores causing secondary contamination of it

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35
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) after killing, small game shall be eviscerated on the spot
b) in case of small game, no evisceration shall be performed on the spot

c )For small game, the official veterinarians meat inspection is done on a representative sample of animals of the same source only

d) For small game, the official veterinarians meat inspection shall be done on each single animal

A

b) in case of small game, no evisceration shall be performed on the spot

c )For small game, the official veterinarians meat inspection is done on a representative sample of animals of the same source only

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36
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) in case of drinking water the test for E. coli as faecal indicator is obligatory

b )in case of drinking water the test for C. perfringens as faecal indicator is obligatory

c )the efficacy of chlorine-containing disinfectants is increased by the elevation of temperature

d )the efficacy of chlorine-containing disinfectants is decreased by the elevation of temperature

A

a) in case of drinking water the test for E. coli as faecal indicator is obligatory

c )the efficacy of chlorine-containing disinfectants is increased by the elevation of temperature

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37
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) chlorinated hydrocarbons are highly lipid soluble compounds with the tendency to persist in the environment

b )organophosphates are highly lipid soluble compounds with the tendency to persist in the environment

c )Pyrethroids are persisting compounds in the environment

d) Pyrethroids do not persist in the environment “rapid degradation in the body an in the environment

A

a) chlorinated hydrocarbons are highly lipid soluble compounds with the tendency to persist in the environment
d) Pyrethroids do not persist in the environment “rapid degradation in the body an in the environment

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38
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food safety authorities

b )the primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food producers

c )the conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food quality

d )the conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food safety

A

b )the primary responsibility for food safety rests with the food producers

d )the conditions and rules of food hygiene primarily aim at achieving adequate food safety

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39
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) emergency slaughter involves the urgent bleeding of animals being suspected of infection
b) Emergency slaughter means the urgent bleeding of healthy, injured animals
c) immediate slaughter involves the slaughter of animals being suspected of infection
d) immediate slaughter involves the urgent bleeding or healthy, injured animals

A

b) Emergency slaughter means the urgent bleeding of healthy, injured animals
c) immediate slaughter involves the slaughter of animals being suspected of infection

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40
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) the use of liquid smoke must be indicated on the product

b )during smoking the temperature of the wood cannot be over 400˚C

c) during smoking the temperature of the wood cannot be under 400˚C
d) the durability of cooked-smoked products is mainly due to the smoking process

A

a) the use of liquid smoke must be indicated on the product
d) the durability of cooked-smoked products is mainly due to the smoking process

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41
Q

which ones of these is a microbial growth inhibition test:

a) ROSA
b) Delvotest
c) KIS
d) snap test

A

b) Delvotest
c) KIS

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42
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) only low conductivity broth may be used for impedance measurement
b) only low conductivity broth should be used for redox potential measurement

c )the endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of gram negative bacteria

d) the endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of a gram positive bacteria

A

a) only low conductivity broth may be used for impedance measurement

c )the endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide from the cell wall of gram negative bacteria

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43
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the frankfurters distributed to shops/ supermarkets are not heat treated and therefore cannot be eaten cold

b )the frankfurters distributed to shops/ supermarkets are already heat treated therefore can be eaten cold

c )the frankfurters distributed to shops/ supermarkets are not always heat treated

d )the frankfurters distributed to shops/ supermarkets are already heat treated and we heat them up better only for customer experience

A

b )the frankfurters distributed to shops/ supermarkets are already heat treated therefore can be eaten cold

d )the frankfurters distributed to shops/ supermarkets are already heat treated and we heat them up better only for customer experience

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44
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) control of proper identification of control points is a major element of the GHP audit

b ) Control of proper identification of control points is a major element of the HACCP audit

c )the poultry meat put on the market without identification marking shall be regarded as illegal distribution

d) the poultry meat put on the market without health marking (meat stamp) shall be regarded as illegal distribution

A

b ) Control of proper identification of control points is a major element of the HACCP audit

c )the poultry meat put on the market without identification marking shall be regarded as illegal distribution

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45
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the EU legislation does not quantify the frequency of official controls

b )according to the corresponding EU legislation food processing establishment shall be controlled at least annually

c) Conformity of the monitoring procedures with critical limits is a major element of the GHP audit
d) conformity of the monitoring procedures with critical limits is a major element of the HACCP audit

A

a) the EU legislation does not quantify the frequency of official controls
d) conformity of the monitoring procedures with critical limits is a major element of the HACCP audit

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46
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the primary objective of pasteurisation is to destroy all forms of bacteria

b )the primary objective of pasteurisation is to destroy all vegetative forms of bacteria

c )pasteurisation is a heat treatment performed at a temperature below 100˚C

d) pasteurisation is a heat treatment performed at a temperature above 100˚C

A

b )the primary objective of pasteurisation is to destroy all vegetative forms of bacteria

c )pasteurisation is a heat treatment performed at a temperature below 100˚C

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47
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) milk collecting centres are not subject to approval because these are parts of primary production
b) milk houses are not subject to approval because these are parts of the primary production
c) wholesale cold stores are subject to approval
d) wholesale cold stores are not subject to approval

A

b) milk houses are not subject to approval because these are parts of the primary production
c) wholesale cold stores are subject to approval

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48
Q

which of these cheese types are hard and full fat:

a) cheddar

b ) mozzarella

c) feta
d) emmental

A

a) cheddar
d) emmental

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49
Q

what applied heat treatment parameters were not tolerable for enterobacterium multiplication based on VRBG agar during our practice:

a) 60˚C for 30 mins

b )80˚C for 20 mins

c) 90˚C for 20 mins
d) only boiling water

A

a) 60˚C for 30 mins

b )80˚C for 20 mins

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50
Q

what is typical for Hungarian Trappist cheese made also during the practice:

a) rennet coagulated
b) acid coagulated
c) prepressing under whey

d )irregular holes

A

a) rennet coagulated
c) prepressing under whey

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51
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) when applying immersion chilling the maximum temperature at the point of outlet is 16˚C
b) when applying immersion chilling the maximum temperature at the point of outlet is 4˚C

c )chilling is a critical step of poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP

d )Evisceration is a critical step for poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP

A

b) when applying immersion chilling the maximum temperature at the point of outlet is 4˚C

c )chilling is a critical step of poultry slaughter in terms of HACCP

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52
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) cheese made from raw milk may pose higher microbiological risk than those made from pasteurised milk

b ) cheese made from raw milk may pose lower microbiological risk than those made from pasteurised milk

c) early blowing of semi hard cheese resulting in many small holes are caused by clostridia
d) early blowing of semi hard cheese resulting in many small holes are caused by coliform

A

a) cheese made from raw milk may pose higher microbiological risk than those made from pasteurised milk
d) early blowing of semi hard cheese resulting in many small holes are caused by coliform

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53
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) buttermilk is a byproduct of churning
b) buttermilk cannot be separated by washing

c )physical ripening of cream results in sour butter

d) biological ripening of cream results in sour butter

A

a) buttermilk is a byproduct of churning
d) biological ripening of cream results in sour butter

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54
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) phytotoxins are biotoxins produced by micro algae

b )phytotoxins are biotoxins produced by moulds

c )solanine mainly occurs in potatoes

d) solanine mainly occurs in stone fruits

A

a) phytotoxins are biotoxins produced by micro algae

c )solanine mainly occurs in potatoes

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55
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) patulin may be produced mostly in fruits causing the contamination of apple juices

b )zearalenone may be produced mostly in fruits causing the contamination of apple juices

c )Fumonisins can be produced mainly on oilseeds

d) Fumonisins can be produced mainly on damaged maze kernels

A

a) patulin may be produced mostly in fruits causing the contamination of apple juices
d) Fumonisins can be produced mainly on damaged maze kernels

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56
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) campylobacter usually form biofilm on the surfaces

b )L. monocytogenes usually forms biofilm on the surfaces

c) the clinical symptoms caused by L. monocytogenes in humans are characterised mostly by extra intestinal signs
d) c) the clinical symptoms caused by L. monocytogenes in humans are characterised mostly by intestinal signs

A

b )L. monocytogenes usually forms biofilm on the surfaces

c) the clinical symptoms caused by L. monocytogenes in humans are characterised mostly by extra intestinal signs

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57
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) for quick curing, nitrate-containing salt mix is used

b )for quick curing, nitrite containing salt mix is used

c )the products prepared by slow curing are microbiologically more stable

d) the products prepared by fast curing are microbiologically more stable

A

b )for quick curing, nitrite containing salt mix is used

c )the products prepared by slow curing are microbiologically more stable

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58
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) in the EU, nitroimidazoles are prohibited for growth promotion, but can be used in therapy in food-producing animals

b )In the EU, nitroimidazoles are prohibited for use in food producing animals

c) Beta-agonists are illegal growth promoters, but can be used for therapy

d )Beta-agonists are not allowed in food producing animals, at all

A

b )In the EU, nitroimidazoles are prohibited for use in food producing animals

c) Beta-agonists are illegal growth promoters, but can be used for therapy

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59
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) water activity means the total water content of foods
b) water activity means the free, chemically unbound water content of foods
c) water activity of foods is characterised by the aw value
d) water activity of foods is characterised by the Eh value

A

b) water activity means the free, chemically unbound water content of foods
c) water activity of foods is characterised by the aw value

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60
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of colloidal micelles

b )milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of globules

c )caseins can be found in the milk in the form of globules

d) caseins can be found in the milk in the form of colloidal micelles

A

b )milk fat occurs in the milk plasma in the form of globules

d) caseins can be found in the milk in the form of colloidal micelles

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61
Q

which substances can be measured in the fishery product is there is any doubt for freshness:

a) Total volatile basic nitrogen (TVB-N)
b) ciguatoxin
c) Tetrodotoxin
d) Trimethylamine-nitrogen (TMA-N)

A

a) Total volatile basic nitrogen (TVB-N)
d) Trimethylamine-nitrogen (TMA-N)

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62
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) yoghurt may contain probiotic bacteria
b) yoghurt is made with mesophilic starter culture
c) yoghurt can be set-type and stirred type
d) after yogurt fermentation there is no need for ageing in the fridge

A

a) yoghurt may contain probiotic bacteria
c) yoghurt can be set-type and stirred type

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63
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) caseins are produced in the udder

b )caseins originate from the blood

c) caseins remain in solution during sour coagulation
d) whey proteins remain in solution during sour coagulation

A

a) caseins are produced in the udder
d) whey proteins remain in solution during sour coagulation

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64
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) pigs can be health marked before the results of the trichinella test are available

b )pigs must not be health marked before the results of the trichinella test are available

c) Pig meat placed on the market without health mark (meat stamp) shall be declared unfit for human consumption
d) poultry meat placed on the market without health mark (meat stamp) shall be declared unfit for human consumption

A

a) pigs can be health marked before the results of the trichinella test are available

c) Pig meat placed on the market without health mark (meat stamp) shall be declared unfit for human consumption

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65
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) if trichinellosis is diagnosed at the post mortem meat inspection the whole carcass shall be condemned
b) if trichinellosis is diagnosed at the post mortem meat inspection the affected parts shall be condemned and the other parts are fit for human consumption after freezing
c) if hydatid cyst of echinococcus granulosus are found in the liver only the affected organ shall be condemned
d) if hydatid cyst of echinococcus granulosus are found in the liver the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

A

a) if trichinellosis is diagnosed at the post mortem meat inspection the whole carcass shall be condemned
c) if hydatid cyst of echinococcus granulosus are found in the liver only the affected organ shall be condemned

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66
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) the meat emaciated animals can be used for human consumption after heat treatment if the causative agent is non-zoonotic

b )the meat emaciated animals are unfit for human consumption irrespective of the cause

c) in the case of sex odour of the pork the meat can be used for human consumption after heat treatment only
d) in the case of sex odour the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

A

b )the meat emaciated animals are unfit for human consumption irrespective of the cause

d) in the case of sex odour the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption

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67
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) foot and mouth disease is confirmed at the slaughterhouse all susceptible animals present at the slaughterhouse shall be slaughtered according to the rule of immediate slaughter

b )if foot and mouth disease is confirmed at the slaughterhouse all susceptible animals present at the slaughterhouse shall be killed

c) the meat inspection significance of foot and mouth disease is due to the strong zoonotic potential of its causative agent
d) the meat inspection significance of foot and mouth disease is due to the highly contagious nature of its causative agent

A

b )if foot and mouth disease is confirmed at the slaughterhouse all susceptible animals present at the slaughterhouse shall be killed

d) the meat inspection significance of foot and mouth disease is due to the highly contagious nature of its causative agent

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68
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) the meat ageing in poultry is faster than in pigs
b) the meat ageing of pigs is faster than in poultry

c )the meat ageing of cattle is faster than in pigs

d )the meat ageing of pigs is faster than in cattle

A

a) the meat ageing in poultry is faster than in pigs

d )the meat ageing of pigs is faster than in cattle

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69
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) if paratuberculosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection only the affected organs shall be condemned

b )if paratuberculosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection the whole carcass shall be condemned

c )if leptospirosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection only the affected organs shall be condemned

d )if leptospirosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection the whole carcass shall be condemned

A

b )if paratuberculosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection the whole carcass shall be condemned

d )if leptospirosis is diagnosed at the meat inspection the whole carcass shall be condemned

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70
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) Q fever has a meat inspection significance mainly in cattle
b) Q fever has a meat inspection significance mainly in pigs
c) if Q fever is diagnosed at the meat inspection, only the affected organs shall be condemned
d) if Q fever is diagnosed at the meat inspection the whole carcass shall be condemned

A

a) Q fever has a meat inspection significance mainly in cattle
d) if Q fever is diagnosed at the meat inspection the whole carcass shall be condemned

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71
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) the health mark (meat stamp) may still be replaced in the wholesale establishment before the meat gets in the retail shops

b )the health mark (meat stamp) must not be replaced in the wholesale establishments before the meat gets into the retail shops

c )in re-wrapping centres the re-wrapped products shall be marked with the identification marking of the re-wrapping establishment

d) in re-wrapping centres the re-wrapped product shall be marked with its original identification mark

A

b )the health mark (meat stamp) must not be replaced in the wholesale establishments before the meat gets into the retail shops

c )in re-wrapping centres the re-wrapped products shall be marked with the identification marking of the re-wrapping establishment

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72
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) in restaurants raw milk may be used after boiling
b) in restaurants raw milk may also be served
c) in restaurants hunted unskinned wild game can also be processed if the establishment has the necessary licence
d) in restaurants it is not allowed to process hunted unskinned game

A

a) in restaurants raw milk may be used after boiling
c) in restaurants hunted unskinned wild game can also be processed if the establishment has the necessary licence

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73
Q

choose the correct statement:

a)in cattle the last 4 metres of ileum and caecum are classified as SRM regarding the intestinal tract

b )in cattle the whole intestinal react is classed as SRM

c) in sheep, the whole intestinal tract is classed as SRM
d) in sheep, only the ileum is classed as SRM regarding the intestinal tract

A

a) in cattle the last 4 metres of ileum and caecum are classified as SRM regarding the intestinal tract
d) in sheep, only the ileum is classed as SRM regarding the intestinal tract

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74
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey may germinate and cause toxic-infection in infants

b )clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey cannot germinate in the intestines of infants

c )Wine is safe in microbiological terms as pathogenic bacteria cannot survive in it

d) depending on the environmental conditions, Listeria monocytogenes can survive in wine posing a food safety risk

A

a) clostridium botulinum spores surviving in the honey may germinate and cause toxic-infection in infants

c )Wine is safe in microbiological terms as pathogenic bacteria cannot survive in it

75
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old the liver shall be ispected by incision

b )as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old the liver shall be inspected visually

c )as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old the trachea shall be opened lengthways

d) as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old the trachea shall be inspected visually

A

b )as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old the liver shall be inspected visually

d) as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle >8 months old the trachea shall be inspected visually

76
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) rodding means the ligation of the oesophagus before the rumen

b )rodding means the ligation of the rectum in order to prevent faecal contamination

c )in cattle the spinal cord is classed as SRM irrespective of the animals age

d) in cattle the spinal cord is classed as SRM in animals > 12 months

A

a) rodding means the ligation of the oesophagus before the rumen
d) in cattle the spinal cord is classed as SRM in animals > 12 months

77
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) in the case of localised cyst cysticercosis in cattle only the affected parts shall be condemned and other parts may be declared fit for human consumption after cold treatment
b) in the case of localised cyst cysticercosis in cattle only the affected parts shall be condemned and other parts may be declared fir for human consumption without treatment
c) classical swine fever is a viral disease of high human and animal health significance
d) humans are not susceptible to the causative agent of classical swine fever

A

a) in the case of localised cyst cysticercosis in cattle only the affected parts shall be condemned and other parts may be declared fit for human consumption after cold treatment

d) humans are not susceptible to the causative agent of classical swine fever

78
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) in the case of food poisoning the causative agent produces exotoxin in the food
b) in case of food poisoning the causative agent produced exotoxin in the GI tract

c )in case of toxic-infection the causative agent produces exotoxin in the food

d )in case of toxic-infection the causative agent produced endotoxin in the GI tract

A

a) in the case of food poisoning the causative agent produces exotoxin in the food

d )in case of toxic-infection the causative agent produced endotoxin in the GI tract

79
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) in the case of BSE, diseased animals shall be slaughtered at the designated slaughterhouse according to the rules of immediate slaughter
b) in case of BSE, diseased animals shall be killed at designated slaughterhouse
c) the definitive host of cestodes causing bovine cysticercosis is the man

d )the definitive host of cestodes causing bovine cysticercosis are carnivores

A

b) in case of BSE, diseased animals shall be killed at designated slaughterhouse
c) the definitive host of cestodes causing bovine cysticercosis is the man

80
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) in the EU, it is member states competence to define their official control organisation

b )in the EU, the official control organisations are defined in the official control regulation

c) In the EU, it is member states competence to define the methods of official control
d) In the EU, the methods of official control are defined in the official control regulation

A

a) in the EU, it is member states competence to define their official control organisation
d) In the EU, the methods of official control are defined in the official control regulation

81
Q

what are the maximum number of colonies that can be counted:

a) 150 colonies/ Petri dish
b) 300 colonies/ Petri dish
c) 150 colonies/ membrane
d) 300 colonies/ membrane

A

b) 300 colonies/ Petri dish
c) 150 colonies/ membrane

82
Q

what is the definition of migration and penetration in packaging:

a) migration means that a component directs from the packaging to the product
b) migration meant that a component directs from the product to the packaging
c) penetration means that a component directs from the packaging to the product

d )penetration means that a component directs from the product to the packaging

A

a) migration means that a component directs from the packaging to the product

d )penetration means that a component directs from the product to the packaging

83
Q

for which plants is registration not sufficient:

a) slaughterhouse
b) small-scale fruit processor

c )large scale fruit processor

d) cold store

A

a) slaughterhouse
d) cold store

84
Q

which of the following statements are true about PSE meat:

a) the PH of the meat is slightly alkaline
b) usually caused by chronic stress
c) fit for human consumption
d) there is a rapid PH drop during the ageing process

A

c) fit for human consumption
d) there is a rapid PH drop during the ageing process

85
Q

for which food is the annual sample number determined based on the production figures from the previous year:

a) swine
b) cattle
c) broiler chickens

d )honey

A

c) broiler chickens

d )honey

86
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) basic document of the intracommunity trade of foodstuffs in the EU is the common health entry document (CHED)

b )basic document of the international trade of foodstuffs from third countries is the common health document (CHED)

c) foodstuff of animals origin can enter the territory of the EU through border inspection posts only
d) foodstuff of animal origin can move in the territory of the EU through border inspection posts only

A

b )basic document of the international trade of foodstuffs from third countries is the common health document (CHED)

c) foodstuff of animals origin can enter the territory of the EU through border inspection posts only

87
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the complementary bacteriological meat inspection includes the examination of at least seven samples from each animal

b )the complementary bacteriological meat inspection includes the examination of two samples from the neck skin

c) If imperfect bleeding is diagnosed the meat can be used for human consumption after heat treatment only
d) if imperfect bleeding is diagnosed the meat shall be declared unfit for human consumption

A

a) the complementary bacteriological meat inspection includes the examination of at least seven samples from each animal
d) if imperfect bleeding is diagnosed the meat shall be declared unfit for human consumption

88
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) cracked eggs must not be used for human consumption

b )cracked eggs can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg products

c )Eggs containing blood or meat spots must not be used for human consumption at all

d) Eggs containing blood or meat spots can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg products

A

b )cracked eggs can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg products

d) Eggs containing blood or meat spots can only be used for manufacture of heat-treated egg products

89
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) spoilage is a profound qualitative change of the food

b )spoilage is a profound safety change of the food

c) microbiological spoilage is caused by bacteria and moulds
d) microbiological spoilage is caused by bacteria and viruses

A

a) spoilage is a profound qualitative change of the food
c) microbiological spoilage is caused by bacteria and moulds

90
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the spoilage of fresh meat is caused by aerobic psychotropic bacteria

b )the spoilage of fresh meat is caused by anaerobic mesophilic bacteria

c) the spoilage of raw cured meat products is caused by micro-organisms with a high water activity
d) the spoilage of raw cured meat products is caused by micro-organisms with low water activity

A

a) the spoilage of fresh meat is caused by aerobic psychotropic bacteria
c) the spoilage of raw cured meat products is caused by micro-organisms with a high water activity

91
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) food hygiene is the basic system of establishing and guaranteeing food safety

b )food quality is the basic system of establishing and guaranteeing food hygiene

c) food hygiene requirements and tools also refer to the primary production
d) food hygiene requirements and tools do not refer to the primary production

A

a) food hygiene is the basic system of establishing and guaranteeing food safety
c) food hygiene requirements and tools also refer to the primary production

92
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) the official veterinarian shall perform individual meat inspection of fish

b )the official veterinarian shall perform the meat inspection of fish on a batch basis only

c )Scombrotoxicosis is due to the formation of large amounts of biogenic amines by spoilage bacteria

d) scombrotoxicosis is due to the presence of marine biotoxins in flesh

A

b )the official veterinarian shall perform the meat inspection of fish on a batch basis only

c )Scombrotoxicosis is due to the formation of large amounts of biogenic amines by spoilage bacteria

93
Q

in which case is the carcass unfit for human consumption:

a) leanness
b) incterus jaundice
c) insufficient bleeding
d) DFD meat

A

b) incterus jaundice
c) insufficient bleeding

94
Q

which product belongs to the primary production:

a) Raw milk
b) dairy products
c) Egg
d) sausage

A

a) Raw milk
c) Egg

95
Q

which information is part of the producer code on the eggshell:

a) the approval number of the egg packing centre

b )the registration of the laying farm

c) EC (European community)
d) the code of the housing method

A

b )the registration of the laying farm

d) the code of the housing method

96
Q

which investigation must be performed during the official control of bivalves?

a) faecal contamination of the production area
b) measurement of histamine concentration
c) biotin content of the fresh live bivalves
d) measurements of mercury concentration

A

c) biotin content of the fresh live bivalves
d) measurements of mercury concentration

97
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) during meat ageing the water holding capacity of proteins decreases due to PH reduction
b) during meat ageing the water holding capacity of proteins increases due to PH reduction
c) after bleeding the PH of the muscle tissue of cattle decreases faster due to the final PH than in pigs
d) After bleeding the PH of the muscle tissue of pigs decreases faster due to the final PH than in cattle

A

a) during meat ageing the water holding capacity of proteins decreases due to PH reduction
d) After bleeding the PH of the muscle tissue of pigs decreases faster due to the final PH than in cattle

98
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) lactoscan equipment is used to perform microbial growth inhibition test
b) lactoscan equipment is used by the raw milk reception mainly for the determination of milk fat and milk protein which is important for the price quotation of the milk

c )lactoscan equipment is used to determine the total plate count of the received milk

d) lactoscan equipment is not just useful for raw milk but it is also applied in case of analysing already heat treated milk during the manufacturing of dairy products

A

b) lactoscan equipment is used by the raw milk reception mainly for the determination of milk fat and milk protein which is important for the price quotation of the milk
d) lactoscan equipment is not just useful for raw milk but it is also applied in case of analysing already heat treated milk during the manufacturing of dairy products

99
Q

which methods may be useful for determining the water added to the milk (possible food adulteration):

a) alcohol test
b) density measurement

c )peroxidase test

d) measuring the freezing point

A

b) density measurement
d) measuring the freezing point

100
Q

what is the role of nitrite in cured meat products:

a) it is prohibiting the growth of germs of clostridium botulinum
b) it causes a red colour to the cured meat, which is NOT heat resistant

c )it has an antioxidant effect and decreases the possibility of rancidity

d) it has no role since it is not allowed to apply in the EU

A

a) it is prohibiting the growth of germs of clostridium botulinum

c )it has an antioxidant effect and decreases the possibility of rancidity

101
Q

which of the following statements are true:

a) the E. coli produces beta-galactosidase enzyme

b )the E. coli produced beta-glucuronidase enzyme

c) the E. coli are able to survive at 60˚C for 30 minutes
d) the E. coli are UV fluorescent

A

a) the E. coli produces beta-galactosidase enzyme

b )the E. coli produced beta-glucuronidase enzyme

102
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) in the food law the hunted wild game is considered a primary product such as the live animals
b) in the food law the hunted wild game is considered an unprocessed product such as fresh meat
c) Antemortem inspection of hunted wild game shall be performed by a veterinarian
d) Antemortem inspection of hunted wild game shall be performed by the hunter

A

a) in the food law the hunted wild game is considered a primary product such as the live animals
d) Antemortem inspection of hunted wild game shall be performed by the hunter

103
Q

what is the difference between the food industrial by products and wastes?

a) it is generally not inevitable

b )exclusively legal requirements may decide on it

c) rules of food hygiene strictly apply to its further fate
d) not to be treated with the plant

A

a) it is generally not inevitable
c) rules of food hygiene strictly apply to its further fate

104
Q

which of the following are true for the trichinella examination:

a) faecal samples are used

b )muscle samples are used

c) the basis of examination is the detection of trichinella larvae
d) in the slaughterhouse maximum 5 animals must be sampled each day

A

b )muscle samples are used

c) the basis of examination is the detection of trichinella larvae

105
Q

which of the following eggs can be fit for human consumption:

a) cracked

b )contaminated shell

c) blood ring
d) mixed content

A

a) cracked

b )contaminated shell

106
Q

what are the advantages of combining chromatographic and mass spectrometric methods:

a) more reliable qualitative analysis
b) more sensitive qualitative analysis
c) more cost-effective procedures
d) all statements are true

A

a) more reliable qualitative analysis
b) more sensitive qualitative analysis

107
Q

which organic acid and what PH was applied successfully during our practice:

a) Formic acid

b )PH 6.5

c) Sorbic acid

d )PH 4.5

A

c) Sorbic acid

d )PH 4.5

108
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) in most European countries single uniform food chain control authority is involved in the official food control
b) In Hungary, there is a single uniform food chain authority
c) in most European countries single uniform food chain control authority is involved in the official food control
d) in most European countries multiple authorities with shared responsibilities are involved in the official food control

A

a) in most European countries single uniform food chain control authority is involved in the official food control
b) In Hungary, there is a single uniform food chain authority

109
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) in case of anthrax infection, an immediate slaughter of affected animals shall be ordered
b) in case of suspected anthrax infection, the animals must not be slaughtered

c )in case of suspicion of paratuberculosis, the animals suspected of being infected can be slaughtered unconditionally at a slaughterhouse

d )In case of suspicion of paratuberculosis, the animals suspected of being infected must be slaughtered separately at the slaughterhouse

A

b) in case of suspected anthrax infection, the animals must not be slaughtered

d )In case of suspicion of paratuberculosis, the animals suspected of being infected must be slaughtered separately at the slaughterhouse

110
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) surface contamination of eggs shall be removed by washing in the egg packing centres

b )surface contamination of eggs must not be removed by washing in the egg packing centres

c )candling shall be performed only at those farms that deliver eggs for direct sale on the market

d) candling shall be performed at all farms that produce eggs for human consumption

A

b )surface contamination of eggs must not be removed by washing in the egg packing centres

c )candling shall be performed only at those farms that deliver eggs for direct sale on the market

111
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) any hunted large game shall be eviscerated on the spot as soon as possible

b )the hunted large game shall be eviscerated in the game collection centre

c) the hunted large game shall be skinned on the spot
d) the hunted large game must not be skinned on the spot

A

a) any hunted large game shall be eviscerated on the spot as soon as possible
d) the hunted large game must not be skinned on the spot

112
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the routine post-mortem meat inspection of adult cattle is performed by visual inspection only
b) the routine post-mortem meat inspection of pigs is performed by visual inspection only
c) as part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be sliced

d )in pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be inspected by incision

A

b) the routine post-mortem meat inspection of pigs is performed by visual inspection only

d )in pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be inspected by incision

113
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) as part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the bronchial and mediastinal lymph nodes shall be sliced
b) as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old, the bronchial and the mediastinal lymph nodes shall be sliced

c )as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old, the heart shall be opened lengthways

d) as part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the heart shall be opened lengthways

A

b) as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old, the bronchial and the mediastinal lymph nodes shall be sliced

c )as part of the routine meat inspection of cattle > 8 months old, the heart shall be opened lengthways

114
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) one of the decisions concerning the meat is the conditional fitness for human consumption
b) the meat can be declared fit for human consumption after treatment
c) in poultry, the fact that the meat is fir for human consumption is expressed by the application of the identity mark
d) in poultry, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamp)

A

b) the meat can be declared fit for human consumption after treatment
c) in poultry, the fact that the meat is fir for human consumption is expressed by the application of the identity mark

115
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) S. aureus may also be excreted with the milk during the subclinical stadium of mastitis
b) S. aureus is not excreted with the milk during the subclinical stadium of mastitis
c) the heat resistance mycobacterium paratuberculosis is lower than that of M. bovis
d) the heat resistance of mycobacterium paratuberculosis is higher than that of M. bovis

A

a) S. aureus may also be excreted with the milk during the subclinical stadium of mastitis
d) the heat resistance of mycobacterium paratuberculosis is higher than that of M. bovis

116
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) Alkaline phosphatase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of high temperatures short time (HTST) pasteurisation

b )Peroxidase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of HTST pasteurisation

c) Alkaline phosphatase is inactivates at 72˚C within 15 seconds
d) Peroxidase is inactivated at 72˚C within 15 seconds

A

a) Alkaline phosphatase test can be used for determining the effectiveness of high temperatures short time (HTST) pasteurisation
c) Alkaline phosphatase is inactivates at 72˚C within 15 seconds

117
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) combined preservation is based on the hurdle concept

b )combined preservation is based on the hazard analysis concept

c )in protective atmosphere packaging, oxygen is partially replaced by carbon dioxide and nitrogen

d) in protective atmosphere packaging, carbon dioxide is partly replaced by oxygen and nitrogen

A

a) combined preservation is based on the hurdle concept

c )in protective atmosphere packaging, oxygen is partially replaced by carbon dioxide and nitrogen

118
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) Aflatoxin-producing mould species may occur also in Central Europe, but do not produce toxins under these climatic conditions

b )Aflatoxin-producing mould species may occur in Central Europe, and can produce toxins due to the climatic change

c) Ochratoxins can only be produced under hot climatic conditions
d) ochratoxins are also produced under temperate climatic conditions

A

b )Aflatoxin-producing mould species may occur in Central Europe, and can produce toxins due to the climatic change

d) ochratoxins are also produced under temperate climatic conditions

119
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the minimum water activity of campylobacters is lower than that of salmonellae

b )the minimum water activity of campylobacters is higher than that of salmonellae

c) campylobacters are thermophilic bacteria that cannot grow below 30˚C
d) campylobacters are psychrophilic bacteria that can still grow below 5˚C

A

b )the minimum water activity of campylobacters is higher than that of salmonellae

c) campylobacters are thermophilic bacteria that cannot grow below 30˚C

120
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) food safety expresses that the food is harmless for human consumption

b )food hygiene expresses that the food is harmless for human consumption

c) food safety includes the conditions and measures needed to establish the safety of our foods
d) Food hygiene includes the conditions and measures needed to establish the safety of our foods

A

a) food safety expresses that the food is harmless for human consumption
d) Food hygiene includes the conditions and measures needed to establish the safety of our foods

121
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the D value is the time needed to a decimal reduction of the live cell count

b )the D value is the temperature increase necessary for a tenfold reduction of the thermal death time

c) the Z value is the time needed to a decimal reduction of live cell count

d )the Z value is the temperature increase necessary for a tenfold reduction of the thermal death time

A

a) the D value is the time needed to a decimal reduction of the live cell count

d )the Z value is the temperature increase necessary for a tenfold reduction of the thermal death time

122
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the HACCP plan should be establishment- and product- specific

b )the GHP plan should be establishment- and product -specific

c) the GHP concept focusses on the hazards not properly manageable by the HACCP
d) the HACCP concept focuses on the hazards not properly manageable by the GHP

A

a) the HACCP plan should be establishment- and product- specific
d) the HACCP concept focuses on the hazards not properly manageable by the GHP

123
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) in general, the heat resistance of microorganisms reduces as water activity decreases

b )in general, the heat resistance of microorganisms increases as water activity decreases

c )the heat resistance of microbes is the lowest at the PH optimum for their growth

d) the heat resistance of microbes os the highest at the PH optimum for their growth

A

b )in general, the heat resistance of microorganisms increases as water activity decreases

d) the heat resistance of microbes os the highest at the PH optimum for their growth

124
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) in food processing plants water of drinking quality shall be used for hand washing and cleaning, as well

b )in food processing plants water of non-potable quality can be used for hand washing and cleaning

c )Equipment surfaces coming into direct contact with food shall be easy to clean and disinfect

d )Equipment surfaces coming into contact with food shall be sterile

A

a) in food processing plants water of drinking quality shall be used for hand washing and cleaning, as well

c )Equipment surfaces coming into direct contact with food shall be easy to clean and disinfect

125
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) the redox potential of fresh meat is higher than that of minced meat

b )the redox potential of fresh meat is lower than that of minced meat

c) in general, the PH optimum of bacteria is lower than that of moulds

d )In general, the PH optimum of bacteria is higher than that of moulds

A

a) the redox potential of fresh meat is higher than that of minced meat

d )In general, the PH optimum of bacteria is higher than that of moulds

126
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the efficacy of iodophors is increased by the elevation of temperature

b )the efficacy of iodophors is decreased by the elevation of temperature

c) the cation active tensides exhibit pronounced disinfecting properties
d) the anion-tensides exhibit pronounced disinfecting properties

A

b )the efficacy of iodophors is decreased by the elevation of temperature

c) the cation active tensides exhibit pronounced disinfecting properties

127
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) Food chain of animal foodstuffs does not include the farm and feed industry

b )food chain of animal foodstuffs also includes the farm and feed industry

c) Food safety is primarily based on consumer’s expectations
d) food quality is primarily based on consumer’s expectations

A

b )food chain of animal foodstuffs also includes the farm and feed industry

d) food quality is primarily based on consumer’s expectations

128
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the infective dose of campylobacters is high, at least 10 000 cells are needed to cause disease in humans

b )the infective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 bacterial cells can cause disease in humans

c) the infective dose of campylobacters is higher than that of salmonellae
d) the infective dose of campylobacters is lower than that of salmonellae

A

b )the infective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 bacterial cells can cause disease in humans

d) the infective dose of campylobacters is lower than that of salmonellae

129
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) the effective dose of salmonellae is low, at least 100-500 bacterial cells can cause disease in humans

b )the effective dose of campylobacter is low, even 100-500 bacterial cells can cause disease

c) the infective dose of campylobacters is higher than that of salmonellae

d )the infective dose of campylobacters is lower than that of salmonellae

A

b )the effective dose of campylobacter is low, even 100-500 bacterial cells can cause disease

d )the infective dose of campylobacters is lower than that of salmonellae

130
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the infective dose of salmonellae is low, even 100-500 bacterial cells can cause disease in humans

b )the infective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 bacterial cells can cause disease in humans

c) the infective dose of EHEC strains is lower than that of other E. coli strains

d )the infective dose of EHEC strains is higher than that of other E. coli strains

A

b )the infective dose of campylobacters is low, even 100-500 bacterial cells can cause disease in humans

c) the infective dose of EHEC strains is lower than that of other E. coli strains

131
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) botulinum toxin is a neurotoxin that causes flaccid paralysis of the muscles

b )botulinum toxin is an emetic toxin that causes gastrointestinal signs

c) the emetic toxin of bacillus cereus is heat sensitive
d) the diarrheic toxin of bacillus cereus is heat sensitive

A

a) botulinum toxin is a neurotoxin that causes flaccid paralysis of the muscles
d) the diarrheic toxin of bacillus cereus is heat sensitive

132
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) listeria monocytogenes is a psychrophilic bacterium

b )listeria monocytogenes is a mesophilic bacterium

c )salmonella entertidis is a psychrophilic bacterium

d) salmonella enteritis is a mesophilic bacterium

A

a) listeria monocytogenes is a psychrophilic bacterium
d) salmonella enteritis is a mesophilic bacterium

133
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) verotoxin producing E. coli may cause haemolytic uraemia syndrome in humans

b )listeria monocytogenes may cause haemolytic uraemia syndrome in humans

c) Verotoxin producing E. coli may cause colitis in calves
d) verotoxin E. coli may cause colitis in piglets

A

a) verotoxin producing E. coli may cause haemolytic uraemia syndrome in humans
c) Verotoxin producing E. coli may cause colitis in calves

134
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) yersinia enterocolitica is a mesophilic bacterium

b )yersinia enterocolica is a psychrophilic bacterium

c) yersinia enterocolica typically causes extra intestinal signs in humans

d )yersinia enterocolica typically causes intestinal signs in humans

A

b )yersinia enterocolica is a psychrophilic bacterium

d )yersinia enterocolica typically causes intestinal signs in humans

135
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) salmonellae are mesophilic organisms

b )salmonellae are thermophilic organisms

c )campylobacter are thermophilic bacteria

d) campylobacters are mesophilic bacteria

A

a) salmonellae are mesophilic organisms

c )campylobacter are thermophilic bacteria

136
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the serotypes of salmonella causing typhus in animals are capable of causing disease in humans
b) the serotypes of salmonella causing typhus in animals are NOT capable of causing disease in humans

c )salmonella enteritidis is the serotype that caused most food borne salmonellosis in humans

d) salmonella gallinarium is the serotype that causes the most food borne salmonellosis in humans

A

b) the serotypes of salmonella causing typhus in animals are NOT capable of causing disease in humans

c )salmonella enteritidis is the serotype that caused most food borne salmonellosis in humans

137
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the toxin produced by S. aureus in the food is a neurotoxin that produces flaccid paralysis
b) the toxin produced by S. aureus in food is an emetic one

c )the toxins produced by S. aureus in food are heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling

d) the botulinum toxin is a heat resistant one and can only be inactivated by long boiling

A

b) the toxin produced by S. aureus in food is an emetic one

c )the toxins produced by S. aureus in food are heat resistant and can only be inactivated by long boiling

138
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the acid resistance of verotoxin-producing strains is higher than other E. coli strains

b )the acid resistance of verotoxin-producing strains is lower than other E. coli strains

c) the hamburger disease is caused by verotoxin-producing E. coli
d) the hamburger disease is caused by listeria monocytogenes

A

a) the acid resistance of verotoxin-producing strains is higher than other E. coli strains
c) the hamburger disease is caused by verotoxin-producing E. coli

139
Q

chose the correct statements:

a) polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) can be generated during the frying of foods with high carbohydrate content

b )Acrylamide can be generated during the frying of foods with high carbohydrate content

c) Heterocyclic amines can be formed during the frying of foods of high carbohydrate content
d) heterocyclic amines can be formed during the frying of meat

A

b )Acrylamide can be generated during the frying of foods with high carbohydrate content

d) heterocyclic amines can be formed during the frying of meat

140
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) ciguatera toxins accumulate in shellfish

b )ciguatera toxins accumulate in fish

c )scombrotoxin is a histamine

d) scombrotoxin is a shellfish poison

A

b )ciguatera toxins accumulate in fish

c )scombrotoxin is a histamine

141
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) chlorinated hydrocarbons are cholinesterase inhibitors

b )organophosphates are cholinesterase inhibitors

c) pyrethroids are synthetic derivatives of pyrethrins
d) pyrethrins are synthetic derivatives of pyrethroids

A

b )organophosphates are cholinesterase inhibitors

c) pyrethroids are synthetic derivatives of pyrethrins

142
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) scombrotoxin is a biogenic amine

b )scombrotoxin is a mycotoxin

c) patulin is a mycotoxin
d) solanine is a mycotoxin

A

a) scombrotoxin is a biogenic amine
c) patulin is a mycotoxin

143
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) human diseases caused by yersinia enterocolica are mainly due to the consumption of raw underdone beef

b )Human diseases caused by yersinia enterocolica are mainly due to the consumption of raw underdone pork

c )human diseases caused by campylobacter jejuni are mainly caused by the consumption of raw or underdone pork

d) human diseases caused by campylobacter jejuni are mainly caused by the consumption of raw or undercooked poultry meat

A

b )Human diseases caused by yersinia enterocolica are mainly due to the consumption of raw underdone pork

d) human diseases caused by campylobacter jejuni are mainly caused by the consumption of raw or undercooked poultry meat

144
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) nitrosamines can get into the organism or the consumer with foods, but can also be generated in the stomach

b )nitrosamines can get into the organism or the consumer with foods, but can also be generated in the intestines

c )PAHs are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials

d) nitrosamines are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials

A

a) nitrosamines can get into the organism or the consumer with foods, but can also be generated in the stomach

c )PAHs are generated during the imperfect combustion of organic materials

145
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, its main target is the liver

b )aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, its main target organ is the kidneys

c )ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target organ is the liver

d) ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target organ is the kidneys

A

a) aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, its main target is the liver
d) ochratoxins are genotoxic compounds, their main target organ is the kidneys

146
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level must not be used for production of animal feedstuffs

b )carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level can be used for the production of animal feedstuffs

c )carcasses containing prohibited substances must not be used for the production of animal feedstuffs

d) carcasses containing prohibited substances can be utilised for production of animal feedstuffs

A

a) carcasses containing veterinary drugs above the permitted level must not be used for production of animal feedstuffs

c )carcasses containing prohibited substances must not be used for the production of animal feedstuffs

147
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) plants take up cadmium from the soil through their roots and store it in their tissues

b )plants take up lead from the soil through their roots and store it in their tissues

c )methylmercury is bioaccumulated in the aquatic food chain and may reach high concentrations in predators

d )methylmercury is bioaccumulated in the terrestrial food chain and may reach high concentrations in predators

A

a) plants take up cadmium from the soil through their roots and store it in their tissues

c )methylmercury is bioaccumulated in the aquatic food chain and may reach high concentrations in predators

148
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the dissolution of cadmium from soils is facilitated by the decrease of PH
b) the dissolution of lead from the soil is facilitated by the decrease of PH

c )lead mostly occurs as a surface contaminant of plants and can be removed through washing

d) cadmium mostly occurs as a surface contaminant of plants and can be removed through washing

A

a) the dissolution of cadmium from soils is facilitated by the decrease of PH

c )lead mostly occurs as a surface contaminant of plants and can be removed through washing

149
Q

choose the correct statement:

a) the water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is higher than those prepared by slow curing

b )the water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is lower than those prepared by slow curing

c) meat products prepared by slow curing must be stored chilled
d) meat products prepared by quick curing must be chilled

A

a) the water activity of meat products prepared by quick curing is higher than those prepared by slow curing
d) meat products prepared by quick curing must be chilled

150
Q

choose the correct answers:

a) moulds usually multiply faster than bacteria, therefore in spoilage associations mostly moulds become dominant

b )moulds usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria

c) yeasts usually multiply faster than bacteria, therefore in spoilage associations mostly moulds become dominant
d) yeasts usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria

A

b )moulds usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria

d) yeasts usually grow slower than bacteria, therefore they may become dominant in spoilage associations under conditions that are unfavourable for bacteria

151
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the typical, lasting red colour of cured meats is due to nitromyoglobin

b )the typical, lasting red colour of cured meats is due to oxymyoghobin

c )for slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrite-containing curing may be used

d) for slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrate containing curing salt may be used

A

a) the typical, lasting red colour of cured meats is due to nitromyoglobin
d) for slow curing with dry salting, exclusively a nitrate containing curing salt may be used

152
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) redox potentials of food is characterised by aw value

b )redox potentials of food is characterised by Eh value

c )moulds and yeasts prefer more acidic (4.5-6) PH than bacteria (6-8)

d) moulds and yeasts prefer more alkaline PH than bacteria

A

b )redox potentials of food is characterised by Eh value

c )moulds and yeasts prefer more acidic (4.5-6) PH than bacteria (6-8)

153
Q

choose the correct answer:

a) nitrites can enter into a reaction with amines forming nitrosamines
b) nitrates can enter into a reaction with amines forming nitrosamines

c )cold smoking is more effective against moulds than against bacteria

d) cold smoking is less effective against moulds than against bacteria

A

a) nitrites can enter into a reaction with amines forming nitrosamines

d) cold smoking is less effective against moulds than against bacteria

154
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is similar too that of mesophilic bacteria

b )heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is much higher than that of mesophilic bacteria

c )based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilisation equivalent is 2.52 minutes

d )based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilisation equivalent is 0.21 minutes

A

a) heat resistance of moulds and yeasts is similar too that of mesophilic bacteria

c )based on the 12D principle, the minimum sterilisation equivalent is 2.52 minutes

155
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) heat treatment is the fundamental method used for destroying microorganisms and inactivating tissue enzymes

b )freezing is a fundamental method used for destroying microorganisms and inactivating enzymes

c )spoilage bacteria can grow down to -18˚C

d) spoilage moulds can grow down to -18˚C

A

a) heat treatment is the fundamental method used for destroying microorganisms and inactivating tissue enzymes
d) spoilage moulds can grow down to -18˚C

156
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) After UHT treatment the milk is packed aseptically

b )after heat treatment at very high temperature (ESL) the milk is packed aseptically

c) UHT-treated milk needs cold storage
d) milk treated at very high temperature (ESL) needs cold storage

A

a) After UHT treatment the milk is packed aseptically
d) milk treated at very high temperature (ESL) needs cold storage

157
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the maximum allowed somatic cell count in a raw cow’s milk is 100 000/ml

b )the maximum allowed somatic cell count of a raw cow’s milk is 400 000/ ml

c )the total plate count at 30˚C in a raw cow’s milk is maximum 100 000/ ml

d )the total plate count at 30˚C in raw cow’s milk is maximum 400 000/ ml

A

b )the maximum allowed somatic cell count of a raw cow’s milk is 400 000/ ml

c )the total plate count at 30˚C in a raw cow’s milk is maximum 100 000/ ml

158
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) L. monocytogenes is rather heat resistant, it can survive the pasteurisation
b) L. monocytogenes is rather heat sensitive, it cannot survive the pasteurisation

c )S. aureus is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurisation

d )S. aureus it rather heat resistant, it can survive the pasteurisation

A

b) L. monocytogenes is rather heat sensitive, it cannot survive the pasteurisation

c )S. aureus is rather sensitive to heat, it cannot survive the pasteurisation

159
Q

choose the correct statements:

a)cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of caseins

b )cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of milk fats (butter)

c) late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes caused by clostridia
d) late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes caused by coliforms

A

a) cheesemaking is based on the coagulation of caseins
c) late blowing of hard cheeses resulting in large holes caused by clostridia

160
Q

choose the correct answer:

a) skimming increases the density of milk
b) skimming decreases the density of milk
c) mastitis usually increases the electrical conductivity of milk

d )mastitis usually decreases the electrical conductivity of milk

A

a) skimming increases the density of milk
c) mastitis usually increases the electrical conductivity of milk

161
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the fermentation of yoghurt is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria
b) the fermentation of kefir is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria

c )for manufacturing of yoghurts, the milk is pasteurised at high temperature for 2-3 minutes

d) for manufacturing of yoghurts, the milk is pasteurised at low temperatures without holding

A

a) the fermentation of yoghurt is performed with a mixture of two thermophilic bacteria

c )for manufacturing of yoghurts, the milk is pasteurised at high temperature for 2-3 minutes

162
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) for manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurised at low temperature without holding

b )for manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurised at high temperature with holding

c) for manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurisation are due to technical aspects
d) for manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurisation are due to food safety aspects

A

b )for manufacturing of butter, the raw cream is pasteurised at high temperature with holding

d) for manufacturing of butter, the temperature and time conditions used for pasteurisation are due to food safety aspects

163
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) as part of the ante-mortem health inspection at the farm, identity checks must be performed on a minimum of 10% of pigs

b )as a part of the antemortem health inspection at the farm, identity checks must be performed on at least 10% of bovine animals

c )as a part of the antemortem health inspection at the farm, each single cattle must be checked

d )as part of the antemortem health inspection at the farm, each single pig must be identified

A

a) as part of the ante-mortem health inspection at the farm, identity checks must be performed on a minimum of 10% of pigs

c )as a part of the antemortem health inspection at the farm, each single cattle must be checked

164
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) rigor mortis develops because of the reduction of PH
b) Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP
c) the lack of ATP makes it impossible for actomyosin to dissociate
d) the inadequate reduction of PH makes it impossible for actomyosin to dissociate

A

b) Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP
c) the lack of ATP makes it impossible for actomyosin to dissociate

165
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) in pigs, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamp)
b) in pigs, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the identity mark

c )in cattle, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamp)

d) In cattle, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the identity mark

A

a) in pigs, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamp)

c )in cattle, the fact that the meat is fit for human consumption is expressed by the application of the health mark (meat stamp)

166
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) PSE-type meat ageing is a consequence of less-than average PH drop
b) DFD meat ageing is a consequence is a consequence of a less than average PH drop
c) DFD meat is more prone to spoilage

d )PSE meat is more prone to spoilage

A

a) PSE-type meat ageing is a consequence of less-than average PH drop
c) DFD meat is more prone to spoilage

167
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) in the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a community regulation
b) in the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a community directive
c) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in the corresponding legislation is mandatory for all member states

d )In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in the corresponding legislation shall be adopted by the individual member states

A

a) in the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in a community regulation
c) In the EU, the meat inspection rules are laid down in the corresponding legislation is mandatory for all member states

168
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) identification marking shall be applied on the packaging of poultry carcass

b )identification marking shall be applied directly on the poultry carcass

c )every poultry carcass shall be tested for surface salmonella contamination at the slaughterhouse

d) once a week, minimum 15 poultry carcasses shall be tested for surface salmonella contamination

A

a) identification marking shall be applied on the packaging of poultry carcass
d) once a week, minimum 15 poultry carcasses shall be tested for surface salmonella contamination

169
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) broilers are usually scolded at higher temperatures than waterfowl

b )waterfowl are usually scalded at higher temperatures than broilers

c )Air chilling is superior in terms of hygiene to immersion chilling

d )immersion chilling is superior to air chilling in terms of hygiene

A

b )waterfowl are usually scalded at higher temperatures than broilers

c )Air chilling is superior in terms of hygiene to immersion chilling

170
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the head of the cattle is removed during the slaughtering process

b )the head of pigs is removed during the slaughtering process

c) In pigs, the bleeding is performed by two knife method
d) in cattle, the bleeding is performed by the two knife method

A

a) the head of the cattle is removed during the slaughtering process
d) in cattle, the bleeding is performed by the two knife method

171
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the routine meat inspection of bovine animals < 8 months shall be performed visually

b )the routine meat inspection of bovine animals < 8 months shell be performed by visual inspection, palpation and incision

c )As part of the routine meat inspection of young cattle < 8 months, the retropharyngeal lymph nodes shall be sliced

d )in young cattle < 8 months, the retrophayrngeal lymph nodes shall be sliced in case of suspect only

A

b )the routine meat inspection of bovine animals < 8 months shell be performed by visual inspection, palpation and incision

d )in young cattle < 8 months, the retrophayrngeal lymph nodes shall be sliced in case of suspect only

172
Q

choose the correct statements:

a) the routine post mortem meat inspection of cattle is performed by visual inspection only

b )the routine post mortem meat inspection of pigs is performed by visual inspection only

c )As part of the routine meat inspection of pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be sliced to exclude tuberculosis

d )in pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be inspected by incision in case of suspect only

A

b )the routine post mortem meat inspection of pigs is performed by visual inspection only

d )in pigs, the submaxillary lymph nodes shall be inspected by incision in case of suspect only

173
Q

Which is correct?

a) Yeast water activity is higher then bacterias
b) Yeast water activity is lower than bacteria
c) Mould water activity is lower than bacteria
d) Mould water activity is higher then bacteria

A

b) Yeast water activity is lower than bacteria
c) Mould water activity is lower than bacteria

174
Q

Heat treated milk can be secondary infected by:

a) Listeria
b) Aspergillus flavus
c) Yeast
d) Bacillus cereus

A

a) Listeria
d) Bacillus cereus

175
Q

Which disease is a zoonosis:

a) Atypical mycobacteriosis of swine
b) Swine erysipelas
c) Mycoplasma pneumonia of swine
d) Actinobacillus pleuropneumonia of swine

A

a) Atypical mycobacteriosis of swine
b) Swine erysipelas

176
Q

Which of the following information shall be labelled on the frozen stored product:

a) Name of employee who received the goods
b) Use-by date
c) Intended use
d) Exact name of the product

A

b) Use-by date
d) Exact name of the product

177
Q

Which operation requires approval based on the 853/2004/EC regulation?

a) Game processing
b) Primary production
c) Egg collection
d) Wholesale of products of animal origin

A

a) Game processing
d) Wholesale of products of animal origin

178
Q

Choose the correct statements:

a) Any fresh meat of pigs or cattle put on the market without health marking (meat stamp) shall be regarded as an illegal distribution
b) Any fresh meat of pigs or cattle put on the market without identification marking shall be regarded as illegal distribution
c) The health mark (meat stamp) shall include the approval number of the concerned establishment, but it is not included in the identification marking
d) Both the health mark and the identification marking shall include the approval number of the concerned establishment

A

a) Any fresh meat of pigs or cattle put on the market without health marking (meat stamp) shall be regarded as an illegal distribution
d) Both the health mark and the identification marking shall include the approval number of the concerned establishment

179
Q

What requirements should be met during the storage of raw milk in milk silos?

a) The max. storage temp. of raw milk is 3C
b) The max. storage temp. of raw milk is 6C
c) The inner surface of the stainless steel milk silos should be intact
d) The temperature registration in the milk silos is discontinuous

A

b) The max. storage temp. of raw milk is 6C
c) The inner surface of the stainless steel milk silos should be intact

180
Q

Which of these requirements should be met during the transportation of raw milk?

a) The temp. of raw milk should be kept under 10C during transport
b) The contamination of raw milk should be avoided
c) The tank truck can transport milk only from one milking station at a time

d) The tank truck should transport milk only if all independent units can be used in full volume capacity

A

a) The temp. of raw milk should be kept under 10C during transport
b) The contamination of raw milk should be avoided

181
Q

a) Late blowing occurs by hard cheeses
b) Late blowing can occur by acid-coagulated cheeses
c) Late blowing can occur due to the heat-resistant Bacillus spores, which produce gas during germination and this leads to large holes and cracks
d) Late blowing can occur due to the heat-resistant Clostridium spores, which produce gas during germination and this leads to large holes and cracks

A

a) Late blowing occurs by hard cheeses
d) Late blowing can occur due to the heat-resistant Clostridium spores, which produce gas during germination and this leads to large holes and cracks

182
Q

What are the conditions for enterotoxin production of S. aureus?

a) Just over 10˚C
b) 40-60% of the strains that cause mastitis are capable of its production
c) The minimal germ count’ of human toxicosis is 10^6/ml.
d) The most common form of contamination is a primary infection

A

a) Just over 10˚C
c) The minimal germ count’ of human toxicosis is 10^6/ml.

183
Q

Fat percentage in sour cream and light cream

a) Light sour cream: 10-15%
b) Sour cream: 15-25%
c )Sour cream: 25-40%
d) Light sour cream: 15-25%

A

a) Light sour cream: 10-15%
b) Sour cream: 15-25%

184
Q

In which species is the Trichinella test obligatory?

a) cattle
b) poultry
c) pig
d) horse

A

c) pig
d) horse

185
Q

What is the weight of L size eggs?

a) > 63g
b) <63g
c) <73g
d) >73g

A

a) > 63g
c) <73g

186
Q

how long can you keep UHT milk?

A

6 months