Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Food hygiene > past questions > Flashcards

past questions Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Gourmet Food flashcards
1
Q

which processes can be performed in the clean area?

  • heading
  • filleting
  • gutting
  • cutting
A
  • filleting
  • cutting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the maximum allowable temperature for ruminant meat?

  • 7˚C for the carcass
  • 4˚C for the carcass
  • 4˚C for the offal
  • 3˚C for the offal
A
  • 7˚C for the carcass
  • 3˚C for the offal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which parts of the body can be removed from the pig before the meat inspection?

  • mandible
  • ear roots
  • tail
  • eyes
A
  • ear roots
  • eyes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is characteristic of BSE?

  • it is really widespread in Europe, vaccination is mandatory once a year
  • It is caused by abnormal prions
  • the carcass of a cow suspected for the disease can only be fit after heat treatment
  • it is caused by abnormal proteins
A
  • It is caused by abnormal prions
  • it is caused by abnormal proteins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what conditions must animal transport meet?

  • Ad libitum drinking water must be provided for the animals
  • Adequate ventilation
  • Ensuring a species specific posture
  • Adequate feed supply
A
  • Adequate ventilation
  • Ensuring a species specific posture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is characteristic for calpains?

  • they have a role in the ageing of poultry meat
  • they can be found in lysosomes
  • they catalyse the degradation of interstitial tissue proteins
  • they particularly catalyse the degradation of actomyosin complex
A
  • they have a role in the ageing of poultry meat
  • they catalyse the degradation of interstitial tissue proteins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what pathogens are part of the food safety criteria for live marine molluscs?

  • L. monocytogenes
  • Salmonella
  • E. coli
  • Coagulase - positive staphlococcus
A
  • Salmonella
  • E. coli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which of these abnormalities are fit for human consumption?

  • DFD meat
  • insufficient bleeding
  • Emaciated animals
  • Lipochromatosis
A
  • DFD meat
  • Lipochromatosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is true for waste refuse?

  • it is done within the same industry (sector)
  • waste is reused in its original form, or with only minor ,modifications
  • only the reuse for the original purpose belongs to this term
  • only the reuse at the site of waste generation belongs to this term
A
  • it is done within the same industry (sector)
  • waste is reused in its original form, or with only minor ,modifications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which of these informations are mandatory?

  • all ingredients with their ratios and percentages
  • the date of manufacturing, given in day/ month/ year format
  • energy content in 100g or 100ml product
  • storage conditions
A
  • all ingredients with their ratios and percentages
  • storage conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the main points of the food chain information?

  • treatments and their withdrawal periods
  • the dates of all vaccinations
  • the size of the farm
  • the information about the authorised veterinarian responsible for the farm
A
  • treatments and their withdrawal periods
  • the information about the authorised veterinarian responsible for the farm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the TRACES system?

  • the aim to track movement of animals and animal products (among other things)
  • it must be used during the trade between member states
  • it must be used when importing from a third country
  • the aim is to find
A
  • the aim to track movement of animals and animal products (among other things)
  • it must be used when importing from a third country
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which of the following is true about emergency slaughter?

  • it means the slaughter of infected and suspected animals
  • it means the slaughter of injured animals
  • it means bloodless killing
  • the meat can be fit for human consumption
A
  • it means the slaughter of injured animals
  • the meat can be fit for human consumption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which of the statements is NOT characteristic of the primary packaging?

  • it is with indirect contact with the food, it is the outer most protection of batches
  • it provides useful information for consumers
  • it can be divides into smaller units, called secondary packaging
  • it is important that it does not pose a human health risk
A
  • it is with indirect contact with the food, it is the outer most protection of batches
  • it can be divides into smaller units, called secondary packaging
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which term does NOT belong to the definition of waste?

  • hazardous material
  • became redundant on the site of generation
  • it is not utilisable directly further
  • may be treated together with main mass flow
A
  • hazardous material
  • may be treated together with main mass flow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which of the following sentences are true?

  • in cattle, the head lymph nodes must be palpated in every carcass
  • in pigs, the head’s lymph nodes must be palpated in every carcass
  • Palpation of the organ can cause cross-contamination of the carcass
  • incision of the organs can cause cross-contamination of the carcass
A
  • in cattle, the head lymph nodes must be palpated in every carcass
  • incision of the organs can cause cross-contamination of the carcass
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which of these are NOT mandatory on the food label?

  • name of producer
  • nutritional Claim
  • alcohol content in case of bakery products
  • weight of product
A
  • nutritional Claim
  • alcohol content in case of bakery products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which of these egg’s attributes gives information about its freshness?

  • the size of the airspace
  • the size of the germinal disk
  • the size of the pores
  • the consistency of the albumin
A
  • the size of the airspace
  • the consistency of the albumin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the difference between slow and fast curing?

  • The main difference is in processing, as by slow curing the product is made with salt, nitrites or nitrates for preservation, colour and taste development. Therefore meat parts are merged or surface treated with (pickling) salts and ripened.
  • The main difference is in processing, as by slow curing the product is made with salt, nitrites and nitrates and other additives to help color and taste development. Curing solution is injected and/or added under vacuum to the tissues or surface treated with (pickling) salts and ripened
  • After slow curing the cured meat part can be ripened even for 1 year, which is not typical for fast curing
  • foil packaged ham and pressed ham is made with slow curing and cannot be produced by fats curing
A
  • The main difference is in processing, as by slow curing the product is made with salt, nitrites or nitrates for preservation, colour and taste development. Therefore meat parts are merged or surface treated with (pickling) salts and ripened.
  • After slow curing the cured meat part can be ripened even for 1 year, which is not typical for fast curing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what can we use to differentiate between icterus and carotenosis?

  • With the Loeffer’s test
  • by checking the solubility of the yellow pigment
  • looking for signs of disease, malaise in the live animal
  • with cooking test
A
  • by checking the solubility of the yellow pigment
  • looking for signs of disease, malaise in the live animal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which of these are allergens?

  • sesame seeds
  • Parsley
  • Anise/ Aniseed (pimpinella anisum)
  • mustard
A
  • sesame seeds
  • mustard
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which conditions must be ensured on the farm?

  • the stock must be continuously be investigated by a veterinarian
  • evisceration of game is prohibited on the farm
  • the game can be processed on the farm
  • Farm has to be adequate premises to perform a hygienic slaughter
A
  • the stock must be continuously be investigated by a veterinarian
  • Farm has to be adequate premises to perform a hygienic slaughter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which countries operate the RASFF system?

  • EU member states
  • The European countries
  • Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, and Liechtenstein
  • Turkey, Israel, and Moldova
A
  • EU member states
  • Switzerland, Norway, Iceland, and Liechtenstein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which of the following statements are TRUE?

  • the decreased PH is due to lactic acid
  • the increased PH is due to ammonia
  • it takes around 45 mins
  • the final PH is well below 6
A
  • the decreased PH is due to lactic acid
  • the final PH is well below 6
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

the RASFF system contains alerts concerning safety of?

  • Livestock
  • food industrial appliances
  • alcoholic beverages
  • food additives
A
  • Alcoholic beverages
  • food additives
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

which of the following statements is TRUE for the PSE meat?

  • it usually occurs in cattle
  • there is a sudden PH drop at the beginning of the meat ageing
  • the meat is fit for human consumption
  • the glycogen content of the meat is decreased
A
  • there is a sudden PH drop at the beginning of the meat ageing
  • the glycogen content of the meat is decreased
  • (it is also fit for human consumption although of poor quality)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the notifiable diseases of fish?

  • spring viraemia of carp
  • viral haemorrhage septicaemia of salmonids
  • icthyopthirius multifiliis
  • bothriocephalosis
A
  • spring viraemia of carp
  • viral haemorrhage septicaemia of salmonids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what form of biotoxins can occur in fishery products?

  • paralytic shellfish poison (PSP)
  • vomiting shellfish poison (VSP)
  • fainting shellfish poison (FSP)
  • Amnesic shellfish poison (ASP)
A
  • paralytic shellfish poison (PSP)
  • Amnesic shellfish poison (ASP)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

for which fish types is candling part of the official control?

  • skillet
  • herring
  • flounder
  • scomboid species
A
  • skillet
  • flounder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

in the case of fishery products, what sampling is required in case of doubtful results from organoleptic evaluation?

  • total volatile basic nitrogen (TVB-N)
  • Total protein (TP)
  • Cadaverine level (CL)
  • Trimethyl-amin nitrogen (TMA-N)
A
  • Total volatile basic nitrogen (TVB-N)
  • Trimethyl-amin nitrogen (TMA-N)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is true about INTRA trade?

  • it means the trade inside the border of a member state
  • the documentation must be shared through the TRACES system
  • there is a through inspection at the border control post
  • it means the trade between EU member states
A
  • the documentation must be shared through the TRACES system
  • it means the trade between EU member states
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

the meat stamp contains the?

  • approval number of the meat processing plant
  • the abbreviation of the ‘European communities”
  • the ISO code of the country of origin
  • the passport number of the cattle
A
  • the abbreviation of the ‘European communities”
  • the ISO code of the country of origin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the characteristics of meat if the glycogen storage of the muscles was depleted?

  • the PH remains high
  • it is exudative
  • it is unfit for human consumption
  • it is more suitable for bacterial growth
A
  • the PH remains high
  • it is more suitable for bacterial growth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

which techniques can be used for ammonia detection?

  • Reder test
  • Nessler’s test
  • lead acetate test
  • Eber’s test
A
  • Nessler’s test
  • Eber’s test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

which of the following techniques can be used to evaluate the water holding capacity?

  • Eber’s test
  • filter paper method with Grau-Hamm device
  • Warner-Bratzier shear force test
  • measuring the drip loss
A
  • filter paper method with Grau-Hamm device
  • measuring the drip loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which of these informations are mandatory?

  • all ingredients, with their ratios in percentages
  • the date of manufacturing given in day/ month/ year format
  • Energy content in 100g or 100 ml product
  • storage conditions
A
  • all ingredients, with their ratios in percentages
  • storage conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

which of these nutrients is voluntary information on the label of food product?

  • salt
  • fibre
  • protein
  • glucose
A
  • salt
  • protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is characteristic of intelligent packaging?

  • it gives information about the storage conditions of food even before buying the product
  • it is capable to show the actual temperature of a given product
  • the consumer can only see it after opening the food packaging
  • it is mainly used for bakery products to absorb moisture
A
  • it gives information about the storage conditions of food even before buying the product
  • it is capable to show the actual temperature of a given product
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

food industrial wastes are not typified by the following:

  • generally low water content
  • are generated at geographically scattered locations
  • contain quickly decomposing organic materials
  • All can get back to the nature with the natural cycling of biomass
A
  • generally low water content
  • All can get back to the nature with the natural cycling of biomass
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

which word is not among the terms behind the abbreviation RASFF?

  • livestock
  • feed
  • water
  • food
A
  • livestock
  • water
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

which components are responsible for the protection of eggs?

  • Vitamin B
  • high PH
  • cuticle
  • chitin
A
  • cuticle
  • high PH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

which of these are red meat products?

  • salami
  • lyoner
  • foil packaged ham
  • Bologna-type sausages
A
  • lyoner
  • Bologna-type sausages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is characteristic for marketing of hunted game?

  • the hunted game can be marketed to final customer in small amount anyway
  • the hunted game cannot be used for private consumption
  • the hunted game can be marketed to catering facility in small amounts only
  • the hunted game can be marketed by the private consumer
A
  • the hunted game can be marketed to final customer in small amount anyway
  • the hunted game can be marketed to catering facility in small amounts only
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

which statement is true?

  • Due to maintaining the flesh of fish will become softer with characteristic taste
  • salting is not applied during the smoking
  • the fish bodies are ripened for 1-2 years in the metal can in case of canned products
  • the breaded marinading product is produced by cooking of fish
A
  • the fish bodies are ripened for 1-2 years in the metal can in case of canned products
  • the breaded marinading product is produced by cooking of fish
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

where is the identification mark (meat stamp) for poultry and rabbits?

  • in the case of poultry on the packaging
  • in the case of poultry on the carcass
  • in the case of rabbit on the packaging
  • in the case of rabbit on the carcass
A
  • in the case of poultry on the packaging
  • in the case of rabbit on the packaging
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

during the inspection of adult cattle’s heads the …. has to be incised/ cut in every case?

  • retrophayngeal lymph nodes
  • tongue
  • masseter muscles
  • parotid lymph nodes
A
  • retrophayngeal lymph nodes
  • masseter muscles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

in the case of pig slaughter, which pathogens should be tested during the microbiological examination of slaughter hygiene?

  • enterobacteriaceae
  • E. coli
  • Salmonella
  • L. monocytogenes
A
  • enterobacteriaceae
  • Salmonella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

in which cases is the meat stamp not applied?

  • before the arrival of the trichinella results
  • fit for human consumption carcass of a rabbit
  • Non generalised Trichinella infection
  • if the carcass of the slaughtered cattle contain SRM
A
  • fit for human consumption carcass of a rabbit
  • if the carcass of the slaughtered cattle contain SRM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

the veterinarian may ban the slaughter until further measure if….

  • the animals show signs of exhaustion
  • the animals come from a surveillance zone
  • the assessment of the health status of the animals requires further examination
  • the animals have been shown to carry a zoonotic pathogen
A
  • the animals show signs of exhaustion
  • the assessment of the health status of the animals requires further examination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is characteristic for chemical composition?

  • it has high biological value
  • it is an important source of vitamin E
  • it has a high fat content
  • it has a low carbohydrate content
A
  • it has high biological value
  • it has a low carbohydrate content
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what characteristics does an official test include for live fish?

  • sex
  • viability (movement, respiration)
  • body length
  • general health status
A
  • viability (movement, respiration)
  • general health status
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what tests are required for official inspection of frozen fish?

  • floating probe
  • cooking/ frying test
  • muscle parasites
  • water binding capacity
A
  • cooking/ frying test
  • muscle parasites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the histamine limit for fishery products?

  • 100-200 mg/kg for general products
  • 200-400 mg/kg for general products
  • 100-200 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation
  • 200-400 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation
A
  • 100-200 mg/kg for general products
  • 200-400 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

which of the following sentences are true slaughterhouse integrated meat inspection?

  • it means the separated slaughter of suspicious animals
  • it greatly depends on the food chain information
  • it depends on the live animal inspection at the farm
  • slaughtering can only happen at the closest slaughterhouse
A
  • it means the separated slaughter of suspicious animals
  • it depends on the live animal inspection at the farm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

which document check is mandatory during every control?

  • cattle passport
  • the permission of the transporting vehicle
  • animals health certificate
  • common veterinary document
A
  • cattle passport
  • animals health certificate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

which of these are health claims?

  • it can contribute to fibre rich diet
  • it may contribute to healthy brain function
  • the consumption of this food can be inserted to low salt diet
  • it plays a role in proper functions of the immune system
A
  • it may contribute to healthy brain function
  • it plays a role in proper functions of the immune system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

in which case is the oval mark mandatory?

  • sliced meat
  • chocolate
  • bakery products
  • fermented dairy products
A
  • sliced meat
  • fermented dairy products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what kind of rule shall be certainly kept is a material is intended to be used as a by-product in the food industry?

  • precise records shall be kept about it
  • food hygiene rules shall strictly apply
  • it can only be processed on the same processing line as the main product was
  • Expiry/ use to dates are strictly observed
A
  • precise records shall be kept about it
  • food hygiene rules shall strictly apply
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what are the characteristics of grade ‘A’ eggs?

  • it certifies that the egg is fit for human consumption without heat treatment
  • it might be used for the manufacture of egg products
  • the yolk is slightly mobile
  • it doesn’t have an air space
A
  • it certifies that the egg is fit for human consumption without heat treatment
  • the yolk is slightly mobile
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

which of these processing steps are considered as critical points (CCP) by production of Bologna-type sausages?

  • cutting, mixing, grinding
  • shaping, stuffing
  • smoking, cooking
  • cold storage
A
  • smoking, cooking
  • cold storage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

which statement is true?

  • large game can be skin ed on site
  • large game can be eviscerated on site
  • small game must be suspended in pairs on metal hooks
  • small game can be eviscerated on site
A
  • large game can be eviscerated on site
  • small game must be suspended in pairs on metal hooks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

which statement is true?

  • Live bivalves harvested from class ‘B’ production area can be transported to processing establishment without purification or relaying
  • the production areas are classified based on the heavy metal content of the sediment
  • Shellfish collected from class ‘C’ production area must be treated with heat instead of purification in the processing establishment
  • Live bivalves harvested from class ‘A’ production area can be marketed only after heat treatment
A
  • the production areas are classified based on the heavy metal content of the sediment
  • Shellfish collected from class ‘C’ production area must be treated with heat instead of purification in the processing establishment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

typically how are poultry placed in the transport vehicle?

  • tied up
  • folded up on feet
  • in fixed cages
  • in mobile crates
A
  • in fixed cages
  • in mobile crates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are the signs of successful stunning in cattle?

  • the animal immediately collapses without trying to stand
  • torticollis
  • no corneal reflex
  • automatic defecation
A
  • the animal immediately collapses without trying to stand
  • no corneal reflex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

the stunning of pigs usually happens?

  • mechanically with a stunning gun
  • by carbon dioxide gas chambers
  • with electrodes placed on the head
  • mechanically by a device that causes concussion
A
  • by carbon dioxide gas chambers
  • with electrodes placed on the head
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

which parts of an adult goat are considered SRM?

  • the spinal cord
  • the tonsils
  • the ileum
  • the skull
A
  • the spinal cord
  • the skull
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

which heavy metals are tested for in molluscs?

  • Hg
  • Cu
  • Pb
  • Cd
A
  • Pb
  • Cd
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what are the main points of the food chain information?

  • treatment and withdrawal periods
  • the dates of all vaccinations
  • the size of the farm
  • the information about the authorised veterinarian responsible for the farm
A
  • treatment and withdrawal periods
  • the information about the authorised veterinarian responsible for the farm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

choose the correct statement?

  • rigor mortis develops as a result of anaerobic glycolysis
  • Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP
  • Rigor mortis passes due to the PH increase caused by bacteria
  • rigor mortis massed due to protease enzyme
A
  • rigor mortis develops as a result of anaerobic glycolysis
  • Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

examples of active packaging?

  • fungicide ripening foil
  • labels with QR codes
  • dye indicating the effects of temperature
  • moisture absorbing pads
A
  • fungicide ripening foil
  • moisture absorbing pads
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the relation between the terms of waste management, waste disposal and waste utilisation?

  • Wate utilisation covers waste disposal and the latter one covers waste management
  • Waste management covers waste utilisation and the latter one covers waste disposal
  • waste management covers waste utilisation
  • waste management covers waste disposal
A
  • Wate utilisation covers waste disposal and the latter one covers waste management
  • waste management covers waste disposal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

which term does not belong to the definition of waste?

  • hazardous material
  • became redundant on the site of generation
  • it is not utilisable directly further
  • may be treated together with the main mass flows
A
  • hazardous material
  • may be treated together with the main mass flows
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

which criteria are specified in the 2073/2005 EC regulation?

  • 3-OH-butric acid
  • salmonella spp.
  • enterobacteriaceae
  • campylobacter spp.
A
  • salmonella spp.
  • enterobacteriaceae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Is there a difference in salmonella count between meat products intended to be eaten raw and between poultry meat products intended to be eaten cooked related to food safety criteria?

  • No, in both cases zero tolerance is defined, which means salmonella cannot be present
  • Yes, there is a difference as salmonella is non-compliant only in case of poultry meat products intended to be eaten cooked (0/25g)
  • No, as Salmonella count for meat products intended to be raw is 0/25g, for poultry meat intended to be eaten cooked is 0/25g
  • Yes, there is a difference as salmonella is non-compliant only in case of meat products intended to be eaten raw (0/25g)
A
  • Yes, there is a difference as salmonella is non-compliant only in case of poultry meat products intended to be eaten cooked (0/25g)
  • Yes, there is a difference as salmonella is non-compliant only in case of meat products intended to be eaten raw (0/25g)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what is characterised for a trained person?

  • trained person must have 10 years experience
  • trained person must have hunters certificate issued by the state and special exam for examination
  • trained person can be veterinarian only
  • it is not necessary that the trained person must have special experience
A
  • trained person must have 10 years experience
  • trained person must have hunters certificate issued by the state and special exam for examination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

which statement is TRUE?

  • Live bivalves harvested from class ‘C’ production area can be marketed directly for human consumption
  • Shellfish collected from class ‘A’ production area can be marketed directly for human consumption
  • Live bivalves harvested from class ‘C’ production area can be marketed after long period relaying process
  • Shellfish collected from class ‘B’ production area can be marketed directly for human consumption
A
  • Shellfish collected from class ‘A’ production area can be marketed directly for human consumption
  • Live bivalves harvested from class ‘C’ production area can be marketed after long period relaying process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

in the case of cattle under 8 months of age, which organ inspection is less relevant?

  • umbilical area
  • udder and genitals
  • joints
  • masseters
A
  • udder and genitals
  • masseters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what permits must the animals transport vehicle have?

  • Animal transport vehicles must have a low emission cert in order to protect the quality of the meat
  • The official permission of the vehicle for the transport of live animals
  • A road use permit
  • With the appropriate qualifications of the vehicle crew
A
  • The official permission of the vehicle for the transport of live animals
  • With the appropriate qualifications of the vehicle crew
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is characteristic for myofibrils?

  • they are found in the sarcoplasm
  • they are the contractile element of the muscle
  • the sarcoplastic reticulum surrounded it stores the potassium
  • they are the structural unit of the striated muscle
A
  • they are found in the sarcoplasm
  • they are the contractile element of the muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what is characteristic for aged meat?

  • it has paler brownish colour
  • it has odor of lactic acid
  • it has glassy shine
  • it elastic to tough
A
  • it has paler brownish colour
  • it has odor of lactic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

which pairs are true?

  • Robert Von Ostertag - father of meat inspection
  • Robert Von Ostertag - discovery of the causative agent of anthrax
  • Robert Koch - father of meat inspection
  • Robert Koch - discovery of the causative agent of anthrax
A
  • Robert Von Ostertag - father of meat inspection
  • Robert Koch - discovery of the causative agent of anthrax
82
Q

which parts are considered SRM in every age group of cattle?

  • the last 4 metres of the colon
  • the spinal cord
  • the spleen
  • the tonsils
A
  • the last 4 metres of the colon
  • the tonsils
83
Q

what is the aim of singeing?

  • Removal of fluff
  • Pre-frying the meat for subsequent heat treatments
  • the desired reddish-pink colour of the carcass
  • Reduction of germ count on the surface of the skin
A
  • removal of fluff
  • Reduction of germ count on the surface of the skin
84
Q

which statement is true?

  • the successive Catch of fish must be separated on the factory vessel
  • the clean and contaminated processes must not be separated on the factory vessel
  • Tools and equipment must be produced from those materials that are corrosion resistant to seawater
  • the fishery products must not be chilled on the factory vessel
A
  • the successive Catch of fish must be separated on the factory vessel
  • Tools and equipment must be produced from those materials that are corrosion resistant to seawater
85
Q

which requirement must be met at a game collection centre?

  • the establishment must not be fenced
  • the required temperature is 10˚C in the cold store
  • the establishment must have an adequate cold store to suspend store of carcasses
  • drinking quality water must be used in the establishment
A
  • the establishment must have an adequate cold store to suspend store of carcasses
  • drinking quality water must be used in the establishment
86
Q

when is the description ‘smoke flavoured’ applied on products label?

  • when the product is NOT smoked with hard wood
  • when the smoke flavour is produced using smoke aroma for surface treatment of the product
  • when the product is NOT smoked with birch wood
  • when the smoke flavour is produced with injecting the smoke aroma into the product
A
  • when the smoke flavour is produced using smoke aroma for surface treatment of the product
  • when the smoke flavour is produced with injecting the smoke aroma into the product
87
Q

what is the difference between the professional and legal definition of waste?

  • only technical aspects are covered by the professional definition
  • the professional defines the sub-term of secondary raw materials within the term of waste
  • Legal requirement appears in the legal definition as potential waste generating factor
  • the legal definition is more concrete, concise
A
  • Legal requirement appears in the legal definition as potential waste generating factor
  • the legal definition is more concrete, concise
88
Q

which of these compounds cause the desirable colours of meat?

  • Oxymyoglobin
  • metmyoglobin
  • sulphmyoglobin
  • Bilirubin
A
  • Oxymyoglobin
  • metmyoglobin
89
Q

what can increase the water binding capacity of meat?

  • heat treatment
  • mincing of meat
  • adding of inorganic salt
  • reducing PH
A
  • mincing of meat
  • adding of inorganic salt
90
Q

what is TRUE about category 1 waste?

  • the most valuable category, it can be used for pet food
  • bones, skin, and feathers of healthy animals are considered here
  • the bodies of wild game suspected of a disease with public or animal health risk
  • the category with the highest risk, generally it must be destroyed
A
  • the bodies of wild game suspected of a disease with public or animal health risk
  • the category with the highest risk, generally it must be destroyed
91
Q

within how much time after stunning does the sticking have to be performed?

  • in the case of gas stunning 20s
  • in the case of gas stunning 30s
  • in the case of electronic stunning 20s
  • in the case of electronic stunning 30s
A
  • in the case of gas stunning 30s
  • in the case of electronic stunning 20s
92
Q

what category of waste does ruminant blood count?

  • over 8 months SRM, category 1
  • Category 2 if it comes from a herd which is proven to be BSE free
  • Category 3 if it complies with regulation (EC) no 999/2001
  • suitable for human consumption under 8 months of age (unless otherwise stated)
A
  • Category 2 if it comes from a herd which is proven to be BSE free
  • Category 3 if it complies with regulation (EC) no 999/2001
93
Q

why is it necessary to withdraw feed before the slaughter of poultry?

  • to avoid faecal contamination during transport
  • in order to empty the GI tract to reduce the risk of injury during evisceration
  • for economic reasons, animals are only fed for as long as they have to
  • to keep the animals alert during transport
A
  • to avoid faecal contamination during transport
  • in order to empty the GI tract to reduce the risk of injury during evisceration
94
Q

which fishery products must be stored under ice at a temperature of melting ice?

  • fresh fishery products
  • Edible liver, roe, milt
  • fish to prepare Canned product
  • final product
A
  • fresh fishery products
  • Edible liver, roe, milt
95
Q

when is the hunted game fit for consumption?

  • if the result of the trichinella test is positive
  • if there are no signs or abnormalities that pose potential risk to public health
  • if the animal is cachexic and this has a low fat content
  • if there are no expressed organoleptic changes
A
  • if there are no signs or abnormalities that pose potential risk to public health
  • if there are no expressed organoleptic changes
96
Q

what is typical for raw sausages made with starter culture?

  • Ripening is done by stepwise temperature decrease and starting at higher ripening temperature, than by traditional dry sausage
  • microflora is composed of lactobacillus species, salt resistant and nitrate reducing micrococcus and enterococcus species
  • Raw sausage made with starter cultures have higher PH values than the traditional dry sausages
  • microflora is composed mainly of special mobile moulds, penicillium species
A
  • Ripening is done by stepwise temperature decrease and starting at higher ripening temperature, than by traditional dry sausage
  • microflora is composed of lactobacillus species, salt resistant and nitrate reducing micrococcus and enterococcus species
97
Q

How warm should water be used during washing/ disinfection?

  • tool disinfection minimum 72˚C
  • tool disinfection minimum 82˚C
  • hand washing water minimum 37˚C
  • hand washing water minimum 42˚C
A
  • tool disinfection minimum 82˚C
  • hand washing water minimum 42˚C
98
Q

when is it not obligatory for the official veterinarian to attend a PM inspection?

  • official inspection will be performed by the official auxiliaries withholding the parts showing the lesion
  • Auxiliary staff are regularly checked by a veterinarian
  • Slaughter was announced 72 hours in advance, but there is no official veterinarian in service
  • If less than 10 cattle or less than 50 pigs are slaughtered per week
A
  • official inspection will be performed by the official auxiliaries withholding the parts showing the lesion
  • Auxiliary staff are regularly checked by a veterinarian
99
Q

what is characteristic for cathepsins?

  • they have a role in ageing mammal meat
  • they have main role in degradation of sarcoplasmic proteins
  • they may have important role in ageing of fish flesh
  • they can be activated by calcium ions
A
  • they have main role in degradation of sarcoplasmic proteins
  • they may have an important role in the ageing of fish flesh
100
Q

the carcass is UNFIT for human consumption?

  • Haematoma on the limb
  • sexual odour
  • insufficient blood
  • carcass that belongs to animal that was washed before slaughter
A
  • sexual odour
  • insufficient blood
101
Q

what is the main energy source of the muscle function?

  • the aerobic glycolysis that produced 36 ATP molecules from 1 glucose molecule
  • Reactions series 3 reactions such as glycolysis, oxidative decarboxylation and oxidative phosphorylation
  • the anaerobic glycolysis that produces 36 ATP molecules from 1 glucose molecule
  • the reaction of pyruvate to lactic acid
A
  • the aerobic glycolysis that produced 36 ATP molecules from 1 glucose molecule
  • Reactions series 3 reactions such as glycolysis, oxidative decarboxylation and oxidative phosphorylation
102
Q

how should SRM materials generated during cattle slaughter be handled?

  • they are collected in containers and marked SRM
  • treated in an autoclave at 105˚C before leaving the slaughterhouse
  • poured with heat resistant blue paint
  • collected and treated with category 3 waste
A
  • they are collected in containers and marked SRM
  • poured with heat resistant blue paint
103
Q

which of the following operations are critical control points (CCP) in case of poultry slaughter?

  • stunning, bleeding
  • dressing, eviscersation
  • chilling of the carcass
  • chilling of the offals
A
  • chilling of the carcass
  • chilling of the offals
104
Q

what examination can be used during anti mortem 1. inspection?

  • blood sampling
  • rectal examination
  • visual inspection
  • body temperature measurement
A
  • visual inspection
  • body temperature measurement
105
Q

which of these establishments must be authorised?

  • egg packing centre
  • Egg collector
  • large scale layer farm
  • Egg processing plant
A
  • egg packing centre
  • Egg processing plant
106
Q

what can be found in the RASFF system about the steps taken after discovering the contamination?

  • the concerned product was destroyed
  • the concerned product/ retailer was fined
  • the concerned product was withdrawn from the market
  • the concerned product went under further investigations
A
  • the concerned product was withdrawn from the market
  • the concerned product went under further investigations
107
Q

what is the role of packaging?

  • it protects the food from the effects of the environment to keep the quality of the product
  • in case of frozen products, it allows the consumer to maintain the quality even if the cold chain is broken
  • it is decreasing the amount of food waste
  • it gives an opportunity to present information about the given food and can contribute to consumer awareness
A
  • it protects the food from the effects of the environment to keep the quality of the product
  • it gives an opportunity to present information about the given food and can contribute to consumer awareness
108
Q

which of the following sentences is true?

  • the meat inspection of pig is based on visual inspection
  • in cattle it is always obligatory to incise the mesentery lymph nodes
  • the meat inspection is simpler in young cattle than adult cattle
  • the meat inspection is simpler in young pigs than adult pigs
A
  • the meat inspection of pig is based on visual inspection
  • the meat inspection is simpler in young cattle than adult cattle
109
Q

which sentences are TRUE about the TSE?

  • An OIE listed viral disease
  • the whole carcass of cattle suspected for TSE is considered SRM
  • Abnormal behaviour is a sign of the disease(s)
  • it causes purulent inflammatory nodes in the brain
A
  • the whole carcass of cattle suspected for TSE is considered SRM
  • Abnormal behaviour is a sign of the disease(s)
110
Q

in the case of swine slaughter?

  • the rectum is tied off
  • the oesophagus is tied off
  • the rectum is closed by a polyethylene bag
  • the oesophagus is closed by a polyethylene bag
A
  • the rectum is tied off
  • the rectum is closed by a polyethylene bag
111
Q

which of the following organs should be palpated in all cases in the case of adult bovine animals?

  • spleen
  • Liver
  • Lungs
  • Mesenteric lymph nodes
A
  • Lungs
  • Mesenteric lymph nodes
112
Q

what is the maximum number of animals allowed to be slaughtered per week in the case of small-scale slaughter?

  • 100 chickens
  • 100 turkeys
  • 100 waterfowl
  • 100 rabbits
A
  • 100 turkeys
  • 100 waterfowl
113
Q

what is characteristic for purification centre?

  • shellfish must be purified till at least 2 months
  • microbiological characteristics of water applied to the tank and the purified and non-purified shellfish must be investigated
  • live bivalves must be purified by clean or purified seawater
  • the different marine animal species can be stored together with the shellfish in the same tank
A
  • microbiological characteristics of water applied to the tank and the purified and non-purified shellfish must be investigated
  • live bivalves must be purified by clean or purified seawater
114
Q

which of these abnormalities will make the whole carcass unfit for human consumption?

  • PSE ageing
  • melanosis
  • sexual odour
  • Young age < 7days
A
  • sexual odour
  • Young age < 7days
115
Q

what is characteristic of isotropic zone of myofibril?

  • it is the lighter band of the sarcomere
  • it contains thicker filaments
  • its main component is the actin
  • it had 2 subunits
A
  • it is the lighter band of the sarcomere
  • its main component is the actin
116
Q

which heavy metals are tested for in fish and crustaceans?

  • Fe
  • Pb
  • Hg
  • Cu
A
  • Pb
  • Hg
117
Q

which of these disinfection methods are permitted for eggs in the EU?

  • cleaning and drying
  • UV light
  • chlorine
  • Ozone
A
  • UV light
  • Ozone
118
Q

which of these food additives are typically applied to meat products?

  • Tartrazine (E102)
  • Monosodium glutamate (E621)
  • Sodium sulphite (E221)
  • Ascorbic acid (E300)
A
  • Monosodium glutamate (E621)
  • Ascorbic acid (E300)
119
Q

for what reasons is it important to avoid overcrowding in the transport of poultry?

  • stress factor that weakens the immune system
  • because of economic reasons
  • to avoid overloading the vehicle
  • increases risk of faecal contamination
A
  • stress factor that weakens the immune system
  • increases risk of faecal contamination
120
Q

for which operation are the knives used in the two-knife method used for sticking?

  • cutting the skin
  • cutting the oesophagus
  • cutting of the trachea
  • cutting of the vena cava
A
  • cutting the skin
  • cutting the vena cava
121
Q

what data are in the food chain information?

  • the results of the ante-mortem I inspection
  • Authorisation data for the animals transport vehicle
  • data of the farm
  • Data of the medicine of the farm animals
A
  • the results of the ante-mortem I inspection
  • Data of the medicine of the farm animals
122
Q

which of these documents are always checked during the official control of an establishment producing foods of plant origin:

a) staff’s general health status

b )the founding documents of a given company

c) documents of insect and rodent control
d) certificates of work experience of the staff

A

a) staff’s general health status
c) documents of insect and rodent control

123
Q

PSE meat:

a) could be placed on the market at a reduced value
b) if the extent is small, it can be placed on the market
c) suitable for consumption
d) is an effect of stress

A

a) could be placed on the market at a reduced value
c) suitable for consumption

124
Q

Icterus:

a) the intimate of the large blood vessels is yellow
b) could only be excluded with a cooking test
c) if still present after 24 hrs, meat is still fit for human consumption
d) it is always a pathological behind, which should be taken into account during the decision making

A

a) the intimate of the large blood vessels is yellow
d) it is always a pathological behind, which should be taken into account during the decision making

125
Q

Anthrax:

a) the whole body is always unfit for human consumption

b )the body shall be buried immediately

c )in pigs, when only the throat is affected, the rest of the body is fit for human consumption

d) in case of suspicion, the animal cannot be slaughtered

A

a) the whole body is always unfit for human consumption
d) in case of suspicion, the animal cannot be slaughtered

126
Q

in case of systemic dispersal of microbes:

a) the whole body is unfit for consumption

b )the only symptom can be septicaemia haemorrhages in the skin

c) if haemorrhages are found in the lungs, the meat is unfit for human consumption
d) only in the case of pyaemia the meat is unfit for human consumption

A

a) the whole body is unfit for consumption

b )the only symptom can be septicaemia haemorrhages in the skin

127
Q

rabies:

a) animals showing symptoms cannot be slaughtered
b) animals showing symptoms can be slaughtered in closed slaughter

c )Except for the CNS and the biting site, the meat is fit for human consumption

d) lethal zoonosis, high public health significance

A

a) animals showing symptoms cannot be slaughtered
d) lethal zoonosis, high public health significance

128
Q

foot and mouth disease:

a) if confirmed at the slaughterhouse, the animals shall be slaughtered separately
b) the whole body is unfit for human consumption
c) the significance of the meat inspection is given by its zoonotic nature
d) Animals being diseased or suspected of being diseased must not be slaughtered

A

b) the whole body is unfit for human consumption
d) Animals being diseased or suspected of being diseased must not be slaughtered

129
Q

which pathogen is not zoonotic:

a) enterotoxin E.coli strains
b) Actinobacillus peluropneumoniae
c) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

b) Actinobacillus peluropneumoniae

130
Q

what are the responsibilities of the European food safety authority:

a) Risk assessment
b) controls of requirement relating to food safety
c) Adoption of EU rules
d) Risk communication

A

a) Risk assessment
d) Risk communication

131
Q

which activity could be fraudulent activity?

a) online offered food
b) unapproved enhancement
c) processing of horse meat
d) Document forgery

A

b) unapproved enhancement
d) Document forgery

132
Q

what microbes should be tested for in egg products under regulation EC no. 2073/ 2005:

a) Salmonella
b) Enterobacteriaceae
c) coagulase positive staphylococcus
d) E. coli

A

a) Salmonella
b) Enterobacteriaceae

133
Q

what is the x axis and what is the y axis on a heat penetration graph:

a) x = time

b )y = temperature

c) x = temperature
d) y = time

A

a) x = time

b )y = temperature

134
Q

what are the roles of smoking:

a) preservation
b) colour development
c) the fasten the oxidation process
d) to inhibit the toxin production of clostridium botulinum

A

a) preservation
b) colour development

135
Q

what are the characteristics of artificial casing from animal origin:

a) their material is usually creatine

b )their material is usually collagen

c) they are impermeable to smoke and moisture
d) they are digestible

A

b )their material is usually collagen

d) they are digestible

136
Q

what manufacturing steps are necessary for the appropriate general processing hygiene of food and plant origin:

a) protection of vegetables/ fruits against the harmful effects of the environment

b )washing, cleaning to remove soil, weeds, stones, and other foreign materials

c )computerised system is always needed to classify the vegetables/ fruits according to the desirable colour

d) computerised system is always needed to classify the vegetables/ fruit according to the desirable shape/ size

A

a) protection of vegetables/ fruits against the harmful effects of the environment

b )washing, cleaning to remove soil, weeds, stones, and other foreign materials

137
Q

the official vet shall declare fresh meat unfit for human consumption if it:

a) derives from animals affected by general disease, such as generalised septicaemia, pyaemia, toxaemia, or viraemia

b )it is declared unfit based on the commission regulation 854/2004/ EC

c) it is declared unfit based on commission regulation EC 2019/ 627
d) additional lab exams can cannot be performed

A

a) derives from animals affected by general disease, such as generalised septicaemia, pyaemia, toxaemia, or viraemia
c) it is declared unfit based on commission regulation EC 2019/ 627

138
Q

Tuberculosis:

a) the whole body is unfit for human consumption
b) if localised, only affected organs or part should be declared unfit for human consumption
c) if localised, only the affected
d) several organs/ parts affected = unfit

A

b) if localised, only affected organs or part should be declared unfit for human consumption
d) several organs/ parts affected = unfit

139
Q

The inflammation of the intestines is not the main finding in which of these diseases:

a) salmonellosis
b) listeriosis
c) Erysipelas of swine
d) verotoxin producing E. coli infection

A

b) listeriosis
c) Erysipelas of swine

140
Q

which regulations are in force in relation to official controls of foodstuffs:

a) 882/ 2004/ EC
b) 854/ 2004/ EC
c) 178/ 2004/ EC
d) 652/ 2017/ EC

A

a) 882/ 2004/ EC
b) 854/ 2004/ EC

141
Q

what flows traditional meat inspection has:

a) Post-mortem procedures (incision of LN) could increase cross contamination between different organs and consecutive carcasses

b )organoleptic judgements are objective

c) it is mainly based on the final product control rather than considering the whole meat chain
d) it is a process based approach

A

a) Post-mortem procedures (incision of LN) could increase cross contamination between different organs and consecutive carcasses
c) it is mainly based on the final product control rather than considering the whole meat chain

142
Q

highly pathogenic avian influenza (HPAI):

a) birds showing symptoms shall be slaughtered separately
b) birds showing symptoms shall be slaughtered in a closed slaughter
c) infected Animals cannot be slaughtered
d) the whole body is unfit for human consumption

A

c) infected Animals cannot be slaughtered
d) the whole body is unfit for human consumption

143
Q

in the case of organoleptic changes of meat:

a) the meat is unfit for human consumption
b) the meat shall be placed on the market at a decreased value
c) additional lab exams might be needed for deciding on fitness for human consumption
d) official vet shall make a decision on fitness for human consumption based on professional evidences

A

c) additional lab exams might be needed for deciding on fitness for human consumption
d) official vet shall make a decision on fitness for human consumption based on professional evidences

144
Q

DFD meat:

a) in case of pork meat, it is unfit for human consumption

b )it is a quality issue, meat is fit for human consumption

c) must be paced on the market as of decreased value

d )usually is an effect of chronic stress before slaughter

A

b )it is a quality issue, meat is fit for human consumption

d )usually is an effect of chronic stress before slaughter

145
Q

which is true:

a) official controls shall be performed more frequently in relation of food from 3rd countries

b )official controls shall be performed with a high level of transparency

c) Official controls shall be performed without prior notice
d) it is not necessary to draw up written record of official controls

A

b )official controls shall be performed with a high level of transparency

c) Official controls shall be performed without prior notice

146
Q

what methods are used to check the leakage after storability tests:

a) bubbles when squeezed underwater
b) one end flips out when the can is stuck against a solid object but snaps back to the normal under light pressure
c) disappearance of vacuum (concavity) when heated to 38˚C followed by slow cooling
d) bulging of both can ends

A

a) bubbles when squeezed underwater
c) disappearance of vacuum (concavity) when heated to 38˚C followed by slow cooling

147
Q

which findings make an egg unfit for human consumption:

a) parasite
b) foreign body
c) meat spot

d )contaminated shell

A

a) parasite
b) foreign body

148
Q

which microbial tests are required under regulation EC 2073/ 2005 for raw fermented meat products?

a) salmonella
b) E. coli
c) enterobacteriaceae
d) listeria monocytogenes

A

a) salmonella
d) listeria monocytogenes

149
Q

which salmonella types are zoonotic:

a) salmonella typhimurium
b) salmonella typhi
c) salmonella typhisuis
d) salmonella infantis

A

a) salmonella typhimurium
d) salmonella infantis

150
Q

how changes the colour and how changes the form of myoglobin:

a) if myoglobin reacts with nitrite, the effect won’t be visible after heat treatment
b) if myoglobin reacts with oxygen, it will turn to oxymyoghobin, which is bright pink
c) if myoglobin has a long exposure to oxygen, it won’t get brown colour, but stay bright pink
d) if myoglobin reacts with nitrite, it will form nitrosomyoglobin, which is dark red and will turn to light pink after heat treatment

A

b) if myoglobin reacts with oxygen, it will turn to oxymyoghobin, which is bright pink
d) if myoglobin reacts with nitrite, it will form nitrosomyoglobin, which is dark red and will turn to light pink after heat treatment

151
Q

what factors are important for modelling of heat treatment for canned foods:

a) the size of the label on the can
b) rate of heat penetration at the centre of the can
c) the origin of the food to be canned
d) PH of the food

A

b) rate of heat penetration at the centre of the can
d) PH of the food

152
Q

what steps are belonging to the ready to eat products:

a) microbiological analysis of applied spices

b )controlling the packaging and the labelling on the plant based foods

c) determination of damage caused by insects/ rodents
d) sensory anaylsis

A

b )controlling the packaging and the labelling on the plant based foods

d) sensory anaylsis

153
Q

which is true:

a) the central component authority shall prepare the official control plan
b) the local component authority shall prepare the official control plan
c) there is no special requirements on the responsibilities of different levels of competent authorities in relation to planning of official controls
d) competent authorities have to plan the official controls on risk basis, regularly and with appropriate frequency

A

a) the central component authority shall prepare the official control plan
d) competent authorities have to plan the official controls on risk basis, regularly and with appropriate frequency

154
Q

which of these areas are within the scope of regulation 625/ 2017 EC?

a) controls of requirements relating to food safety
b) controls of requirements relating to animal health
c) controls of requirements relating to soil protection
d) controls of requirements relating to producing of veterinary products

A

a) controls of requirements relating to food safety
b) controls of requirements relating to animal health

155
Q

OIE listed diseases:

a) all have a meat inspection significance

b )only the ones on the “A list” have meat inspection significance

c) have public health or animal health significance

d )not all have meat inspection significance

A

a) all have a meat inspection significance
c) have public health or animal health significance

156
Q

in the case of sexual odour of meat:

a) poultry meat is unfit for consumption
b) pork meat is unfit for consumption in every case
c) if pronounced meat is unfit for consumption
d) official vet shall determine the extent and make decision on fitness for human consumption

A

c) if pronounced meat is unfit for consumption
d) official vet shall determine the extent and make decision on fitness for human consumption

157
Q

which manufacturing steps of sausage production were part of our practical:

a) mincing of pork shoulder and back fat
b) stuffing
c) smoking
d) ripening

A

a) mincing of pork shoulder and back fat
b) stuffing

158
Q

which of these statements is true for smoking:

a) cold smoking below 20˚C
b) it can only contribute to the aroma development and will not change the taste of the product
c) liquid smoke is easy to handle and is even environment friendly
d) warm smoking is between 20-60˚C (65-75)

A

a) cold smoking below 20˚C
c) liquid smoke is easy to handle and is even environment friendly

159
Q

which findings make the egg unfit for human consumption:

a) blood ring
b) blood spot
c) dented
d) broken

A

a) blood ring
d) broken

160
Q

animals showing symptoms of generalised disease:

a) cannot be slaughtered for human consumption
b) their meat can only be fit for human consumption after additional lab exam
c) shall be transported back to the farm due to prohibition of slaughter
d) their meat is unfit for human consumption

A

a) cannot be slaughtered for human consumption
d) their meat is unfit for human consumption

161
Q

what manufacturing steps are necessary for the appropriate general processing hygiene of heat-treated vegetables:

a) the manufacturing line should be disinfected minimum weekly

b )the canned tomatoes were sterilised before put into cans

c) weekly cleaning of the internal pipe lines, fitting, storage vessels is satisfactory without disinfection
d) the sterilisation of canned tomatoes happened within the closed cans

A

a) the manufacturing line should be disinfected minimum weekly
c) weekly cleaning of the internal pipe lines, fitting, storage vessels is satisfactory without disinfection

162
Q

who are the members of the rapid alert system for food and feed:

a) member states
b) European parliament
c) European Commission
d) council

A

a) member states
c) European Commission

163
Q

yersinia enterocolitia:

a) animals are usually asymptomatic carriers of the bacterium
b) poultry meat is the most important source of the infection
c) it is psychrophilic
d) it causes generalised dermatitis in humans

A

a) animals are usually asymptomatic carriers of the bacterium
c) it is psychrophilic

164
Q

who have to plan the official controls based on 625/ 2017/ EC regulation:

a) competent authorities have to plan the official controls on risk basis, regularly and with appropriate frequency

b )Competent authority have to plan the official controls on a risk basis, regular and with appropriate frequency to identify possible intentional violations

c )competent authorities have to plan the official controls on basis of the human resources

d) competent authorities have to plan the official controls on a basis of financial resources

A

a) competent authorities have to plan the official controls on risk basis, regularly and with appropriate frequency

b )Competent authority have to plan the official controls on a risk basis, regular and with appropriate frequency to identify possible intentional violations

165
Q

cysticercosis:

a) meat infected must be declared unfit for human consumption
b) mead infected must be declared unfit for human consumption in cattle only
c) if the animal does not suffer from generalised cysticercosis, the unaffected parts may be declared fit for human consumption after having undergone freezing treatment
d) consuming infected meat does not pose public health risk, since humans could only be infected from carnivores

A

b) mead infected must be declared unfit for human consumption in cattle only
c) if the animal does not suffer from generalised cysticercosis, the unaffected parts may be declared fit for human consumption after having undergone freezing treatment

166
Q

in case of foreign odour of meat:

a) meat is unfit for human consumption in every case

b )if it’s still present after 24 hrs, the meat is unfit for human consumption

c) it is possible to perform a cooking test for the decision of fitness for human consumption
d) A cooking test shall be performed for the decision on fitness for human consumption

A

b )if it’s still present after 24 hrs, the meat is unfit for human consumption

c) it is possible to perform a cooking test for the decision of fitness for human consumption

167
Q

in the case of insufficient bleeding:

a) Reason could be heart disorders

b )meat is generally unfit for human consumption

c) there is always a foreign odour as well
d) there is no effect on fitness for human consumption

A

a) Reason could be heart disorders

b )meat is generally unfit for human consumption

168
Q

where can the quality grading of eggs be carried out:

a) at the site of production
b) in the retail market
c) in the egg packing plant
d) at the consumer’s before use

A

a) at the site of production
c) in the egg packing plant

169
Q

which of the following statements are FASLE about semi-preserved cans:

a) only heat treatment is used for preservation
b) they can be stored at room temperature
c) they must be stored in fridge
d) even vegetative bacteria can survive their heat treatment

A

c) they must be stored in fridge
d) even vegetative bacteria can survive their heat treatment

170
Q

what are the disadvantages of natural casings:

a) they are indigestible

b )they are perishable

c) preparation is time consuming
d) they are permeable to smoke and vapour

A

b )they are perishable

c) preparation is time consuming

171
Q

what is the role of nitrite salts in cured meat products:

a) due to the addition of nitrite salts the multiplication of clostridium botulinum is prohibited

b )it has an antioxidant effect: stabilises the fat level and therefore decreases the possibility of rancidity

c) they can be used to have heat resistant brown colour in the meat
d) they form nitrosamines, which are good for human health even in high concentration

A

a) due to the addition of nitrite salts the multiplication of clostridium botulinum is prohibited

b )it has an antioxidant effect: stabilises the fat level and therefore decreases the possibility of rancidity

172
Q

what are the moulds in the warehouse damaging the wheat grains and corn:

a) aspergillus
b) Penicillin
c) mucor
d) Rhizopus

A

a) aspergillus
b) Penicillin

173
Q

organoleptic changes of meat:

a) affecting meat quality
b) only mean quality problems
c) indicate a need for decision on fitness for human consumption
d) always mean safety problems

A

a) affecting meat quality
c) indicate a need for decision on fitness for human consumption

174
Q

animal diseases/ infections not included in the OIE list:

a) atypical mycobacteriosis of swine

b )swine erysipelas

c) mycoplasma pneumonia of swine
d) actinobaccillus pleuropneumonia of swine

A

b )swine erysipelas

c) mycoplasma pneumonia of swine

175
Q

what is the rapid alert system for food and feed:

a) IT tool

b )group of appointed representatives of member state

c )the goal is to exchange information in relation to food fraud

d )the goal is to exchange information in unsafe food

A

a) IT tool

d )the goal is to exchange information in unsafe food

176
Q

what kind of results have to be taken into account of, during the planning of official controls, based on the regulation 625/ 2017/ EC:

a) results of official controls carried out earlier
b) results of economic analysis
c) results of own controls carried out by food business operator
d) results of parliamentary elections

A

a) results of official controls carried out earlier
c) results of own controls carried out by food business operator

177
Q

which steps are part of the preparation of raw, smoked and fermented meat products:

a) deboning
b) protein content measurement

c )trichinella exam

d) cutting and sometimes pre-chilling of the meat

A

a) deboning
d) cutting and sometimes pre-chilling of the meat

178
Q

what is the difference between salting and curing:

a) in the case of salting only sodium chloride is applied

b )salting can only be dry salting

c) in the case of curing other additives than NaCl are also used
d) curing can only be wet curing

A

a) in the case of salting only sodium chloride is applied
c) in the case of curing other additives than NaCl are also used

179
Q

what materials can be used besides metals for canning foods:

a) thermostable plastic
b) recycled paper
c) glass
d) cardboard

A

a) thermostable plastic
c) glass

180
Q

what is true about the F0 value:

a) it describes the heat resistance of a microbe species

b )it means the necessary time to reduce the microbial population with 1 magnitude

c )it is characteristic to the heat treatment process

d) the minimum requirement of heat treatment is set to achieve 12 magnitude reduction of clostridium botulinum spores (if PH > 4.5)

A

c )it is characteristic to the heat treatment process

d) the minimum requirement of heat treatment is set to achieve 12 magnitude reduction of clostridium botulinum spores (if PH > 4.5)

181
Q

how do we change the colour changes after curing:

a) with our human eyes and instrumental analysis

b )only with subjective method

c) both subjective and objective methods
d) only with objective method

A

a) with our human eyes and instrumental analysis
c) both subjective and objective methods

182
Q

which is TRUE about the zoonotic salmonella serotypes:

a) in most cases they do not cause disease in slaughter animals

b )in most cases they cause septicaemia in slaughter animals

c) they can cause enteritis, even septicaemia in young animals
d) the carcasses of animals showing the signs and symptoms of salmonellosis are fit for human consumption only after heat treatment

A

a) in most cases they do not cause disease in slaughter animals
c) they can cause enteritis, even septicaemia in young animals

183
Q

Paratuberculosis:

a) the whole body of wild game is unfit
b) if not systemic, only the affected organs are unfit for human consumption
c) may lead to emaciation, and then the whole body is unfit for human consumption
d) no septicaemia is developed, so there is no effect on public health

A

b) if not systemic, only the affected organs are unfit for human consumption
c) may lead to emaciation, and then the whole body is unfit for human consumption

184
Q

Brucellosis:

a) the whole body is unfit for human consumption

b )if localised, only the affected organs or part should be declared unfit for human consumption

c) the genitals, mammary glands and blood are unfit, even if no lesions are visible during diagnostic slaughter
d) only investigations for the presence of B. abortus shall be performed

A

a) the whole body is unfit for human consumption
c) the genitals, mammary glands and blood are unfit, even if no lesions are visible during diagnostic slaughter

185
Q

yellow colour disorders:

a) are always pathological

b )can be of alimentary (feed) origin

c) if non-contagious origin, the meat is fit for human consumption
d) mean that the possibility of bacterial spread shall be taken into account during the decision making

A

b )can be of alimentary (feed) origin

c) if non-contagious origin, the meat is fit for human consumption

186
Q

Tularaemia:

a) the whole body is unfit for human consumption

b )only the liver is affected, the meat of the rabbit is fit for human consumption

c) if localised, only the affected organ or part and its associated LN should be declared unfit for human consumption
d) the significance of the meat inspection is given by its zoonotic nature

A

a) the whole body is unfit for human consumption
d) the significance of the meat inspection is given by its zoonotic nature

187
Q

enterococcus granulosus:

a) the animals affected cannot be slaughtered
b) the meat is fit for human consumption except the affected parts

c )the infection is zoonotic, but humans may be infested only by eggs released by carnivores

d) the liver is unfit for human consumption can only be given as feed for dogs

A

b) the meat is fit for human consumption except the affected parts

c )the infection is zoonotic, but humans may be infested only by eggs released by carnivores

188
Q

classical swine fever (CSF):

a) animals showing symptoms cannot be slaughtered

b )animals showing symptoms shall be slaughtered immediately in closed slaughter

c) animals showing symptoms shall be slaughtered immediately in separate slaughter
d) whole body is unfit for consumption

A

a) animals showing symptoms cannot be slaughtered
d) whole body is unfit for consumption

189
Q

which institutes adopt the regulations during the co-decision procedure:

a) European parliament
b) European commission
c) European food safety authority
d) Council

A

a) European parliament
d) Council

190
Q

what are the traditional raw sausage production technologies:

a) they are produced with started cultures
b) lower water activity (< 0.9) than fermented sausages
c) higher PH (5.8-6) than fermented sausages
d) some types contain added sugar

A

b) lower water activity (< 0.9) than fermented sausages
c) higher PH (5.8-6) than fermented sausages

191
Q

what heat treatments are needed to kill spores:

a) 110 ˚C/ 30 minutes
b) 80˚C/ 30 minutes
c) 121˚C/ 3 minutes
d) 90˚C/ 10 minutes

A

a) 110 ˚C/ 30 minutes
c) 121˚C/ 3 minutes

192
Q

the XL size eggs according to the 589/ 2008 EC regulation:

a) they are the “class A” eggs
b) in the case of small-scale producers it is not obligatory to use producers code on their shells

c )it is always obligatory to use the producer’s code on their shells

d) they must be kept below 5˚C during transportation and distribution

A

a) they are the “class A” eggs
b) in the case of small-scale producers it is not obligatory to use producers code on their shells

193
Q

bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE):

a) animals showing symptoms can be slaughtered in the presence of an official vet

b )Animals killed at the slaughterhouse and the cadavers shall be destroyed (incinerated) as SRM

c )all cattle have to be tested

d) animals being diseased or suspected of being diseased or infected must not be slaughtered

A

b )Animals killed at the slaughterhouse and the cadavers shall be destroyed (incinerated) as SRM

d) animals being diseased or suspected of being diseased or infected must not be slaughtered

194
Q

what curing procedures were applied in the technology lab:

a) dry salting, during which we have also applied pepper beside salt to massage it into the given meat slice

b )wet curing, in which we submerge the pork meat slice into the curing solution

c )wet curing, with needle injection, during which we have injected the brine solution directly into the pork meat slice

d) tumblering to prepare the meat for needle injection

A

b )wet curing, in which we submerge the pork meat slice into the curing solution

c )wet curing, with needle injection, during which we have injected the brine solution directly into the pork meat slice

195
Q

what is the difference between yeast and sourdough pasta:

a) the sourdough pasta has a lower (3.5-4.8) PH value and therefore is more acidic taste and more stable than the yeast dough pasta

b )there is a difference in the microflora, as in the case of sourdough pasta, there are also other microbes present besides saccharomyces cerevisiae, namely lactobacillus, leuconostoc, pediococcus

c )the yeast dough pasta has a lower PH value and therefore more acidic, taste, and is more stable, than the sourdough pasta

d) there is a difference in the microflora, as in the case of yeast dough pasta, there are also other microbes present besides saccharomyces cerevisiae, namely lactobacillus, leuconostoc, pediococcus

A

a) the sourdough pasta has a lower (3.5-4.8) PH value and therefore is more acidic taste and more stable than the yeast dough pasta

b )there is a difference in the microflora, as in the case of sourdough pasta, there are also other microbes present besides saccharomyces cerevisiae, namely lactobacillus, leuconostoc, pediococcus

196
Q

which of these statements are right for tumbling:

a) tumbler is applied right after needle injection

b )tubling the meat is necessary for both long and fast curing

c )it is a mechanical treatment of the meat, which helps the efficiency of the brine injection

d )it is a rotating vessel, which is massaging the meat if it is fast cured

A

c )it is a mechanical treatment of the meat, which helps the efficiency of the brine injection

d )it is a rotating vessel, which is massaging the meat if it is fast cured

197
Q

trichinella:

a) the meat of animals infected must be declared unfit for human consumption

b )every pig shall be tested for the presence

c )if the infection is minor, the meat of animals infected can be declared fit for human consumption, except for the master muscle

d )the sample from wild boar shall be taken from the foreleg, tongue or diaphragm

A

a) the meat of animals infected must be declared unfit for human consumption

d )the sample from wild boar shall be taken from the foreleg, tongue or diaphragm

198
Q

what are the responsibilities of the European Commission:

a) Adoption of EU regulation in the framework of co-decision procedure

b )preparation of legislative proposal

c) representation of interest of the EU
d) scientific advice

A

b )preparation of legislative proposal

c) representation of interest of the EU

199
Q

what is the criteria of egg products set by the 854/ 2004 EC regulation:

a) below the limit of E. coli

b )absence of 3-OH butyric acid

c) below the limit shell, shell membrane, and other pieces
d) 853/ 2004/ EC: 3-OH, lactic, shell + membrane

A

a) below the limit of E. coli
c) below the limit shell, shell membrane, and other pieces

200
Q

what are the advantages of plant-based casings?

a) mechanically resistant
b) all of them are edible
c) they widen in water and shrink when dried out
d) they are easily chewable

A

a) mechanically resistant
c) they widen in water and shrink when dried out

201
Q

what is the food fraud network:

a) IT tool

b )group of appointed representatives of member states

c) the goal is to exchange information in relation to food fraud
d) the goal is to exchange information in unsafe food

A

b )group of appointed representatives of member states

c) the goal is to exchange information in relation to food fraud

Food hygiene (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions