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Lab D > Past Questions > Flashcards

Past Questions Flashcards

1
Q

In respiratory alkalosis a pH >7,4
pCO2 <40mmHg
pO2 >40mmHg
is expected

True or False

A

TRUE

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2
Q

A puppy Arrives to the clinique and later is diagnosed with Parvo enteritis. The symptoms include severe diarrhoea and exsiccosis with hyperventilation.

A venous sample is taken and the following result are seen (reference intreval)

pH= 7,390 (7,35-7,45)
pCO2= 37,6 Hgmm (35-50)
pO2= 50Hgmm (40-50)
HCO3=18,7 Hgmm (20-28)
ABE=-7,4 mmol/L (-3,5-+3,5)

What is your conclusion?

A. Metabolic Acidosis, Compensated
B. Metabolic Alkalosis, Uncompensated
C. Respiratory Alkalosis, Uncompensated
D. Respiratory Acidosis, Compensated
E. Respiratory Acidosis, Uncompensated
F. Respiratory Alkalosis, Compensated
G. Metabolic acidosis, Uncomp
H. Metabolic Alkalosis, Compensated

A

A. Metabolic Acidosis, Compensated

Compensated = 7,35-7,45

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3
Q

In metabolic alkalosis a pH > 7,4,

HCO3 concentration >28 mmol/L,

BE >+3,5 mmol/L

TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

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4
Q

In Respiratory alkalosis pH >7,4
pCO2 < 40 mmHg
pO2 > 40 mmHg
is expected
True or false

A

TRUE

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5
Q

The anion gap gets signifficantly incresed in the following case

a, In case of poor perfusion (Lactic adidosis)

b. If gamma globulins are in excess ( ununmeasured cation)
c. HCO3 is lost due to diarrhoea

A

a. In case of poor perfusion (Lactic adidosis)

Increased anion gap = Lactacidosis = Shock, hypovolaemia, poor tissue perfusion, tissue necrosis

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6
Q

Creatinin is a degradation product of muscle creatine
TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

Creatinine is an important constituent of muscle energy stores. Creatinine is utilized to form

creatin.

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7
Q

The glucose absorption test can distinguish malabsorption from diabetes mellitus

TRUE or FALSE

A

FALSE

Glucose absorption test is performed when we suspect chronic bowel disease, exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, or it can be used instead of iv glucose tolerance test.

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8
Q

Multiple choice:
Total bilirubin is expected to increase in serum due to an increase in bilirubin I formation in the case of

a. Acute Hemolysis
b. Decreased conjugation in the liver
c. Extrahepatic bile duct obstruction
d. Haemotoma formation (resorbtion icterus)
e. Bile peritonitis

A

a. Acute Hemolysis

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9
Q

Fill inn blank spots

Prepare 3% acetic acid solution. One-two drops of native (not centrifuged) samples must be dripped into the solution. If coagulation (smoky appearance) occurs the result is ——– due to the ———-, coagulation of labile proteins ( globulins ), as weak acid can coagulate these proteins. If coagulation is not observed but the sample is dissolved in the solution the result is ——— due to the fact that stable proteins, such as ——– does not show coagulation in weak acids.

A
  • *exudate**
  • *fibrinogen**
  • *transudate**
  • *albumin**
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10
Q

Ruminal fluid PH is lower before feeding than after
TRUE or FALSE

A

FALSE

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11
Q

Match the analytes with the information they can give

MCV
OSMOTIC RESISTANCE
RETICULOCYTE COUNT
RDW
MCHC

  1. Anisocytosis = variable cell size - iron deficiency and regenerative process
  2. Regeneration
  3. Macrocytosis
  4. Intravascular haemolysis
  5. Hypochromasia
A

MCV - Anisocytosis
OSMOTIC RESISTANCE - Regeneration
RETICULOCYTE COUNT - Macrocytosis
RDW - Intravascular hemolysis
MCHC - Hypochromasia

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12
Q

Which is not a prerenal cause of increased urea concentration

a. Cardiac failure
b. Shock
c. Glomerular problem
d. Addisons Disease
e. Dehydration

A

d. Addisons Disease

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13
Q

Multiple choice: Select the correct answer
THROMBOCYTHOPATHY can be found in cases of
a. Uremia
b. Anti Freeze poisoning
c. NSAID treatment
d. Rodenticide poisoning
e. Liver failure

A

a. Uremia

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14
Q

Drag the words below and drop them into their places!
——-lity (body) fluids. Osmolarity is expressed in different units than osmolality______ osmolality——- expresses the osmotic pressure of the . The calculation of osmolality osmolarity——– is performed based on the formula below if all of the parameter concentrations are given in mimol/I: Osmolality (mOsm/kg) = 2(__+__)+(lucose____)

A

Osmola
kg
L
(Na+ +K)
(urea+g)

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15
Q

Multiple choise
Choose the amylase isoenzymes
a. Pancreatic
b. Musculoskeletal
c. Intestinal
d. Renal
e. Salivary

A

a. Pancreatic
c. Intestinal
d. Renal
e. Salivary

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16
Q

Match the lipid fraction with the apolipoproteins carrying them

Triacyl glycerol
Cholesteriol
Phospholipids
Free fatty acids

A

Triacyl glycerol - VLDL
Cholesteriol - LDL/HDL
Phospholipids - HDL
Free fatty acids - ALBUMIN

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17
Q

Multiple choice
ACTH stimulation test is used for
a. Monitor treatment for hyperadrenocorticoism
b. Diagnose ectopic ACTH production
c. Screen overall pituitary hyperfunction
d. Screen for hyperadrenocorticoism
e. Diagnose hypoadrenocorticoism

A

a. Monitor treatment for hyperadrenocorticoism
d. Screen for hyperadrenocorticoism
e. Diagnose hypoadrenocorticoism

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18
Q

Match the process with the expected laboratory parameter changes

  1. THROMBOCYTOPENIA
  2. DIC
  3. RODENTICIDE (dicumarol) Toxicosis, late
  4. HEMOPHILIA A
  5. RODENTICIDE (WAFARIN) Poisonin, early
A
  1. THROMBOCYTOPENIA - BMBT incr, APTT unchanged, PT unchanged
  2. DIC - BMBT incr, APTT incr, PT incr
  3. RODENTICIDE (dicumarol) Toxicosis, late - BMBT Unchanged, APTT incr, PT incr
  4. HEMOPHILIA A - BMBT unchanged, APTT incr, PT unchanged
  5. RODENTICIDE (WAFARIN) Poisoning, early - BMBT unchanged, APTT unchanged , PT incr
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19
Q
A

a. VIII
d. IX

Factors involved in APTT are: XI., IX., VIII., X., V., II., I., XIII.

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20
Q

Bloodsmares are used to check

a. Platelet Roleauxformation indicating immune mediated thrombocytopenia
b. Platelet number estimation
c. Wether the hematology analysers platelet count is valid or not
d. Platelet aggregate/clump formation
e. Macrothrombocytopenia

A

b. Platelet number estimation.

c. Whether the hematology analysers platelet count is valid or not
d. Platelet aggregate/clump formation

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21
Q
A
  1. BMBT and Thrombocyte count unchanged and aPTT and PTT Increased

= late stage of dicumarol- toxicosis

  1. BMBT increased, aPTT may be increased, others unchanged

= Von Willebrand

  1. BMBT, Thrombocyte count, aPTT, and PTT all INCREASED (Plateletcount decreased)

= DIC

  1. BMBT increased, Thrombocyte # and aPTT and PTT unchanged

= Thrombocytopathy

  1. BMBT as well as thrombocyte count and aPTT unchanged, PTT INCREASED

= Dicumarol Toxicosis 1st stage

  1. BMBT increased, Thrombocyte # DECREASED, aPTT and PTT unchanged

= Thrombocytopenia

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22
Q
A
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23
Q
A

TRUE

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24
Q
A

a. Anticoagulated sample (Citrate 1:9)

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25
Q

Haemophilias are leading to a defect of the

A
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26
Q

Dicumarol is a competetive antagonist to VIT K

True or False

A

TRUE

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27
Q

Breeds affected by von Willebrands disease

A

Doberman Pinscher

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28
Q

Match the Changes with the alterations

VASOPATHY

THROMBOCYTOPATHY

THROMBOCYTOPENIA

COAGULOPATHY

A

1.

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29
Q

Changes expected in von Willebrands disease are

a. Increased/Unchange aPTT
b. Increase BMBT
c. Decreased/Unchanged aPTT
d. Decreased PTT
e. Increased PTT

A

a. Increased/Unchange aPTT
b. Increase BMBT

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30
Q

Patients suffering from von Willenbrands disease may present with an increased PTT

True or False

A

True

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31
Q

ESSAY

A

Methode nr 1:

If you measure both TP for the plasma and the serum concentration – you will have the fibrinogen TP concentration by the difference between them.

Methode nr 2: Is based on the heat labile character of fibrinogen. Take one part of the plasma, and measure the TP (Biurette test). For the other part of the plasma, you will heat it and centrifuge it, then measure the TP. The TP concentration for fibrinogen will be the difference between the regular plasma and the heated+centrifuged plasma.

Method 3
The test used for thrombin time (TT) can be used for establishing fibrinogen concentration, as in this test the values are primarily dependent on the fibrinogen concentration.

The reagent contains bovine thrombin and Ca2+.

The clot formation can be determined by using standards of different fibrinogen concentrations.

Causes of fibrinogen conc change:

Increase in case of

  • Acute inflammation
  • Dehydration

Decrease in case of

  • Liver function impairment
  • Advanced protein deficiency
  • DIG
  • Chronic bleeding
  • Blood loss
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32
Q

ESSAY

  1. Characterize the change of cholesterol concentration in plasma
A

Cholesterol measurements for the detection of increased fat mobilization

  • Total cholesterol value INCREASES

In case of:

hypothyroidism,

hyperadrenocorticism,

nephrotic syndrome,

diabetes mellitus

  • cholesterol catabolism decreases.
  • Decreased esterification of cholesterol is a result of impaired liver function together with decreased apolipoprotein production. This causes decreased total cholesterol concentration.

Causes of hypocholesterolaemia:

· malnutrition

· liver failure (decreased synthesis)

· neoplastic disease

· hyperthyreosis (increased usage)

· decreased apolipoprotein synthesis Causes of hypercholesterolaemia:

· increased dietary fat content

· hypothyroidism

· hyperadrenocorticism

· diabetes mellitus

· nephrotic syndrome (concurrent low TP)

· cholestatic diseases (increased leakage from liver due to bile duct obstruction)

· idiopathic - primary dyslipidosis

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33
Q

Choose the Hemopoietic tumor(s) presenting with leukemia

a. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia
b. Polycythemia absoluta vera
c. Leukemoid Reaction
d. Lymphoma, Stage IV
e. Acute Lymphocytic Leukemioa

A

a. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia
b. Polycythemia absoluta vera

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34
Q

ESR in horses is considerably faster than in other species

True or False

A

TRUE

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35
Q

Immature NEUTROPHILS can appear in the circulation due to the following cases

a. Perlger-Huet anomaly
b. Addison’s Disease
c. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
d. Right Shift
e. Hyperadrenocorticism
f. Left Shift

A

a. Perlger-Huet anomaly

b. Addison’s Disease

f. Left Shift

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36
Q

A left shift is characterized by

a. Neutrophilia (high neutrophil count)
b. Decreased number of lymphocytes in circulation
c. The appearance of immature neutrophils in large proportion in the circulation
d. The appearance of mature, hypersegmented neutrophils in the circulation

A

c. The appearance of immature neutrophils in large proportion in the circulation

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37
Q

Pair the changes with the category

A. Stresslaukogram

B. Very high # of Neutrophil cells in the circulation

C. Leukopenia (low WBC), Neutropenia (low neutrophil #), Appearance of bands/metamyelocytes

D. Leukocytosis (high WBC), neutrophilia (high neutrophil #), appearance of bands/metamyelocytes

E. Appearance of highly segmented neutrophil cells (3-4 segments)

  1. Regenerative left shift
  2. Degenerative left shift
  3. Right Shift
  4. Leukemoid reaction
  5. Right shift, Leukocytosis, Neutrophilia, lymphopenia, and eosinopenia
A

A. STRESS LEUKOGRAM

= 5. Right shift, Leukocytosis, Neutrophilia, lymphopenia, and eosinopenia

B. Very high # of NEOTROPHIL cells in the circulation

= 4. Leukemoid reaction

C. Leukopenia (low WBC), Neutropenia (low neutrophil #), Appearance of bands/metamyelocytes

= 1. DEgenerative left shift

D. Leukocytosis (high WBC), neutrophilia (high neutrophil #), appearance of bands/metamyelocytes

= REgenarative left shift

E. Appearance of highly segmented neutrophil cells (3-4 segments)

= 3. Right Shift

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38
Q
  1. How to determine BT, BMBT - What causes prolongation of bleeding time
A

Use a sharp, sterile blade and make an 0,1-0,2 mm deep and 0,5 cm long incision on the skin on inner part of external ear or on buccal mucosal surface.

Vipe the blood drop flowing under the wound with a cotton wool tissue in 20-30 sec intervals

(avoid touching the wound itself)

Measure the time from the appearance of first blood drop till the ceasing of bleeding

Normal BMBT = 3-5min.!

Prolongation of bleeding time is caused by thrombocytopenia, thrombocytopathies and vasopathies

So dependent on thrombolytic function, platelet count and capillary function.!

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39
Q

Lab signs of DIC disseminated intravascular coagulopathy

Increased

  • Coagulation time (CT)
  • Bleeding time (BT)
  • Prothrombin time (PT)
  • Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT),
  • Thrombin time!(TT)
  • Fibrin degradation products (FDP).
  • Decreased Platelet count
  • The appearance of schistocytes and or burr cells in blood smear
A
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40
Q

Thrombocytopenia causes and disorders

A
  • Decreased production of thrombocytes in the bone marrow!
  • Increased utilization of thrombocytes; DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulopathy)
  • Increased destruction of thrombocytes Autoimmune thrombocytopenia (AITP)
  • Increased sequestration of thrombocytes in case of chronic splenomegaly
  • Increased loss of thrombocytes subacute/chronic bleeding
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41
Q

Glutaric aldehyde test:

A

Examine the Increase of fibrinogen and globulin concentration in plasma

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42
Q

ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate)

A

The theory is the increased sedimentation of RBCs due to inflammatory processes, as acute-phase proteins and other globulins tend to attach onto the surface of RBCs

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43
Q

(ER) Sedimentation Rate in Horses

A
  • Very fast
  • ESR must be evaluated after 20 minutes.
  • It is found that the speed of the sedimentation decreases due to inflammatory processes contrary to other species.
  • ESR is inversely proportional with the HT and proportional with the serum viscosity, total protein and fibrinogen concentration.
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44
Q

Causes hyperlipidemia & decreased lipid content

  • Hyperlipidemia
    1. Increased fat content in diet
    2. Diabetes Mellitus
    3. Hypothyroidism
    4. Hyperadrenocorticism - Cushings
    5. Nephrotic syndrome
  1. Septicaemia
  2. Pancreatitis
  • Hypolipidemia

DECREASED lipid content

1. Starvation

2. Chronic liver failure

A
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45
Q

Causes hyper/hypo–cholesterolemia

A
  • Hypercholesterolaemia

1. Increased dietary fat content

2. Hypothyroidism

3. Hyperadrenocorticism - Cushings

4. Nephrotic syndrome

5. Diabetes Mellitus (DM)

  1. Cholestatic diseases
  2. Primary dyslipidosis
    * Hypocholesterolaemia
  • *1. Protein-losing enteropathy**
  • *2. Liver failure**
  • *3. Malnutrition**
    4. Neoplastic disease - Tumor
    5. Decreased apolipoprotein synthesis
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46
Q

Increased/Decreased glucose concentration

A
  • Increased glucose conc.
    1. Laboratory errors
    2. Stress & exercise

3. Cranial trauma, inflammation (rabies, aujeszky disease)

  1. Acute liver failure (fast depletion of liver glucogen)
  2. Diabetes mellitus (DM)
  3. Hyperadrenocorticism - Cushing/HAC
    * Decreased glucose conc.
  4. Laboratory error
  5. Decreased energy status (pregnancy, milking period, exercise etc.).
  6. Insulin overdose
  7. Receptor blocker
  8. Anabolic steroids
  9. Liver failure, terminal stage
  10. Hypoadrenocorticism - Addison’s
  11. Septicaemia
  12. Hyperthyroidism
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47
Q

Monoclonal gammopathy

A

= Condition when Abnormal proteins found in the blood = Fight infections

Seen as a sharp spike in the beta or gamma region(globulin)

  • Can be compared to the albumin peak (they are both as narrow).
  • Both neoplastic and non-neoplastic disorders can produce monoclonal gammopathy.

Neoplasia: Most common cause - it multiple myeloma (producing IgG or IgA monoclonal)

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48
Q

Determine Malabsorption, Maldigestion, Chronic bowel disease

A

Starved for 24 hours: “

blood sample + 3ml/kg bw corn oil orally

Blood sampling after 1,2,3,4,5 hours

Should show lipemic and TG should rise 2 folds from the normal value

If not = REPEAT test

But with predigested corn oil - Incubate at 37 degrees
1. if increased TG and lipaemia= exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

  1. if no change in TG and lipaemia= Intestinal absorption defect!
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49
Q

Suspect: DM, Insulinoma

A

Take two times at starving blood sample = If it is > 11mmol/l its DM

Test:

  • Starved for 24 hour
  • Blood sampling then glucose solution i.v. (30-45sec)
  • Take blood every 5,15, 30,45, 60 min!
  • Blood glucose should be normalized at 30-60min!
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50
Q

Polyclonal gammopathy: (beta and gamma globulins derived from different clones)

A
  • “Broad” based peak in beta and/or gamma region
  • *Causes:**
  • Chronic inflammatory diseases,
  • Liver disease,
  • FIP,
  • Occult heartworm disease,
  • Ehrlichiosis
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51
Q

Polyclonal Gammopathy Increased and decreased by

A

Increased by:

  • decreased 2,3 DPG level in RBCs;
  • decreased pCO2 level in blood;
  • increased pH of blood;
  • decreased temperature of blood.

Decreased by:

  • increased 2,3 DPG level in RBCs:
  • increased pCO2 level in blood;
  • decreased pH of blood;
  • increased temperature of blood
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52
Q

Increased Hgb is usually associated with

A

Different types of relative (dehydration) or absolute polycythemia.

Decreased Hgb:usually associated with relative (hyperhydration)or absolute (anemia) oligocythaemia!

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53
Q

Regenerative anemia, RBC parameter affected:

A

Diseases with favorable prognosis

  • Because enough new RBC’s are produced in the bone marrow to regenerate the anemia, to replace the RBC loss, and to reach normal RBC count quick

→Corrected reticulocyte count, CRC = reticulocyte % x RBC count

→ Corrected reticulocyte percentage, CRP!= Ht(patient)/Ht(average) x reticulocyte %

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54
Q

Non regenerative anemia, RBC parMCV definition, when can it be increased:

A

Bone marrow is not producing new RBC.

Not able to regenerate the anemia

→ MCV: indicates the average size of RBC’s

(macro,normo or microcytic)

PCV/RBC count x 1000 = MCV (fl),

normal:60–70fl

→ Increased:

  • regenerative anemias,
  • FeLV infection,
  • Vit B12,
  • Co or folic acid deficiency,
  • Erythroleukamia,
  • poodle
  • macrocytosis
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55
Q

MCHC definition and changes:

Indicates

A

Indicates the average concentration of hemoglobin in erythrocytes (Hb concentration),

  • Decreased(hypochromasia): newborns, regenerative anemia or iron deficiency anemia.
  • Increased (hyperchromasia):
  • Erythroleukemia(polycythemia absolute vera);
  • Vit B12, folic acid, cobalt deficiency;
  • Immunhemolytic anaemia (spherocytosis) IMHA,
  • lead poisoning,
  • splenectomy
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56
Q

MCH indicates

A

Average Hb content of RBCs.

Hgb(g/l)/RBC count x 10^12/l

  • Decrease, Hypochromasia: newborn animals, regenerative anaemias, iron deficiency.
  • Increase, hyperchromasia:
  • Erythroleukaemia;
  • Vitamin B12, folic acid, cobalt deficiency;
  • Immunohemolytic anaemia; IMHA
  • Lead poisoning
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57
Q

Cl and HCO3-

A

= Most important anion of plasma (buffer)

Decrease Cl:

  • abomasal displacement,
  • vomiting,
  • diarrhea,
  • sweating (horses)

Increase Cl:

  • salt poisoning,
  • Conn`s disease,
  • infusion overdose!
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58
Q

Elevated APTT(activated partial thromboplastin time) and PT (prothrombin time),!

(when can you see)??

A

Increased APTT and PT

= Common pathway problem

Increased APTT and equal PT

= intrinsic pathway problems

Equal APTT and increased PT

= Extrinsic pathway problem

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59
Q

Normocytic, normochromic:

MCV?

MCHC?

MCH?

A

MCV and MCHC normal,

MCH normal or decreased

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5
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60
Q

In a leukogram, what is a regenerative left shift and when can it be observed?

A

Increased WBC count, neutrophilia and left shift

Favorable prognosis after the first neutropenic phase

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61
Q

Polyclonal gammopathy, (definition, causes)

A

Abnormal levels of immunoglobulin production

  • Swelling of the liver,
  • Chronic diseases
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62
Q

What do you see in a chronic inflammation leukogram (right shift)

A

More adult lymphocytes appear.

It gets inhibited the young blood cells proliferation and also strengthens the membrane

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63
Q

Difference between laboratory and clinical signs in case of dehydration and hyperhydration

A

Clinical: skin tent, mucous membrane, capillary refill time

Laboratory: pack cell volume, TPc, MCV!

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64
Q

Acid/base pH evaluation stuff,

(also included values for ion amount, Na+, K+, Ca2+)

A

135-150!mmol/l!
K 2-5!
Ca2+: 2,2-3,3!

pO2, pCO2, ABE, SB

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65
Q

Non regenerative anaemia + the effect on calculated values:

A

MCV, MCH, MCHC!

MCH small,

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66
Q

Test for primary haemolysis, reasons for primary haemolysis

A

- Osmotic resistance test:

  • Dilution line from NaCl with one drop of blood in everyone,

Then incubation 10 mins

Centrifuge, and then take a look at the upper layer for hemolysis!

Primary hemolysis: bc the membrane of the eyes is damaged!

(nephropathy, specific membrane damage, increased physical damage)!

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67
Q

WBC count, reasons for leucopenia

A

With machine with the laser technique and hematology analyzer, with bürker chamber

Leucopenia: autoimmune sickness, first time of inflammation

68
Q

Hyperkalemia and hypokalemia!!

A

1. Hyperk = Neuromuscular irritability is higher,

Low heart rate

  • increased PO intake,
  • acute kidney failure,
  • rupture of the urinary bladder,
  • hypoadrenocorticism,
  • acidosis.
  • *2. Hypok = Neuromuscular irritability is lower**
  • *Low heart function**
  • Decreased intake,
  • longterm polyuria( eg. Chronic Kidney insufficiency),
  • administration of loop diurettics (eg. furosemide),
  • enteral K-loss (diarrhoea, enteral bleeding),
  • Prim/second CUSHINGS
69
Q

Laboratory signs of DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)

A

Decreased platelet count and appearance of burr cells in blood smear

70
Q

MCV(definition),

When can it be increased

A

Vitamin B12,

Polycythemia absolute vera

71
Q

Left regenerative shift (WBC,inflammation)

A

Acute inflammation, higher WBC!

72
Q

How do we determine PCV in the case of hypovolaemia, How can we interpret different PCV results?

A

Microhaematocrit, or automatic cell counter, Normocytamic Hypov.

Shock, bleeding, oligo h.Anemia Water loss,

Polyc H.dehydration

73
Q

How do we determine blood glucose level,

How can we detect if the glucose level are long term?

A

GOD POD reaction, long term:

Check the fructoseamine concentration

This is a complex of protein and glucose

The physiologic concentration of fructosamine: 207-340 micromol/l!

74
Q

How can we distinguish regenerative and non-regenerative anemias?

A
  • Appearance of microcytic/hypochromic anemia –> nonregenerative
  • Appearance of macrocytic/hypochromic anemia –> Regenerative
75
Q

B-Test

PH = 7.48
pCo2 = 43

pO2=38

HCO3=29

ABE= +11 Acidic state, Compensation, electrolyte value,1-2clinical signs

A

Decompensated metabolic alcalosis (you give ammoniumchlorid)

With metabolic acidosis (ABExBWx0.3(small animals) 0.2(big animals))mmol/HCO3- dosis!

Hypokalaemia: Hypoventilation muscleweakness!

76
Q

How to determine bleeding time,

What cause prolongation of bleeding time?

A

Cut in the ear etc.

BMBT test

Trombocytopenia, Trombocytopathy, Vasculopathy

  • Prolongation through thrombocytopathies thrombocytopenia, vasculopathy
77
Q

What is the diff between regenerative and degenerative left shifts?

When do we see them?

A

1. Regenerative: Increased WBC and Neutrophilia,

= Bone marrow regenerate the utilized neutrophiles

2. Degenerative: low or normal WBC and neutrophil count,

= The rate of the utilization is bigger than the production of the new cells

78
Q

Method to measure K+ and times it may be elevated

A

Ion selective electrodes or atomic absorption weight spectrometric or flame photometric

  • Increased intake,
  • haemolysis,
  • necrosis
79
Q

Observations in blood test for DIC

A
  • Bleeding time higher,
  • coagulation time = Higher
  • TT, PT, ATPP, Fibrin degradation Products(FDP) and Ddimer = ALL HIGHER
  • Platelet count down
80
Q

In a leukogram what is a regenerative left shift and when might it be observed?

A

Mainly young granulocytes and they can be regenerated, neutrophilia, increased WBC,

  • automatic!cell!counting!
81
Q

Tests for TP

1, Biuret method = which is generally used or the

  1. Refractometric method is 20-100!g/l.

The sensitivity of these methods cover the average TP of plasma (60-80g/l)

3. For smaller TP!

Concentrations of urine, Cerebrospinal fluids or the body cavity fluids or tissue homogenates

= Lowry method which works with the Folin-phenol reagent or Ultrasensitive

A
82
Q

Regenerative anaemia:

A

Diseases with favorable prognosis,

= because enough new RBC’s are produced in the bone marrow to regenerate the anaemia, to replace the RBC loss and to reach normal RBC count quickly.

83
Q
  1. please drag and drop words in their correct places.

A left shift is found when immature cells (younger form:..X1..older, still immature:…X2…) are found in proportionally larger populations than …X3.. forms. this is most often seen in the second phase (post-…X4…) of inflammation along with…X5…

Neutropenia, Segmented, Neutrophilia, Stab (band), Jugend (metamyelocyte)

A

X1.jugend (metamyelocyte)

X2 stab(band)

X3 Segmented

X4 neutropenia

X5 neutrophilia

84
Q

Antifreeze poisoning leads to the formation of …X1.. crystals in urine.

A

X1 = calcium oxalate

85
Q
  1. which parameter decreases in every anemic patient?
  • a) MCH X
  • b) MCHC
  • c) MCV
  • d) PCV X
  • e) WBC number
A

a) MCH X
d) PCV X ?

86
Q

Combination

  1. Haemolysis — …total bilirubin increases, PCV decreases, bile acids are unchanged…
  2. Hepatocellular damage is indicated by —
  3. Liver function tests — ..
  4. Only found in dogs —
  5. In case of cholestasis — .
  • ALT, AST, GLDH elevation
  • heat stabile (steroid induced) alkaline phophatase…
  • bile acids, total bilirubin, ammonia
  • .bile acids and total bilirubin increases…
  • total bilirubin increases, PCV decreases, bile acids are unchanged…
A
  1. .total bilirubin increases, PCV decreases, bile acids are unchanged…
  2. …ALT, AST, GLDH elevation
  3. .bile acids, total bilirubin, ammonia
  4. …heat stabile (steroid induced) alkaline phophatase…
  5. ..bile acids and total bilirubin increases…
87
Q

In case of respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation

pH decreases,

pCO2 increases,

HCO3- concentration increases.
true or false

A

True

88
Q

Write down the expected changes (increase/decrease) in laboratory parameters in patients suffering from chronic kidney disease!

A
  • increased Na
  • decreased Ca
  • increased urea
  • increased creatinine
  • decreased TP
  • increased inorganic phosphate - decreased specific gravity
  • decreased pH
89
Q
  1. the upper limit of pCO2 in canine venous blood is (number + unit)…
A

40mmHg…

90
Q
  1. in case of DIC:
    a) thrombocyte number increases

b) APTT decreases
c) APTT increases

d) PTT increases
e) platelet number decreases
f) PTT decreases

A

c) APTT increases X
d) PTT increases X
e) platelet number decreases X

91
Q

9. short answer: principles of ammonia measurement (source of ammonia in blood, sample type, measurement indications, causes of increased ammonia concentration in blood, without ammonia tolerance test)

A

- ammonia concentration measurement as a liver function test

  • before taking blood sample the animal should starve for 24 hours
  • blood sample in tubes with anticoagulants + avoid air contamination
  • perform determination right after sampling or store the sample in ice bath for max. 20 min
  • measurement method: ammonia with alpha-ketoglutaric acid & NADH+H+ & GLDH produces glutamic acid & NAD+
  • reduction of absorbancy can be measured spectrophotometrically
  • plasma samples are needed for the standard method, whole blood samples can be used with

the ammonia-checker

- causes of increased ammonia concentration in blood:

  • impaired liver function,
  • ruminal alkalosis,
  • congenital enzymopathies,
  • ammonia toxicosis,
  • intestinal overgrowth of ammonia producing bacteria
92
Q

10. characterise left shift: description, types, occurence, cell types

A
  • more young WBC appear in the circulating blood
  • cells are mobilised from the marginal pool, then differentiated forms are migrating to the bone

marrow, later younger cells enter the blood stream

  • increased tissue requirements —> very young cells are going out from the mitotic pool
  • regenerative left shift: increased WBC count, neutrophilia, sign of favourable prognosis
  • degenerative left shift: low or normal WBC count, neutrophil, sign of poor prognosis —>

disease is very serious and needs immediate treatment

  • young metamyelocytes and band forms are visible
  • inflammatory process
93
Q
  1. write down the causes of metabolic acidosis!
A
  • diarrhoea,
  • ileus,
  • kidney tubular disturbance,
  • DM,
  • hyperkalaemia,
  • increased acid intake,
  • increased acid production,
  • renal failure,
  • increased ketogenesis
94
Q
  1. what are the causes of hyperkalaemia?
A
  • increased per os intake,
  • acute kidney failure,
  • rupture of urinary bladder,
  • acidosis,
  • hypoaldosteronism (Addison’s disease),
  • overdose of potassium-containing fluids
95
Q
  1. unconjugated bilirubin (bilirubin I) is expected to increase in serum in patients with prehepatic causes of icterus.

True or false

A

True

96
Q
  1. B12 concentration increases while folate concentration decreases in plasma in case of malabsorption.
    true or false
A

False

97
Q
  1. in case of prehepatic icterus an increased urobilinogen (UBG) concentration is expected in both serum and urine.
    true or false
A

True

98
Q
  1. choose the amylase isoenzymes!
    a) intestinal

b) renal
c) musculoskeletal
d) pancreatic

e) salivary

A

a) intestinal X
d) pancreatic X
e) salivary X

99
Q
  1. predigested lipid absorption (lipid + pancreatic extract fed after incubation) from the intestines leading to lipaemia and hypertrygliceridaemia indicates an intestinal absorption defect.
    true or false
A

True

100
Q
  1. select the negative acute phase proteins!
    a) albumin
    b) haptoglobin

c) fibrinogen
d) CRP
e) transferrin

A

a) albumin X
e) transferrin X

101
Q
  1. single choice: which sample type can be used for ammonia determination?
A

plasma sample for standard methods
whole blood sample for portable ammonia-checker

102
Q
  1. cavity effusions can form as a result of hydrostatic pressure change in the vascular system. ?

true or false

A

True

103
Q
  1. single choice: which is not a prerenal cause of increased urea concentration?
  • a) cardiac failure
  • b) shock
  • c) glomerular problem
  • d) addison’s disease
  • e) dehydration
A

d) addison’s disease

104
Q
  1. match the parameters with the processes
  2. hemophilia A —
  3. DIC —
    3, Thrombocytopenia —
  4. rodenticide (warfarin) poisoning, early —
  5. rodenticide (dicumarol) toxicosis, late —

A. BMBT increased, APTT increased, PT increased…

B. BMBT unchanged, APTT unchanged, PT increased..

C. BMBT unchanged, APTT increased, PT unchanged

D. BMBT unchanged, APTT increased, PT increased…

E. BMBT increased, APTT unchanged, PT unchanged…

A
  1. BMBT unchanged, APTT increased, PT unchanged…
  2. BMBT increased, APTT increased, PT increased…
  3. BMBT increased, APTT unchanged, PT unchanged…
  4. BMBT unchanged, APTT unchanged, PT increased…
  5. BMBT unchanged, APTT increased, PT increased…
105
Q
  1. renal tubular cell damage causes increased alkaline phosphatase (ALKP, AP) concentration in the blood.
    true or false
A

False

106
Q
  1. acid-base: when compensatory effect is visible, it is easily detected, because the parameter causing the primary changes is shifted in opposite direction compared to the pH.

true or false

A

True

107
Q
  1. match the lipid fractions with the apolipoproteins carrying them!

triacyl-glycerols —

cholesterol — …

phospholipids —

free fatty acids —

  1. LDL/HDL
  2. Albumin
  3. HDL
  4. VLDL
A

triacyl-glycerols — ..4.VLDL…

cholesterol — ..1.LDL/HDL…

phospholipids — ..3.HDL…

free fatty acids — ..2,.albumin…

108
Q
  1. the following organs are called vital buffers: kidney, bone, liver, lungs

true or false

A

False

109
Q
  1. multiple choice: urine pH decreases in the following conditions:

a) incontinence
b) pyometra
c) ethyleneglycol toxicosis (antifreeze poisoning)
d. ) acidosis, vomiting, hypokalaemia, acidifying drugs (ammonium chloride), abomasal displacement

A

c) ethyleneglycol toxicosis (antifreeze poisoning)

110
Q
  1. urine pH in carnivores is mostly acidic while in herbivores it is alkaline.

true or false

A

true

111
Q
  1. rivalta test

Prepare 3% acetic-acid solution. one-two drops of native (not centrifuged) sample must be dripped into the solution. if coagulation (smoky appearance) occurs the result is ….X1.. - due to the coagulation of labile proteins (…X2…, globulins) as weak acid can coagulate these proteins. if coagulation is not observed but the sample is dissolved in the solution the result is …X3… - due to the fact that stabile proteins, such as …X4… does not show coagulation in weak acids.

A

X1 = exudate.

X2 = fibrinogen

X3 = transudate

X4= albumin..

112
Q
  1. match the etiologies with the consequences!
  2. endotoxin effect —
  3. right sided congestive heart failure —
  4. lymphangiectasia, intestinal — .
  5. protein losing entropathy — …
A
  1. hydrostatic pressure increases…

.2.increased vascular permeability…

  1. decreased plasma colloid oncotic pressure…
  2. .lymph stasis…
113
Q
  1. an increase in plasma colloid oncotic pressure can result in cavity effusion formation

true or false

A

False

114
Q
  1. decreasing pH will lead to increased haemoglobin oxygen binding capacity (right shift of the oxygen dissociation curve)
    true or false
A

False

115
Q
  1. single choice: which is not formed in the liver?
  • a) IgE
  • b) Haptoglobin
  • c) albumin
  • d) prothrombin
  • e) fibrinogen
A

a) IgE

116
Q
  1. multiple choice: which conditions lead to an increased bile acid concentration in serum?
  • a) intravascular haemolysis
  • b) cholangiohepatitis
  • c) colitis
  • d) portosystemic shunt
  • e) bile duct obstruction
A

b) cholangiohepatitis
d) portosystemic shunt
e) bile duct obstruction

117
Q
  1. multiple choice: ACTH stimulation test is used to:
    a) screen for hyperadrenocorticism
    b) monitor treatment for hyperadrenocorticism

c) screen overall pituitary hyperfunction
d) diagnose ectopic ACTH production

e) diagnose hypoadrenocorticism

A

a) screen for hyperadrenocorticism
b) monitor treatment for hyperadrenocorticism
e) diagnose hypoadrenocorticism

118
Q
  1. multiple choice: total bilirubin is expected to increase in serum due to increases in bilirubin I formation in case of:
  • a) acute haemolysis
  • b) haematoma formation (resorption icterus)
  • c) extrahepatic bile duct obstruction
  • d) decreased conjugation in the liver
  • e) bile peritonitis
A
  • a) acute haemolysis
  • b) haematoma formation (resorption icterus)
  • d) decreased conjugation in the liver
119
Q
  1. analysis of effusions: which analytes are measured in the conditions given to prove their presence?
  2. chylous effusion — .
  3. bile peritonitis — .
  4. acute pancreatitis —

4, urinary tract rupture —

  1. tumor related effusion — .
A
  1. .increased triglycerides with normal cholesterol…
  2. ..LDH…
  3. …amylase, lipase…
  4. ..total bilirubin…
  5. …urea, creatinine…
120
Q
  1. pH is defined as the negative base 10 logarithm of hydrogen ion concentration.

true or false

A

True

121
Q
  1. the glutaric aldehyde test determines the presence of acute inflammation in ruminants.

true or false

A

True

122
Q
  1. single choice: which one is not a urinary cast type?
  • a) waxy
  • b) hyaline
  • c) white blood cell
  • d) transitional cell
  • e) granular
A

a) waxy X

  • c) white blood cell ?
  • d) transitional cell ?
123
Q
  1. match the analytes with information thy can give!
    1. MCV — .
    1. reticulocyte count —
    1. MCHC — …
    1. RDW — ..
    1. osmotic resistance — .
  • A. anisocytosis…
  • B. extravascular haemolysis…
  • C. average concentration of haemoglobin in erythrocytes…
  • D. macrocytosis…
  • E. regeneration…
A

4A. .anisocytosis…

5B. ..extravascular haemolysis…

3C. average concentration of haemoglobin in erythrocytes…

1D. ..macrocytosis…

2E…regeneration…

124
Q
  1. acid-base: the primary process (metabolic or respiratory) is the one that leads to the acid-base disturbance - this parameter is always shifted in the same direction as the pH and usually this shift is significant!
    true or false
A

True

125
Q
  1. single choice: which tube can be used for the coagulation factor measurement?
  • a) EDTA
  • b) Na-citrate 9:1 (blood to citrate)
  • c) Na-citrate 4:1 (blood to citrate)
  • d) Li-heparine
  • e) NaF
A

b) Na-citrate 9:1 (blood to citrate)

126
Q
  1. fibrinogen free plasma is called (blood) serum.

True or false

A

True

127
Q
  1. the reference interval and unit of actual base excess (ABE) is:
A

….+/-3,5mmol/l…

128
Q
  1. decreasing pH (acidosis) results in an increased oxygen unload from haemoglobin (right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve)
    true or false
A

True

129
Q
  1. AST is a liver specific enzyme (ie only produced in the liver)

true or false

A

False

130
Q
  1. the canine steroid induced hepatic alkaline phosphatase (ALKP, AP) isoform is heat stabile.
    true or false
A

True

131
Q
  1. urine specific gravity (USG): measurement results and their interpretation.
  • to analyze the USG you need a refractometer and a urine sample
  • you take one drop of urine on the field and close the cover, after this you look threw the ocular and then you can see the scale
  • scale is from under 1008-1045g/l
  • hypersthenuria: 1015-1045 g/l
  • isosthenuria: 1008-1012g/l
  • hyposthenuria: <1008g/l
A
132
Q
  1. match the conditions with typical expected changes!
  2. vit B12/folate deficiency — .
  3. regenerative anaemia — .
  4. nonregenerative anaemia — …
  5. iron deficiency anaemia —
  6. breed: akita — .
  • A. MCV unchanged, MCHC unchanged…
  • B. MCV increased, MCHC unchanged…
  • C. MCV increased, MCHC decreased…
  • D. MCV decreased, MCHC decreased…
  • E. MCV decreased, MCHC unchanged…
A

3C..MCV unchanged, MCHC unchanged…

1A. MCV increased, MCHC unchanged…

2B. ..MCV increased, MCHC decreased…

4D. …MCV decreased, MCHC decreased…

5E. ..MCV decreased, MCHC unchanged…

133
Q
  1. what causes the following changes?
  2. relative polycythaemia, hypervolaemic —
  3. absolute oligocythaemia, normovolaemic —
  4. relative oligocythaemia, hypovolaemic —
  5. relative oligocythaemia, hypervolaemic — .
  6. relative polycythaemia, hypovolaemic —
  7. absolute polycythaemia, normovolaemic — .
  • A. .acute stress…
  • b. .hypoxia…
  • C. iatrogenic infusion overdose…
  • D.immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia…
  • E.chronic kidney injury AND diarrhea…
  • F.burns…
A

1A. …acute stress…

6B. ..hypoxia…

4C. ..iatrogenic infusion overdose…

2D. …immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia…

3E..chronic kidney injury AND diarrhea…

5F. …burns…

134
Q
  1. match the diseases with acid-base disorders!
  • 1, diarrhea — ..
    1. pneumonia — .
    1. fever, hyperventilation —
    1. vomiting — .

A. metabolic acidosis…

B. respiratory alkalosis…

C. respiratory acidosis…

D. metabolic alkalosis…

A

1A. .metabolic acidosis…

3B…respiratory alkalosis…

2C. ..respiratory acidosis…

4D. ..metabolic alkalosis…

135
Q
  1. multiple choice: select the causes of metabolic alkalosis!
    a) hepatic insufficiency

b) diarrhea
c) vomiting

d) ruminal bloat
e) chronic kidney disease
f) abomasal displacement

A

a) hepatic insufficiency
c) vomiting
d) ruminal bloat
f) abomasal displacement X

136
Q
  1. multiple choice: select the keton bodies!
  • a) acetone
  • b) propanone
  • c) acetoacetate
  • d) beta hydroxibutyrate
  • e) glucagon
A

a) acetone X
c) acetoacetate
d) beta hydroxibutyrate X

137
Q
  1. …X1..-lity expresses the osmotic pressure of the (body) fluids. osmolarity is expressed in different units than osmolality: osmolality - …X2.., osmolarity - …X3.. . the calculation of osmolality is performed based on the formula below if all of the parameter concentrations are given in mmol/l: osmolality (mOsm/kg) = 2 (…X4..+..X5..) + …X6 + X7..
A

X1= osmola.

X2= kg

X3= l.

X4= Na+

X5= K+

X6 = Urea

X7= Glucose

138
Q
  1. creatinine is a degradation product of muscle creatin.

true or false

A

False

139
Q
  1. describe AST: which tissues produce it, causes of increased activity, causes of decreased activity!
A
  • AST = aspartate-aminotransferase
  • produced in the liver
  • converts alpha-keto-glutaric acid to L-glutamic acid and L-aspartate to oxalic acetic acid
  • causes of increased activity:
  • muscle: intensive exercise, training, muscle necrosis, muscular inflammation, myocarditis, muscle injury, neoplasm of the muscle
  • liver: ethanol consumption, hepatopathy, parenchymal damage
  • haemolysis of RBCs
  • causes of decreased activity: metronidasol, vitamin B6 deficiency
140
Q
  1. short answer: urine specific gravity. definition, measurement methods
A
  • SG is an indicator of concentrating ability (tubular function) of the kidneys
  • ratio of the weight of the liquid to an equal volume of distilled water
  • SG increases with increasing concentration of dissolved ions, glucose, lipids, contrast

materials, proteins

  • measurement: urinometer, refractometer, test strip GENAUER?
141
Q
  1. characterise diagnostic tests to diagnose exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI) with a focus on TLI and its changes. TLI characterisation worth 4 pts while the other tests worth alltogether 1 pt.
A
  • EPI is developed due to chronic necrotic or atrophic damage to the pancreas or inherited
  • decreased production of digestive enzymes or enzymes do not get out of the organ TLI = trypsine like immunoreactivity
  • TLI: species specific parameter, determined by RIA-method or ELISA methods
  • antibodies are produced against one part of trypsinogen
  • radioisotope marked antibodies are bound to the trypsinogen of the sample -> increased radioactivity that can be measured by a specific analyser
  • examination of TLI is very useful in disgnosis of chronic recurring pancreatitis in cats
  • most specific method
  • if EPI is caused by obstruction of the pancreatic duct, TLI level is normal or high other methods: BT-PABA test, dyed agar-gel digestion and schwachmann-filmtest, lipid absorption test & faecal elastase test GENAUER?
142
Q
  1. multiple choice: which leads to a prerenal increase of urea concentration in serum?
  • a) intestinal bleeding
  • b) urinary tract obstruction
  • c) impaired liver function
  • d) poor ruminal energy status
  • e) cardiac failure
A

a) intestinal bleeding
c) impaired liver function
d) poor ruminal energy status
e) cardiac failure

143
Q
  1. acetic acid is the largest fraction of volatile fatty acids on a neutral pH in ruminal fluid.

True or false

A

True

144
Q
  1. single choice: which sample type can be used for ammonia determination?

a) serum
b) plasma

A

b) plasma

145
Q
  1. which buffer is NOT a part of the intra/extracellular buffer systems? ?
  • a) hydrochloric acid
  • b) phosphate
  • c) albumin
  • d) protein
  • e) hämoglobin
A

a) hydrochloric acid ?
c) albumin

146
Q
  1. thrombocytopenia is a thrombocyte count over the upper reference limit (the upper end of the reference interval)
    true or false
A

False

147
Q
  1. expected acid-base changes in various forms of ileus: distal ileus - metabolic acidosis, proximal ileus (initially) - metabolic alkalosis
    true or false
A

True

148
Q
  1. ruminal fluid pH is lower before feeding then after it.

true or false

A

False

149
Q
  1. multiple choice: select the metabolic parameters! ?
  • a) partial O2 pressure
  • b) partial CO2 pressure
  • c) actual base excess
  • d) standard base excess (SBE)
  • e) bicarbonate concentration
A

a) partial O2 pressure
d) standard base excess (SBE)
e) bicarbonate concentration

150
Q
  1. the upper limit of pCO2 in canine venous blood is (number + unit):
A

…40mmHg…

151
Q
  1. single choice: which factor’s function is independent of vitamin K?
    a) von willebrand factor

b) X (sturat-prower)
c) VII (proconvertin)
d) II (prothrombin)

e) IX (christmas)

A

a) von willebrand factor

152
Q
  1. creatinine is filtrated through the glomeruli and then partially reabsorbed in the tubuli.

true or false

A

False

153
Q
  1. the glucose absorption test can distinguish malabsorption from diabetes mellitus.

true or false

A

True

154
Q
  1. multiple choice: select the correct answers! thrombocytopathy can be found in case of:
  • a) uraemia
  • b) NSAID treatment
  • c) antifreeze poisoning
  • d) liver failure
  • e) rodenticide poisoning
A

a) uraemia
b) NSAID treatment
d) liver failure

155
Q
  1. characterise transudates: causes of development, protein content (compared to other types of effusions), specific gravity (compared to other types of effusions), cell types, counts etc.
A
  • specific gravity: < 1,017
  • causes of development: bloody: heart failure, stasis of vessels, watery or yellowish: liver failure
  • small lymphocytes, macrophages and reactive mesothelial cells, increase in neutropjils and macrophages

- nuclear cell count: < 1-10

- TP < 25

156
Q
  1. proteinuria: describe the prerenal causes.
A

occurs within neonates below 40 hours of age: a

fter strenuous exercise, extreme heat or cold, stress, related to increased tubular permeability

157
Q
  1. alkaline phosphatase: changes in its concentration
A

- tubular cell damage causes increased activity in urine

  • increased activity: young dogs, pregnant animals, bone tumour, osteomyelitis, bone fracture,

paraneoplastic processes, cholestasis, bile acids, acute hepatic necrosis, liver cirrhosis, biliary

obstruction, chronic stress

  • decreased activity: very severe cirrhosis
158
Q
  1. ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is directly proportional to increased WBC (white blood cell) count.

true or false

A

True

159
Q
  1. write down the causes and characteristics of various gammopathies!
A
  • polyclonal gammopathy: occurs during inflammatory processes or immune mediated diseases - causes: chronic inflammatory diseases, liver disease, FIP, heartworm disease, ehrlichiosis
  • broad-based peak in the beta and/or gamma region
  • beta-gamma bridging occurs in disorder with increased IgA and IgM
  • monoclonal gammopathy: occurs during immune mediated or neoplastic conditions
  • causes: neoplastic and non-neoplastic disorders
  • sharp spike in the beta or gamma region (peak can be compared to the albumin peak)
160
Q
  1. prehepatic icterus mostly leads to an increase in bilirubin II (conjugated bilirubin) (sample: serum)
    true or false
A

True

161
Q
  1. match the measurement methods with the analytes/processes!
  2. thrombocyte number —
  3. extrinsic pathway — …
  4. intrinsic pathway — …
  5. fibrinogen concentration —
  6. thrombocyte function —

A. PTT…

B .impedance count…

C. APTT…

D. TT…

E. aggregometry…

A

2A. PTT…

1B. …impedance count…

3C. APTT…

4D. …TT…

5E. …aggregometry…

162
Q
  1. fibrinogen free plasma is called (blood) serum

true or false

A

True

163
Q
  1. write at least 5 causes for an increased amylase concentration measured in serum!
A
  • acute pancreatitis,
  • acute or subacute kidney failure,
  • FIP,
  • myeloma,
  • DM,
  • ileus,
  • chronic enteritis
164
Q
  1. characterise the LDDS test: what is it used to, how to perform it, result interpretation.
A
  • used to: screen for HAC
  • low dose of dexamethasone will suppress normal pituitary gland but in HAC, not used in cats
  • start at 8-9am with hospitalized patient, heparin sample after 0 hours, IV dexmethasone, blood

sample 4 and 8 hours after dexmethasone treatment, measure plasma cortisol

  • interpretation: pituitary hyperadrenocorticism: 4 hours plasma cortisol, 8 hours: similar to basal

concentration

165
Q
  1. describe 3 methods used for red blood cell counting and the information gained with their use!
A

1- Bürker-chamber method: mix 0,05ml blood sample with 9,95ml physiological saline (0,9% NaCl)

  • put 1 drop of the solution onto the Bürker chamber and count cells in 20 rectangles or 80 small

squares

  • counted number divided by 100 gives RBCx10^12 per liter
  • poor accurancy: 10-25% error estimated

2- estimated RBC-count: we suspect normal average RBC volume

  • ((Ht1/1) / 5) x 100 = RBC count x10^12 / liter

3- RBC count measured by automatic cell counter: based on the electric impendance of particles

  • impendance is in correlation with the size
  • based on electical impendance change due to transmission of particles through an aperture
  • RBC are impeding the electrical flow
  • particles taken as RBCs if their size is 40-100 fl
  • x-axis: size
  • y-axis: number of counted cells
  • aggregated RBCs are not counted - you could warm the blood sample to 37° before the

counting to separate the aggregated RBCs

166
Q
A

Lab D (11 decks)

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