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Lab D > Past Q - Exam > Flashcards

Past Q - Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Total bilirubin is expected to increase in serum due to increases in bilirubin I formation
in case of
a. Acute haemolysis
b. Haematoma formation (resorption icterus)
c. Extrahepatic bile duct obstruction
d. Decreased conjugation in liver
e. Bile peritonitis

A

a. Acute haemolysis
b. Haematoma formation (resorption icterus)
d. Decreased conjugation in liver

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2
Q

ACTH stimulation test is used to

a. Screen for hyperadrenocorticism
b. Monitor treatment for hyperadrenocorticism
c. Screen overall pituitary hyperfunction
d. Diagnose ectopic ACTH secretion
e. Diagnose hyperadrenocorticism

A

a. Screen for hyperadrenocorticism

b. Monitor treatment for hyperadrenocorticism

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3
Q

Which is NOT formed in the liver

a. IgE
b. Haptoglobin
c. Albumin
d. Prothrombin
e. Fibrinogen

A

a. IgE

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4
Q

Decreasing pH will lead to increased haemoglobin oxygen binding capacity (right shift
of the oxygen dissociation)…
True or false

A

FALSE

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5
Q

An increase in plasma oncotic pressure can result in cavity effusion formation…
True or false

A

FALSE

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6
Q

Cavity effusions: match the etiologies with the consequences

a. Endotoxin effect…
b. Right sided congestive heart failure…
c. Lymphangiectasia, intestinal…
d. Protein-losing enteropathy…
1. increased vascular permeability
2. decreased plasma colloid oncotic pressure
3. lymph stasis
4. hydrostatic pressure increase

A

a. Endotoxin effect… 1. increased vascular permeability
b. Right sided congestive heart failure… 4. hydrostatic pressure increase
c. Lymphangiectasia, intestinal… 3. lymph stasis
d. Protein-losing enteropathy… 2. decreased plasma colloid oncotic pressure

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7
Q

A left shift is found when immature cells (younger form: …………)
older, still immature: ………… are found in proportionally larger populations than
…………. forms. This is most often seen in the second phase (post-…………) of
inflammation along with ………….

A 
Jugend (metamyelocytes)
Stab (band) 
Segmented
Neutrophilia
Neutropenia
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8
Q

Match the conditions with typically expected changes

a. Vitamin B12/folate deficiency…
b. Regenerative anemia…
c. Non-regenerative anemia…
d. Iron deficiency anemia…
e. Breed: Akita…

  1. decreased MCV, MCHC unchanged
  2. increased MCV, MCHC unchanged
  3. decreased MCV, decreased MCHC
  4. increased MCV, decreased MCHC
  5. unchanged, MCV, MCHC unchanged
A

a. Vitamin B12/folate deficiency… 2. increased MCV, MCHC unchanged
b. Regenerative anemia… 4. increased MCV, decreased MCHC
c. Non-regenerative anemia… 5. unchanged, MCV, MCHC unchanged
d. Iron deficiency anemia… 3. decreased MCV, decreased MCHC
e. Breed: Akita… 1. decreased MCV, MCHC unchanged

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9
Q

Select the negative acute-phase proteins

a. CRP
b. Albumin
c. Fibrinogen
d. Transferrin
e. Haptoglobin

A

b. Albumin
d. Transferrin
➡Note: During acute inflammation, the positive acute phase proteins increase while the
negative acute phase proteins decrease.

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10
Q

In case of DIC

a. PTT increases
b. APTT decreases
c. APTT increases
d. Thrombocyte (platelet) number increases
e. PTT decreases
f. Platelet number decreases

A

a. PTT increases
c. APTT increases
f. Platelet number decreases

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11
Q

The reference interval and unit of actual base excess (ABE) is…

A

+/- 3.5 mmol/l

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12
Q

The upper limit of pCO2 in canine venous blood is (number + unit)…

A

45 mmHg

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13
Q

The canine steroid induced hepatic alkaline phosphatase (ALKP, AP) isoform is heat
stable…
True or false

A

TRUE

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14
Q

AST is a liver-specific enzyme (i.e. only produced in the liver)…
True or false

A

FALSE

Muscle, heart, RBC too

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15
Q 
Decreasing pH (acidosis) results in an increased oxygen unload from haemoglobin
(right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve)…
True or false
A

FALSE

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16
Q

Fibrinogen free plasma is called (blood) serum…

True or false

A

TRUE

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17
Q 
Sub-questions
a. Hepatocellular damage is indicated by… 
b. Haemolysis… 
c. Only found in dogs… 
d. Liver function tests… 
e. In case of cholestasis…
1.  ALT, AST, GLDH increase
2. ALT, AST, GLDH increase
3. Bile acids, total bilirubin, ammonia
4. Total bilirubin increases, PCV decreases, bile acids are
unchanged
5. bile acids and total bilirubin increase
A

A. Hepatocellular damage is indicated by… 1. ALT, AST, GLDH increase
B. Haemolysis… 4. Total bilirubin increases, PCV decreases, bile acids are unchanged
C. Only found in dogs… 2. ALT, AST, GLDH increased.
D. Liver function tests… 3. Bile acids, total bilirubin, ammonia
E. In the case of cholestasis… 5. bile acids and total bilirubin increase

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18
Q

Which tube can be used for coagulation measurements?

a. EDTA
b. Na-citrate 9:1 (blood:citrate)
c. Na-citrate 4:1 (blood:citrate)
d. Li-heparine
e. NaF

A

e. NaF

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19
Q

The primary process (metabolic or respiratory) is the one that leads to the acid-base
disturbance - this parameter is always shifted in the same direction as the pH and
usually this shift is significant…
True or false

A

TRUE

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20
Q

Match the analytes with informations they can give

a. MCV…
b. Reticulocyte count…
c. MCHC…
d. RDW…
e. Osmotic resistance…
1. regeneration
2. macrocytosis
3. intravascular haemolysis
4. anisocytosis
5. hypochromasia

A 
A. MCV — 2. Macrocytosis
B. Reticulocyte COUNT — 4. Anisocytosis
C. MCHC —  5. Hypochromasia
D. RDW — 1. Regeneration
E. Osmotis resistance — 3. Intravascular Haemolysis
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21
Q

Which one is not a urinary cast type?

a. Waxy
b. Hyaline
c. White blood cell
d. Transitional cell
e. Granular

A

d. Transitional cell

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22
Q

The glutaric aldehyde test determines the presence of acute inflammation in
ruminants…
True or false

A

TRUE

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23
Q

pH is defined as the negative base 10 logarithm of hydrogen ion concentration…
True or false

A

TRUE

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24
Q

Which analytes are measured in the conditions given to prove their presence?

a. Chylorous effusion…
b. Bile peritonitis…
c. Acute pancreatitis…
d. Urinary tract rupture…
e. Tumour related effusion…
1. increased triglycerides with normal cholesterol
2. total bilirubin
3. amylase, lipase
4. LDH
5. urea, creatinine

A

a. Chylorous effusion… 1. increased triglycerides with normal cholesterol
b. Bile peritonitis… 2. total bilirubin
c. Acute pancreatitis…3. amylase, lipase
d. Urinary tract rupture…5. urea, creatinine
e. Tumour related effusion…4. LDH

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25
Q

Which conditions lead to increased bile acids in the serum?

a. Intravascular haemolysis
b. Cholangiohepatitis
c. Colitis
d. Portosystemic shunt
e. Bile duct obstruction

A

a. Intravascular haemolysis
b. Cholangiohepatitis
d. Portosystemic shunt
e. Bile duct obstruction

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26
Q

Rivalta test:

A

Preparation paragraph (exactly from notes - pg 88)

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27
Q

Urine pH in carnivores is mostly acidic while in herbivores it is alkaline… True or false

A

TRUE

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28
Q

Match the lipid fractions with the apolipoproteins carrying them

a. Triacylglycerols…
b. Cholesterol…
c. Phospholipids…
d. Free fatty acids…
1. albumin
2. LDL/HDL
3. VLDL
4. HDL

A

a. Triacylglycerols… 3. VLDL
b. Cholesterol…2. LDL/HDL
c. Phospholipids…4. HDL
d. Free fatty acids…1. albumin

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29
Q

The following organs are called vital buffers: kidney, bones, liver, lungs…
True or false

A

FALSE

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30
Q

Antifreeze poisoning (ethylene glycol) leads to the formation of crystals in urine…

A

Calcium oxalate

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31
Q

Renal tubular cell damage causes increased alkaline phosphatase (ALKP, AP)
concentration in the blood…
True or false

A

FALSE
Only hepatic and bone ALKP appear in blood

Tubular cell damage causes increased ALKP in URINE

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32
Q

Match

a. Haemophilia A…
b. DIC…
c. Thrombocytopenia…
d. Rodenticide (warfarin) poisoning early…
e. Rodentic (dicumarol) toxicosis, late…

  1. BMBT unchanged, APTT increased, PT unchanged
  2. BMBT increased, APTT increased, PT unchanged
  3. BMBT increased, APTT increased, PT increased
  4. BMBT unchanged, APTT increased, PT increased
  5. BMBT unchanged, APTT unchanged, PT increased
A

A. Haemophilia A…
1. BMBT unchanged, APTT increased, PT unchanged

B. DIC…
3. BMBT increased, APTT increased, PT increased

C. Thrombocytopenia…
2. BMBT increased, APTT increased, PT unchanged

D. Rodenticide (warfarin) poisoning early…
5. BMBT unchanged, APTT unchanged, PT increased

E. Rodentic (dicumarol) toxicosis, late…
4. BMBT unchanged, APTT increased, PT increased

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33
Q

Which is not a pre-renal cause of increased urea concentration

a. Cardiac failure
b. Shock
c. Glomerular problems
d. Addison’s disease
e. Dehydration

A

c. Glomerular problems

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34
Q

Cavity effusions can form as a result of hydrostatic pressure change in the vascular
system…
True or false

A

TRUE

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35
Q

Predigested lipid absorption (lipid + pancreatic extract fed after incubation) from the
intestines leading to lipaemia and hypertrygliceridaemia indicates an intestinal
absorption defect…
True or false

A

FALSE

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36
Q

Choose the amylase isoenzymes

a. Intestinal
b. Renal
c. Musculoskelatal
d. Pancreatic
e. Salivary

A

a. Intestinal
d. Pancreatic
e. Salivary

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37
Q

In case of prehepatic icterus, an increased urobilinogen (UBG) concentration is
expected in both serum and urine…
True or false

A

TRUE

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38
Q

B12 concentration increases while folate concentration decreases in plasma in case of malabsorption…

A

False?

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39
Q 
In case of respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation: 
pH decreases, 
pCO2 increases, 
HCO3- concentration increases…
True or false
A

FALSE

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40
Q 
Unconjugated bilirubin (bilirubin I) is expected to increase in serum in patients with
prehepatic causes of icterus…
True or false
A

TRUE

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41
Q

.Osmolality (paragraph exactly from notes - pg 10

A

?

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42
Q

Select the ketone bodies

a. Acetone
b. Propanone
c. Acetoacetate
d. Beta hydroxybutyrate
e. Glucagon

A

a. Acetone
c. Acetoacetate
d. Beta hydroxybutyrate

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43
Q

Select the causes of metabolic alkalosis

a. Hepatic insufficiency
b. Diarrhoea
c. Vomiting
d. Ruminal bloat
e. Chronic kidney disease
f. Abomasal displacement

A

a. Hepatic insufficiency
c. Vomiting
f. Abomasal displacement

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44
Q

Match: diseases with acid base disorders

a. Diarrhoea…
b. Pneumonia…
c. Fever, hyperventilation…
d. Vomiting…

  1. respiratory alkalosis
  2. metabolic alkalosis
  3. respiratory acidosis
  4. metabolic acidosis
A

a. Diarrhoea… 4. metabolic acidosis
b. Pneumonia…3. respiratory acidosis
c. Fever, hyperventilation… 1. respiratory alkalosis
d. Vomiting… 2. metabolic alkalosis

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45
Q

What causes the following changes?

a. Absolute oligocythaemia, normovolaemic…
b. Absolute polycythaemia, normovolaemic…
c. Relative polycythaemia, hypovolaemic…
d. Relative oligocythaemia, hypovolaemic…
e. Relative polycythaemia, hypervolaemic…
f. Relative oligocythaemia, hypervolaemic…

  1. hypoxia
  2. Iatrogenic infusion overdose
  3. acute stress
  4. chronic kidney injury and diarrhea
  5. burns
  6. immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia (IHA)
A

A. Absolute oligocythaemia, normovolaemic…
6. immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia (IHA)

B. Absolute polycythaemia, normovolaemic…
1. Hypoxia

C. Relative polycythaemia, hypovolaemic…
5. burns

D. Relative oligocythaemia, hypovolaemic…
4. Chronic kidney injury and diarrhea

E. Relative polycythaemia, hypervolaemic…
3. acute stress

F. Relative oligocythaemia, hypervolaemic…
2. Iatrogenic infusion overdose

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46
Q

Which sample type can be used for ammonia determination?

a. Serum
b. Plasma

A

b. Plasma

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47
Q

Select the metabolic parameters

a. Partial O2 pressure
b. Partial CO2 pressure
c. Actual base excess
d. Standard base excess
e. Bicarbonate concentration

A

c. Actual base excess

e. Bicarbonate concentration

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48
Q

Which factor’s function is independent of vitamin K?

a. Von willebrand factor
b. X (Stuart prower)
c. VII (proconvertin)
d. II (prothrombin)
e. IX (Christmas)

A

a. Von willebrand factor

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49
Q

Creatinine is filtrated through the glomeruli and they partially reabsorbed in the
tubuli…
True or false

A

FALSE

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50
Q

Thrombocytopathy can be found in cases of

a. Uraemia
b. Anti-freeze poisoning
c. NSAID treatment
d. Rodenticide poisoning
e. Liver failure

A

A. Uraemia
C. NSAID treatment
E. Liver failure

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51
Q

Creatinine is a degradation product of muscle creatin
• True
• False

A

• True

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52
Q

The glucose absorption test can distinguish malabsorption from diabetes mellitus
• True
• False

A

False

53
Q

Ruminal pH is lower before eating than after
• True
• False

A

• False

54
Q

Acetic acid is the largest fraction of volatile fatty acids on the neutral pH in ruminal fluid.
• True
• False

A

• True

55
Q 
5. Which buffer is not a part of the intra/extracellular buffer systems?
• Albumin
• Phosphate
• Hydrochloric acid
• Bicarbonate
A

• Hydrochloric acid

56
Q

Expected acid base changes in various forms of ileus:
Distal ileus – metabolic acidosis
Proximal ileus (initially) -metabolic alkalosis
• True
• False

A

• True

57
Q

Acid-base -When a compensatory effect is visible it is easily detected, because the
parameter causing the primary changes is shifted in the opposite direction compared to the
pH.
• True
• False

A

• True

58
Q

ESSAY
Characterise transudates: causes of development, protein content (compared to other types
of effusions), specific gravity (compared to other types of effusions ) cell types, counts etc.

A

Causes of the development:
Increased vessel permeability due to the underlining causes
• increase of hydrostatic pressure of the blood
• decrease of plasma colloid oncotic pressure
• impended lymphatic flow
• hormonal effects
it is bloody, watery, yellowish with no smell.
The specific gravity is less than 1,017g/ml
Slightly alkaline pH or 7
Its total protein is less than 25g/L
Contains albumin, globulin, creatinine
Contains nucleated cells with a count less than 1-10 x109 /l

59
Q

Proteinuria: describe the prerenal causes

A

When the urinary total protein: creatinine ratio is between 1-5

60
Q

ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is directly proportional to increased WBC count
• True
• False

A

• False

61
Q 
Which parameter decreases in every anaemic patient?
MCHC
WBC number
MCV
PCV
A

PCV

62
Q

. Fibrinogen free (blood) serum is called plasma
• True
• False

A

False

63
Q

Thrombocytopenia is a thrombocyte count over the upper reference limit (the upper end of
the reference interval)
• True
• False

A

• False

64
Q

What are the causes of hyperkalemia?

A 
• Acute kidney failure
• Increased intake orally
• Hypoaldosteronism
• Acidosis
• Ruptured urinary bladder
• Overdose of fluids with potassium.
(Pseudo-hyperkalaemia can occur when tissue cells or red blood cells are damaged and also due to
problems by the laboratory.) EXTRA INFO
65
Q

ESSAY

Write down the causes and characteristics of various gammopathies!

A

Monoclonal gammopathy: this happens due to immune-mediated processes or neoplastic
conditions. It is when one protein fraction is coming from one clone.
• This has a peak as narrow as albumin
• Can be produced from both neoplastic and non-neoplastic disorders.

Polyclonal gammopathy: this is coming from inflammatory processes and also immune mediated
diseases. This is when gamma and beta globulins are deriving from different clones.
Can be derived from
• liver diseases
• Heart worm
• Lymphoma
• FIP
• Ehrlichiosis
Generally coming from disorders in IgA and IgM

66
Q 
Which change CAN NOT bee seen in Stress Leukogram
A. Neutrophelia
B. Neutropenia
C. Monocytosis
D. Lymphopenia
A

B. Neutropenia

67
Q 
Which species have relatively higher neutrophil percentage ratio in the blood
A. Rabit
B. Horse
C. Pig
D. Cattle
A

B. Horse ?

68
Q 
Which species has a relatively higher lymphocyte percentage ratio in blood?
A. Dog
B. Cat
C. Horse
D. Cattle
A

D. Cattle

69
Q 
In which type of white blood cells can be the Döhle-bodies detected?
A. Reactive lymphocyte
B. Monocyte
C. Toxic neutrophil
D. Eosinophil Granulocyte
A

C. Toxic neutrophil
D. Eosinophil Granulocyte?
Neutrophil granulocyte

70
Q

Which statement is true for the hyperhydration?
A. Caused by fluid loss
B. Caused by compensation of anemia
C. Caused by increased water intake
D. Frequently sees as a consequence of low pO2

A

C. Caused by increased water intake?

71
Q 
What can be the cause of relative polycythaemia?
A. Hypoxaemia
B. Anaemia
C. Dehydration
D. Neoplasma
A

?

72
Q

Which statement is true for urine sediment analysis?
A. Calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals have coffin-shaped appearance
B. Precence of calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals is associated with ethylene glycol toxicosis?
C. Cystine crystals are inorganic crystals
D. Struvite crystals can form in acidic PH

A

?

73
Q

Which statement are true for urine analysis
A. Traces of blood normally can be detected in the urine
B. Urine specific gravity can be reliable assessed by using refractometer
C. Presence of the urobilinogen in the urine is … binding
D. Glucose only can be detected in the urine of diabetic patients

A

?

74
Q

Motillity and number of the ruminal flora should be examined under the following circumstances:
A. Immediatly, on a cool slide to decrease motility to facilitate counting
B. Delayed to allowed for the decreased motility but preserve the viability of ruminal flora
C. Immediatly, to allow for viability examination
D. Delayed, with added lactic acid for increased sampled stability and viability.

A

C. Immediatly, to allow for viability examination

75
Q
  1. What change can be seen in leukemoid reaction?
    A. Extrem neutrophilia with marked left shift
    B. Neutropenia with right shift
    C. Neoplastic cells are appearing in the blood
    D. Leukopenia due to bone marrow suppression
A

A. Extrem neutrophilia with marked left shift

76
Q 
Which changes can NOT be seen in Stress Leukogram?
Neutrophilia
Neutropenia
Monocytosis
Lymphopenia
A

Neutropenia

77
Q

Which species have relatively higher neutrophil percentage ratio in the blood?

A

Dog, cat, human

78
Q 
Which species have relatively higher lymphocyte percentage ratio in the blood?
Dog
Cat
Horse
Cattle, swine, goat, sheep, chicken
A

Cattle, swine, goat, sheep, chicken

79
Q 
In which type of white blood cells can be the Døhle bodies detected?
Reactive lymphocyte 
Monocyte
Toxic neutrophil 
Eosinophil granulocyte
A

Toxic neutrophil

80
Q

Which statement is TRUE for hyperhydration?
Caused by fluid loss
Caused by compensation of anaemia
Caused by increased water intake
Frequently seen as a consequence of low pO2

A

Caused by increased water intake

81
Q 
7. What can be the cause of relative polycythaemia?
Hypoxaemia 
Anaemia
Dehydration 
Neoplasma
A

Dehydration

82
Q 
8. In general which anticoagulant is used for hematology tests?
Na-citrate 1:4 ratio 
Na-citrate 1:9 ratio 
EDTA
Heparin
A

EDTA

Na-citrate 1:4 ratio = RBC sedimentation test
Na-citrate 1:9 ratio = haemostasis evaluations
Heparin = biochem parameters plasma

83
Q

What is the definition of Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)?
Average Hb content of RBCs
Mean concentration of haemoglobin per RBC
Average size of the RBCs
Variability in RBC size

A

Average size of the RBCs

84
Q 
10. What changes in RBC derivated parameters can be seen in iron deficiency anaemia?
Macrocytic, hypochromic
Macrocytic, normochromic
Microcytic, normochromic
Microcytic, hypochromic
A

Microcytic, hypochromic

85
Q 
What changes in RBC derivated parameters can be seen in regenerative anaemia?
Macrocytic, hypochromic
Macrocytic, normochromic
Microcytic, normochromic
Microcytic, hypochromic
A

Macrocytic, hypochromic

86
Q

Which statement is TRUE for urine sediment analysis?
A. Calcium oxalate monobydrate crystals have coffin-shaped appearance
B. Presence of calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals is associated with ethylene glycol toxicosis
C. Cystine crystals are inorganic crystals
D. Struvite crystals can form in acidic pH

A

B. Presence of calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals is associated with ethylene glycol toxicosis

Struvite crystals can form in acidic pH =Alkaline
Calcium oxalate monobydrate crystals have coffin-shaped appearance = needle shape

87
Q

Which statement is TRUE for urine sediment analysis?
A. Presence of calcium oxalate dihydrate crystals is associated with ethylene glycol toxicosis
B. Presence of struvite crystals can be associated with urinary tract infection
C. In Dalmatians due to enzyme deficiency calcium phosphate crystals can be detected in the urine
D. Tyrosin crystals are inorganic crystals

A

B. Presence of struvite crystals can be associated with urinary tract infection

(monohydrate is)

88
Q

14.Which statement is TRUE for reticulocytes?
A. Nucleated red blood cells
B. Their volume is smaller than the red blood cells volume
C. Immature, young red blood cells
D. Their hemoglobin content is higher than the red blood cells

A

C. Immature, young red blood cells

89
Q 
15. Which can be the cause of hyperalbuminaemia?
A. Inflammation 
B. Hepatic dysfunction 
C. Neoplasma 
D. Dehydration
A

D. Dehydration (only)

Inflammation
Hepatic dysfunction
= Hypoalbuminaemia

90
Q 
16. Which is the choice of anticoagulant for glucose concentration measurement?
EDTA
Na-citrate
NaF-heparin
Calcium equilibrated heparin
A

NaF-heparin

EDTA = Haematology test
Na-citrate = Blood clotting parameters
Calcium equilibrated heparin = electrolyte measurement

91
Q 
17. Which condition can be the cause of hepatic icterus?
Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia 
Acute pancreatitis
Acute hepatitis
Obstruction of common bile duct
A

Acute hepatitis

92
Q 
Which condition can be the cause of prehepatic icterus?
Liver failure
Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia
Acute pancreatitis 
Gallbladder rupture
A

Immune-mediated haemolytic anemia

93
Q

Which statement is TRUE for creatinine?
A. Synthesized in the liver from ammonia
B. Liver function can influence its concentration
C. Excreted only by glomerular filtration
D. Gastrointestinal haemorrhage can increase its concentration

A

C. Excreted only by glomerular filtration

94
Q

Which laboratory test findings can NOT be detected in actute kidney injury?
A. Hyperkalaemia
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Protein losing nephropathy caused hypoalbuminaemia
D. Azotaemia

A

C. Protein-losing nephropathy caused hypoalbuminaemia

95
Q

Which statement is FALSE for ALT?
A. Mitochondrial enzyme
B. Some drug can induce its activity
C. Activity may increase in severe muscle trauma/disease
D. Both primary and secondary liver disease increase its activity

A

A. Mitochondrial enzyme

Cytoplasmic enzyme

96
Q

Which statment is FALSE for AST?
A. Releases later than ALT
B. More specific marker of significant liver damage
C. Haemolysis and severe muscle trauma/disease may increase its activity
D. Cytoplasmic enzyme

A

D. Cytoplasmic enzyme

Mitochondrial enzyme

97
Q
  1. Which statement is TRUE?
    A. Stercobilinogen can be detected in the urine by dipstick
    B. Conjugated bilirubin is transported by the albumin
    C. Bilirubin is conjugated by the intestinal bacteria
    D. High bilirubin level can be detected on physical examination as the visible mucus membranes turns to icteric (yellow)
A

D. High bilirubin level can be detected on physical examination as the visible mucus membranes turns to icteric (yellow)

98
Q 
Which statement is FALSE for the bilirubin?
A. Major constituent of bile
B. Recycle by enterohepatic circulation 
C. Breakdown product of the hem 
D. Increased serum level in cholestasis
A

A. Major constituent of bile

0,2%

99
Q

Which statement is TRUE?
A. Urobilinogen can be detected in the urine by dipstick
B. Liver cells conjugate taurin to bilirubin
C. Unconjugated or indirect bilirubin is soluble in plasma
D. High bilirubin level can be detected on physical examination as visible mucus membranes turn to pale

A

A. Urobilinogen can be detected in the urine by dipstick

100
Q

Which laboratory test findings can NOT be detected in chronic kidney disease?
A. Azotaemia
B. Hyperkalaemia
C. Hyperphosphataemia
D. Protein losing nephripathy caused hypoalbuminaemia

A

D. Protein-losing nephropathy caused hypoalbuminaemia

101
Q

Which condition can not be the cause of hyperglycemia

a. insulinoma
b. diabetes mellitus
c. hyperadrenocorticism
d. stress

A

a. insulinoma

102
Q 
Multiple choice:
Changes in DIC are:
a. BMBT decrease
b. PT increase
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. aPTT increase
A

b. PT increase
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. aPTT increase

103
Q 
Which test is NOT for evaluating coagulopathies?
a. APTI/PTI
b. Appearance of first fibrin strand
C. Clotting time
D. Buccal mucosal bleeding time
A 
D. Buccal mucosal bleeding time
its a test for: 
thrombocytopenia, 
thrombocythopathies and 
vasopathies.
104
Q

Which change can be seen in a Stress leukogram?

a. Leukocytosis
b. Eosinopenia
c. Lymphopenia
d. Neuropenia
e. Neutrophilia

A

a. Leukocytosis
b. Eosinopenia
c. Lymphopenia
e. Neutrophilia

105
Q

Measurement of reduced TLI in the blood has a high sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of?
A. Pancreatic tumour (carcinoma)
B. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, decreased enzyme synthesis
C. Acute Pancreatitis
D. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, pancreatic duct obstuction.

A

C. Acute Pancreatitis

106
Q

Where are the coagulation factors produced?

a. Spleen
b. Liver
c. Bone marrow
d. Kidney

A

b. Liver

107
Q 
Multiple choice
Which leads to a prerenal increase of urea concentration?
A. Intestinal bleeding
B. Poor Ruminal energy status
C. Urinary tract obstruction
D. Impaired Liver function
E. Cardiac failure
A

A. Intestinal bleeding
B. Poor Ruminal energy status
E. Cardiac failure

108
Q

Which method is considered to be the “gold standard” for glucose measurements

a. Biruette reaction
b. Jaffe method
c. GOD/POD reaction
d. Portable glucometer

A

c. GOD/POD reaction

109
Q

In uroperitoneum (urine in abdominal cavity due to urinary tract injury) which biochemical parameter(s) of the fluid is higher compared to the serum level?

a. Cholesterol
b. Urea/creatinin
c. triglycerides
d. Amylase/lipase
e. total bilirubin

A

b. Urea/creatinin

110
Q 
Mutltiple choice
Chose the amylase isoenzymes
a. Musculosceletal
b. Renal
c. Pancreatic
d. Intestinal 
e. salivary
A

c. Pancreatic
d. Intestinal
e. salivary

111
Q

Which condition necessitates further evaluation of the patients serum using protein electrophoresis?

a. Hyperglobulinaemia
b. Hypoproteinemia
c. Hypoalbuminemia
d. Hyperalbuminemia

A

a. Hyperglobulinaemia

112
Q

In rodenticide toxicosis, the PT can be prolonged easlier than the aPTT, because Factor II (or any exept VII) has the shortest halflife of all vitamin K- dependent factors
TRUE or FALSE?

A

FALSE

113
Q

In this question the answer should be typed in the given area. Question is graded manually by the teacher. More than one word can be given.

Antifreeze poisoning leads to the formation of _______crystals in urine.

A

Calcuim Oxalate crystals

114
Q 
Multiple Choice
Which keton bodies are measured by the Ross reaction?
A. Acetoacetate
B. Acetone
C. Beta-hydroxybutyrate
A

A. Acetoacetate

B. Acetone

115
Q 
The level fructosamine in serum indicates glycaemic status of the last .... (time)
A. 2-3 months
B. 5-6 hours
C. 1-2 days
D. 2-3 weeks
A

D. 2-3 weeks

116
Q

Causes of metabolic acidosis

A
  • HCO3- due to diarrhoea and ileus, Kidney tubular disturbances
  • Increased acid due to increased fruit intake
  • Too acidic silage
  • Overdose of acidifying drugs
  • Increased lactic acid production
  • Decreased acid excretion due to renal failure
  • Volatile FA production due to cattle grain overdose
  • Increased ketogenesis due to relative or objective anaerobic glycolysis or DM
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Etylene-glycol toxicosis
117
Q

MT2
1) Metabolic alkalosis is expected in ileus if.
A. The obstruction is in duodenum, and it develops preceding metabolic acidosis.
B. The obstruction is in the jejenum or other more distal intestines, and it develops preceding metabolic acidosis.
C. The obstruction is in the duodenum and it develops following metabolic acidosis.
D. The obstruction is in the genome or other more distal intestines, and it develops following metabolic acidosis.

A

C. The obstruction is in the duodenum and it develops following metabolic acidosis.

118
Q

2) Choose the incorrect answer.
A. TLI is used to diagnose EPI.
B. TLI should be measured in less than 6 hours after feeding to provide correct information.
C. Decreased TCL concentration is expected in EPI.
D. If in cats fTLI be a sensitive diagnostic method for pancreatitis.

A

C. Decreased TCL concentration is expected in EPI.

119
Q

3) Lack of bile flow into the intestines may contribute to endotoxemia because of the endotoxin inactivator effect of bile acids. True or false?

A

TRUE

120
Q

4) Total bilirubin concentration in serum is increased to the following cases. (Multiple choice.)
A. Gastrointestinal bleeding.
B. Massive intramuscular bleeding.
C. Severe liver damage
D. Impaired biliary flow (for example extrahepatic bile duct obstruction)

A

C. Severe liver damage

D. Impaired biliary flow (for example extrahepatic bile duct obstruction)

121
Q

5) Pair the disease processes with the change in serum concentrations/enzyme activities.
A Prehepatic icterus. B Hepatic icterus. C Posthepatic icterus.
1. Increased ALKP. GGT markedly increased bilirubin
2. Increased reticulocytes count increased decreased haematocrit.
3. Increase NH3 and decrease urea.

A

 A=2
 B=3
 C=1

 Prehepatic icterus - Increased reticulocytes count increased decreased haematocrit.

Hepatic icterus - Increase NH3 and decrease urea.

Posthepatic icterus - Increased ALKP. GGT markedly increased bilirubin

122
Q

6) Choose the correct statements about ammonia concentration (multiple choice)
A. It is measured from EDTA or citrate samples
B. In herbivores it is an indicator of digestion as well as hepatic function.
C. Ammonia will bypass the liver in post portosystemic shunts and therefore its concentration in plasma will increase.
D. Ammonia measurements should be carried out immediately after sampling, or the sample should be kept on ice for 20 minutes; Plasma can be used if frozen for two days.

A

C. Ammonia will bypass the liver in post portosystemic shunts and therefore its concentration in plasma will increase.
D. Ammonia measurements should be carried out immediately after sampling, or the sample should be kept on ice for 20 minutes; Plasma can be used if frozen for two days.

123
Q 
7)	Pair the measurements with the species. 
A.	ALT, ALKP, GGT
B.	ALT, GGT, (ALKP in acute cases)
C.	AST, GGT, (arginase) 
D.	AST. GLDH, (GGT) 
1.	Ruminants 
2.	Dog 
3.	HorsE 
4.	Cat.
A

 A= 2
 B=4
 C=3
 D=1

A. ALT, ALKP, GGT - Dog
B. ALT, GGT, (ALKP in acute cases) - Cat.
C. AST, GGT, (arginase) -HorsE
D. AST. GLDH, (GGT) - Ruminants

124
Q

8) A decreased albumin concentration may lead to edema formation in case it’s below 11 gram per liter in serum. True or falsE?

A

 TRUE

125
Q 
9)	Urea concentration in serum is expected to increase in. (Multiple choice). 
A.	Gastrointestinal hemorrhage. 
B.	Massive intramuscular hemorrhage. 
C.	Impaired renal function 
D.	Kidney failure.
A

A. Gastrointestinal hemorrhage.
C. Impaired renal function
D. Kidney failure.

126
Q

10) Creatinine reflects GFR better than urea because (multiple choice)
A. It is formed in a constant rate in muscle proportional to muscle mass.
B. It is reabsorbed in a constant rate, in the tubules independent of filtrate flow.
C. It is freely filtrated, with neither secreted nor reabsorbed in tubuli.
D. It’s measurements lackes interference if the Jaffa method is used.

A

A. It is formed in a constant rate in muscle proportional to muscle mass.

C. It is freely filtrated, with neither secreted nor reabsorbed in tubuli.

127
Q

11) Calcium-oxalate dihydrate crystals are formed in case of antifreeze poisoning. True or false?

A

 TRUE

128
Q

12) Isosthenuria may be seen in the following cases (multiple choice).
A. Healthy patients.
B. Dehydrated patients, tubular damage.
C. Diabetes mellitus with intact kidney function.
D. Psychogenic polydipsia.

A

A. Healthy patients.
B. Dehydrated patients, tubular damage.
D. Psychogenic polydipsia.

Lab D (11 decks)

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