Past q 3

Question 1

Which of these animals has the most optimal pelvic bone?
A) Shetland pony mare
B) Danish dog bitch
C) Merino ewe
D) Holstein-frisian cow

Answer 1

A) Shetland pony mare

Question 2

What does not belong to the soft birth canal?
A) Vagina
B) broad ligaments of pelvis
C) hymen
D) cervix

Answer 2

B) broad ligaments of pelvis

Question 3

What does vaginoscopy mean?
A) Plapation of the vagina
B) histological examination of the vaginal mucosa
C) inserting a vaginoscope and applying a light source into the vagina, for internal
observation of the organ
D) checking the vaginal discharge

Answer 3

C) inserting a vaginoscope and applying a light source into the vagina, for internal
observation of the organ

Question 4

No critical size of the soft birth canal.
A) pelvic inlet & shoulder region of fetus
B) cervix
C) hymen
D) vulva

Answer 4

A) pelvic inlet & shoulder region of fetus

Question 5

When can the fetus have a good prognosis?
A) hydrocephalus internus
B) during lateral deviation of head
C) dorso transvers presentation
D) calving occurred on day 250

Answer 5

B) during lateral deviation of head

Question 6

Definition of posture of a fetus.
A) relation of longitudinal axis of the fetus as compared to that of the dam
B) relation of back of fetus compared to that of dam
C) relation of head and legs as compared to trunk of fetus
D) relation of vertebral column of fetus compared to that of dam

Answer 6

C) relation of head and legs as compared to trunk of fetus

Question 7

Clear sign of a dead fetus is, is:
A) fetus does not react on the rotation or bending of the digits.
B) umbilibal cord has broken
C) fetus is emphysematic
D) suckling reflex cannot be induced.

Answer 7

C) fetus is emphysematic

Question 8

Which monster type does not have a deformed skull?
A) cyclops parasiticus
B) hydrocephalus internus
C) hydrocephalus externus
D) hydrocephalokele

Answer 8

D) hydrocephalokele

Question 9

What is characteristic for the Harms dog sitting position in the mare?
A) hoofs of the feuts can perforate the uterine wall
B) it is a type of abnormal posture of the front legs.
C) it shows a fetal genetic deformation when the lumbal, sacral, coccygeal area are poorly
developed and the fetus borns with a weak viability
D) reposition is easy and after the expulsion of the fetus it has a good chance to survive.

Answer 9

A) hoofs of the feuts can perforate the uterine wall

Question 10

Which statement is not correct?
A) posterior presentation is abnormal
B) Ventral position of fetus during the expulsion stage is abnormal
C) anterior presentation is normal
D) Foot-nape posture is milder form of the downward displacement of the head. During this
two frontlegs are in the pelvic cavity and the scull is pushed to the pecten.

Answer 10

A) posterior presentation is abnormal

Question 11

Which statement is surely incorrect?
A) A hydramniotic fetus cannot survive after birth
B) Oedema of the fetal membranes often accompany brucellosis
C) A hydrallantoic fetus can survive, but its vitality is usually weak
D) The cause of hydramnion is the abnormal function of the fetal kidneys.

Answer 11

D) The cause of hydramnion is the abnormal function of the fetal kidneys.

Question 12

Please mark the inappropriate statement.
A) Infiltration analgesia is used to anaesthetize the planned operation line
B) During epidural anaesthesia usually 15-20 ml Lidocain is administered into the vertebral
canal of the cow
C) Analgesia of the abdominal wall can even be ensured by administering a paravertebral
anaesthesia
D)The direction of the needle during epidural anaesthesia in cattle has an angle of 60 to 75 °
to the body surface

Answer 12

D)The direction of the needle during epidural anaesthesia in cattle has an angle of 60 to 75 °
to the body surface

Question 13

In which case do we have to apply a test traction in the cow?
A) Lateral deviation of the head
B) Relative large fetus
C) Incomplete extension of the elbow
D) Torsio uten externum

Answer 13

B) Relative large fetus

Question 14

How do we perform a test traction in the cow?
A) By the help of 3-4 medium power person
B) Always with a recumbent dam
C) only with a standing animal, using the help of a medium power person
D) A medium power person solves the abnormal presentation during straining of the dam

Answer 14

C) only with a standing animal, using the help of a medium power person

Question 15

Which step is incorrect for episiotomy in the cow?
A) lateral incision of the vulva
B) suture the tissues after extraction of fetus
C) dorsal incision of vulva starting at comissura labiorum dorsale
D) using scissors for cuttings

Answer 15

C) dorsal incision of vulva starting at comissura labiorum dorsale

Question 16

In postpartum suckling beef cows the time of the first postpartum ovulation is influenced
by the:
A) long-lasting suckling
B) physical exercise on grazing lands
C)season
D) presence of bulls

Answer 16

A) long-lasting suckling

Question 17

Mark right statement.
Beef heifers are bred one month before the onset of the arbitrary breeding season of older
herd mates, because:
A) they need longer period for conception at the first time
B) they need longer period for resumption of cyclic ovarian function after their first calving
C) they are usually underfed
D) heat stress may be supposed to occur resulting in early embryonic mortality later

Answer 17

B) they need longer period for resumption of cyclic ovarian function after their first calving

Question 18

Mark incorrect statement.
In postpartum, non- suckling dairy cows.
A) the first dominant follicle is present on the ovary on day 8-10 after calving
B) the first dominant follicle may ovulate, may undergo atretic degeneration or may become
cystic
C) the first dominant follicle can never produce sufficient quantity of 17beta-estradiol
D) the first dominant follicle needs IGF-1 for its final maturation

Answer 18

C) the first dominant follicle can never produce sufficient quantity of 17beta-estradiol

Question 19

Mark incorrect statement.
In postpartum, non-suckling dairy cows the first ovulation may be postponed by:
A)the late nadir of energetic imbalance
B) the outbreak of severe mastitis
C) puerperal metritis
D) manganese deficiency

Answer 19

D) manganese deficiency

Question 20

Mark the right statement.
In cattle the most important (pathognosic) clinical signs of puerperal metritis is:
A) the fetid, malodorous, bad-smelling character of the cervical discharge
B) the reddish-brown colour of the cervical discharge
C) the watery consistency of the cervical discharge
D) the presence of necrotic debris in the cervical discharge

Answer 20

A) the fetid, malodorous, bad-smelling character of the cervical discharge

Question 21

Mark the incorrect statement.
In therapy of puerperal metritis:
A) Currently also broad spectrum aminopenicillins (amoxicillin) are frequently used, but their
effect is quite questionable
B) currently also aminoglycosides (neomycin, gentamycin) are frequently administered, but it
would be better not to use them
C) The administration of uterotonic drugs is always justified
D) the intrauterine administration of broad spectrum aminopenicillins (amoxicillin) can be
combined with clavulanic acid successfully also in therapy of puerperal metritis.

Answer 21

D) the intrauterine administration of broad spectrum aminopenicillins (amoxicillin) can be
combined with clavulanic acid successfully also in therapy of puerperal metritis.

Question 22

Mark the incorrect statement.
The below-specified bacteria play important role in pathogenesis of clinical endometritis
pyometra
A) E. coli
B) A. pyogenes (T. pyogenes)
C) F. necrophorum
D) Bacteroides ssp.

Answer 22

A) E. coli

Question 23

One of the statements related to freemartinism is correct.
A) There is an early (30days) anastomosis between the amniotic vesicles
B) It occurs between bull fetuses
C) It occurs between heterosexual fetuses
D) It occurs between homosexual embryos
E) It occurs because of a late (60days) anastomosis of the amniotic vesicles

Answer 23

A) There is an early (30days) anastomosis between the amniotic vesicles

Question 24

One of the statements related to the segmental aplasia of the Müllerian tract is false.
A)Usually both uterine horns are affected
B) The ovaries are functioning
C) Usually one uterine horn is affected
D) The ovarian function is usually physiological
E) It is a hereditary developmental lesion

Answer 24

A)Usually both uterine horns are affected

Question 25

One of the statements related to the follicle theca cyst is false.
A) They are usually larger than 2,5 cm in diameter
B) Usually they have a thin wall
C) Usually they have a thick wall
D) they can occur in both ovaries
E) Usually we can find several cysts

Answer 25

C) Usually they have a thick wall

Question 26

One of the statements related to the medical prevention of follicle cysts is correct.
A)We can give prostaglandin 12-14 days after calving
B) We can give eCG 12-14 days after calving
C) We can give GnRH 12-14 days after calving
D) We can give oestrogens 12-14 days after calving
E) We can give progesterone treatment 12-14 days after calving

Answer 26

C) We can give GnRH 12-14 days after calving

Question 27

One of the statements related to the factors influencing the fertility rate at the first
postpartum insemination in dairy cattle is incorrect.
A) The post-ovulatory rise of progesterone
B) Manganase deficiency
C) The preovulatory rise of estradiol
D) Protein overfeeding
E) Low biological value of oocyte ovulated in the first few weeks after calving

Answer 27

C) The preovulatory rise of estradiol

Question 28

What is typical for caesarian section in the cow?

a. It is easier to do it in a recumbent cow
b. The pregnant uterine horn has to be opened near the tip of the horn
c. We try to open the uterus preferably in the abdominal cavity
d. Usually, it is performed in an anaesthetized animal
e. The uterine horn has to be truncated after the operation

Answer 28

b. The pregnant uterine horn has to be opened near the tip of the horn

Question 29

What do we do with the placentas during caesarian section in the cow before closing the
uterine wound?
a, We remove all of them
b. We cut those parts that hang out of the wound and leave the rest in the uterus,
and we put antibiotic-containing uterine tablets into the uterus before closing the
wound
c. We manually detach the easily accessible caruncles from the uterus
d. We remove most of them, and flush the uterus with saline solution
e. We do not touch them

Answer 29

b. We cut those parts that hang out of the wound and leave the rest in the uterus,
and we put antibiotic-containing uterine tablets into the uterus before closing the
wound

Question 30

How do we close the uterine wound during caesarian section in the cow?

a. Usually in two layers, using seromuscular sutures
b. The first step is always to apply a continuous suture through all layers
c. Using a single suture preferably with non-absorbable suture material
d. Using interrupted sutures
e. We leave the uterine wound open, so that the lochia can be released

Answer 30

a.Usually in two layers, using seromuscular sutures

Question 31

How do we remove the calf with anterior presentation from the uterus of the cow during
caesarian section?
a. I try to find the head and the frontlegs of the calf and grasp the uterus containing these
parts and place it extraabdominal
b. I grasp the hindlegs, and by pulling and lifting the uterus containing these fetal
parts, I place the uterus outside the abdominal wound, if possible
c. I inject 50 IU oxytocin and wait until the legs of the calf appear in the wound, then I
gently pull them out
d. I open the uterus close to the bifurcation to remove the calf
e. I apply an allowed forced extraction

Answer 31

b. I grasp the hindlegs, and by pulling and lifting the uterus containing these fetal
parts, I place the uterus outside the abdominal wound, if possible

Question 32

Where do you open the abdominal wall in the cow for a regular caesarian section?

a. Almost exclusively on the left paralumbar area
b. Possibly along the ventral midline
c. Equal if on the left or right paralumbar area
d. In the perineal area, with a dorsolateral cut from the upper comissura of the vulva
e. Only along the ventral midline

Answer 32

a. Almost exclusively on the left paralumbar area

Question 33

The following instruments can be used during caesarian section in the cow:

a. Harm’s eye hooks
b. Obstetrical chains
c. Liess handles
d. Kühne’s crutch
e. Thygesen fetatome

Answer 33

b.Obstetrical chains

Question 34

How do we calculate the index of ketonuria?

a. By means of spectrophotometric measurement
b. Based on an estimation without considering the days relative to parturition
c. The number of crosses gives us the index
d. The number of postpartum days should be added to the primary grade
e. The primary grade should be corrected with 2 times the number of days prior to expected calving

Answer 34

e. The primary grade should be corrected with 2 times the number of days prior to expected calving

Question 35

Which statement is not correct for milk fever?

a. It is a metabolic disease, affecting early portpartum cows
b. Hypophosphataemia can accompany the disease
c. In its classic form, blood calcium concentration is decreased
d. It is affecting older cows during the dry period
e. The ARD test can be used for an easy detection

Answer 35

d.It is affecting older cows during the dry period

Question 36

Please mark the correct answer!

a. Animals with perinatal injuries always have fever
b. A milk fever cow has elevated body temperature
c. A severe energy demand in dairy cows can result in ketosis
d. Plasma NEFA levels are lower in cows with peripartal energy demand
e. With 1 l milk, 12 g Ca leaves the organism

Answer 36

c. A severe energy demand in dairy cows can result in ketosis

Question 37

Please select the correct answer! The cow is considered to have retained fetal membranes if
the placenta has not been shed latest by:
a. 24 hours
b. 3 hours
c. 1 week
d. 6 hours
e. 48 hours

Answer 37

a. 24 hours

Question 38

What is not advised to as a treatment for retained fetal membranes in the cow? Please mark
the incorrect answer only:
a. I would administer oxytocin iv.
b. I would administer oxytocin im.
c. I would flush the uterus
d. I would apply antibiotics intrauterine
e. I would apply antibiotics parenteral

Answer 38

c. I would flush the uterus

Question 39

Please select one drug from the list below, which does not have any uterotonic effect in the
cow:
a. Oestrogen
b. Prostaglandin F2a
c. Carbetocin
d. Dynoprost
e. Oxytetracyclin

Answer 39

e. Oxytetracyclin

Question 40

Which is the most commonly used transducer in the ultrasonographic examination of genitals
in mares?
a. Linear, 5-6,5 Hz
b. Sector, 5-6,5 MHZ
c. Linear, 10-12 MHz
d. Linear, 5-7 MHz
e. Sector, 5-6,5 MHz

Answer 40

d. Linear, 5-7 MHz

Question 41

What is the earliest time when pregnancy can be checked by ultrasonography in a mare?

a. 9-12 days after the first insemination
b. On the 16 th day after the first insemination
c. 9-12 days after ovulation
d. On the 16 th day after ovulation
e. On the 22 nd day after ovulation

Answer 41

c. 9-12 days after ovulation

Question 42

From which layer(s) of the uterus should the biopsy samples be taken?

a. From the mucous membrane, the submucosa and the inner circular muscle
b. From the mucous membrane, the submucosa and the outer circular muscle
c. Only from the mucous membrane
d. From the mucous membrane, the submucosa and the outer longitudinal muscle
e. From the mucous membrane, the submucosa and the inner longitudinal muscle

Answer 42

c. Only from the mucous membrane

Question 43

In an estrous mare what does the cross-section of uterus horns look like by ultrasonography?

a. An apple
b. Grapes
c. A lemon
d. A pear
e. A peach

Answer 43

c. A lemon

Question 44

Which organs are the protecting seals of tubular genitals in the mare?

a. The vulval lips
b. The vulval lips and the internal uterine ostium
c. The vulval lips and the internal and external uterine ostium
d. The vulval lips, the cervix and the vestibular seal
e. The vulval lips and the vestibular seal

Answer 44

d. The vulval lips, the cervix and the vestibular seal

Question 45

Which statement is true in connection with a corpus luteum (CL) in mares?

a. The CL is palpable rectally in every case
b. The CL is never palpabe rectally
c. The CL appears on the ultrasonograph as a non-echogenic area
d. The CL cannot be examined using ultrasonography
e. The CL can be most successfully examined using ultrasonography

Answer 45

e. The CL can be most successfully examined using ultrasonography

Question 46

Which statement is true in connection with the terciar (antral) follicles in mare?

a. The follicles are palpabe rectally in every case
b. The follicles are never palpable rectally
c. The follicles appear on the ultrasonograph as a non-echogenic area
d. The follicles cannot be examined using ultrasonography
e. The follicles can only be examined using ultrasonography

Answer 46

c. The follicles appear on the ultrasonograph as a non-echogenic area

Question 47

Which statement is true in the connection with the follicles in mares?
a. Ultrasonography allows the primary, the secondary and the terciar (antral) follicles to
be examined
b. Ultrasonography only allows the primary and the secondary follicles to be examined
c. Ultrasonography only allows the terciar (antral) follicles to be examined
d. The primary and secondary follicles can only be examined rectally
e. Only the primary follicles can be examined rectally

Answer 47

c. Ultrasonography only allows the terciar (antral) follicles to be examined

Question 48

Which statement is false in connection with the follicles in mares?

a. The usual size of a preovulatory follicle is = 30-40 mm in diameter
b. The usual size of a preovulatory follicle is = 100 mm in diameter
c. The maximal (but unusual) size of a preovulatory follicle is = 100 mm in diameter
d. Follicles 15 mm in diameter are usually not sensitive to gonadotroph hormones
e. Follicles 15 mm in diameter usually do not produce significant quantity of estrogens

Answer 48

b. The usual size of a preovulatory follicle is = 100 mm in diameter

Question 49

Which statement is true in connection with the follicles in mares?
a. All tercier (antral) follicles can produce significant quantities of estrogens
b. The minimal size of tercier (antral) follicles is = 30-40 mm in diameter
c. The secondary follicles can produce significant quantity of estrogens
d. After the beginning of the atretic degeneration the follicles can not be detected by
ultrasonography
e. At the beginning of the atretic degeneration the size of a follicle still may be 30-40mm in diameter

Answer 49

e. At the beginning of the atretic degeneration the size of a follicle still may be 30-40mm in diameter

Question 50

When (which period of the estrous cycle) must samples be taken for endometrial bacteriology
in mares?
a. During the estrus
b. During the diestrus
c. At any time (it can not be considered)
d. During the proestrus
e. During the anestrus

Answer 50

a. During the estrus

Question 51

How (which method) must samples be taken for endometrial bacteriology in mares?

a. With endometrial biopsy
b. With a protected sterile swab
c. With vaginal fluching
d. With any of the above three methods
e. With none of the above three methods

Answer 51

b. With a protected sterile swab

Question 52

When (which period of the estrous cycle) must samples be taken for endometrial cytology in
mares?
a. During the estrus
b. During the diestrus
c. At any time (it can not be considered)
d. During the proestrus
e. During the anestrus

Answer 52

a. During the estrus

Question 53

Choose the right answer:
a. Natural prostaglandins in the mare can only be used for synchronization in double
dose as compared to ruminants because the CL is insensitive to the prostaglandins
during the first 12 days
b. Natural prostaglandins in the mare can only be used in one third to half dose as
compared to the ruminants because the horse is very sensitive to the
prostaglandin side effects
c. Prostaglandins in the mares cannot be used for controlling the estrous cycle, only for
induction of parturition
d. Twin pregnancy in the mare can be eliminated by single prostaglandin injection
administered after 40 days
e. The location of the equine CL is deep in the ovary therefore the prostaglandins are not
effective in the mare

Answer 53

b. Natural prostaglandins in the mare can only be used in one third to half dose as
compared to the ruminants because the horse is very sensitive to the
prostaglandin side effects

Question 54

Choose the right answer:
a. Maternal recognition of the pregnancy is mediated by interferon tau produced by the
conceptus
b. Maternal recognition of the pregnancy is mediated by estradiol 17 beta produced by
the conceptus between day 12-15
c. Maternal recognition of the pregnancy is mediated by a 40.000 D molecular weight protein which is not interferon tau and produced by the conceptus
d. The pregnancy in the mare is recognized after the decapsulation by day 22
e. The pregnancy in the mare is recognized after the implantation by day 50

Answer 54

c. Maternal recognition of the pregnancy is mediated by a 40.000 D molecular weight protein which is not interferon tau and produced by the conceptus

Question 55

Choose the right answer:
a. In the horse, presence of the corpus luteum is necessary throughout the entire
pregnancy (CL dependent species)
b. In the horse, presence of the corpus luteum is necessary only during the first 5
months, therafter the foetoplacental unit produces enough sexualsteroid hormones for maintaining the pregnancy
c. In pregnant mares, both the primary and the accessory corpora lutea are retained
throughout but after the day 250 they do not play role in maintaining the pregnancy
d. The horse pregnancy is throughout maintained by eCG (PMSG) produced by the
endometrial cups
e. The horse pregnancy is throughout maintained by estrogens synthesized by the fetal
gonads

Answer 55

b. In the horse, presence of the corpus luteum is necessary only during the first 5
months, therafter the foetoplacental unit produces enough sexualsteroid hormones for maintaining the pregnancy

Question 56

Choose the right answer:
a. Artificial insemination in the mare is successful only with undiluted fresh semen
b. Insemination of the mare with deep frozen semen is successful only when the sperm is
deposited deep into the uterus
c. Insemination of the mare is possible both with fresh and chilled semen which can
be stored in special containers for 24-72 hours without significant loss of fertility
d. Artificial insemination of the mare is similar to the cattle: 0,25 ml deep frozen semen
is deposited partly into the uterine body, partly into the cervix
e. As the stallion ejaculates into the vagina, fresh semen should be inseminated into the
vagina

Answer 56

c. Insemination of the mare is possible both with fresh and chilled semen which can
be stored in special containers for 24-72 hours without significant loss of fertility

Question 57

Choose the right answer:
a. Double ovulation never occur in mares
b. Twin pregnancy never occur in mares
c. In mares the only outcome of twin pregnancy is the abortion
d. In mares the only outcome of twin pregnancy is the embryonic/early fetal loss
e. In mares the embryonic / early fetal loss, abortion and stillbirth are the possible
consequences of twin pregnancy

Answer 57

e. In mares the embryonic / early fetal loss, abortion and stillbirth are the possible
consequences of twin pregnancy

Question 58

Choose the right answer: in mares the endometrial cups produce

a. eCG (PMSG)
b. hCG
c. PSPB (pregnancy specific protein B)
d. PAG (pregnancy associated glycoprotein)
e. The endometrial cups produce GnRH

Answer 58

a. eCG (PMSG)

Question 59

Choose the right answer: the embryos enter the uterus

a. In mares: on days 5-6 of gestation
b. In cows: on day 8 of gestation
c. In gilts/sows: on day 5 of gestation
d. In ewes: on days 2-3 of gestation
e. In she-goats: on days 2-3 of gestation

Answer 59

a. In mares: on days 5-6 of gestation

Question 60

Choose the false statement: in the mare

a. The corpus luteum graviditatis is formed after recognition of pregnancy
b. After day 20 of gestation the progesterone concentration decreases
c. The P4 production of the primary corpus luteum is increased by eCG
d. The P4 production of the secondary corpus luteum is increased by eCG
e. Only the P4 producing of the placenta is increasing to the effect of eCG

Answer 60

e. Only the P4 producing of the placenta is increasing to the effect of eCG

Question 61

Choose the false statement: in the mare
a. After fertilization the oestrogen (E2) level is increased and can be detected as a
secondary postovulatory peak
b. The signals for recognition of pregnancy are produced by oestrogens/proteins
c. The oestrogen concentration on the 36 th day is higher than at ovulation
d. Oestrogens are only produced by the secondary follicles
e. Oestrogens are also produced by corpus luteum graviditatis

Answer 61

d. Oestrogens are only produced by the secondary follicles

Question 62

Choose the false statement: in mares
a. To exclude twin pregnancy echographic examination is suggested after day 14 of
gestation
b. We repeat this at day 29 of gestation
c. We repeat this at day 35 of gestation
d. In case of twin pregnancy the reduction of one embryo is advised on days 19-20
e. In the presence of two adjacent embryos induction of luteolysis is recommended

Answer 62

c. We repeat this at day 35 of gestation

Question 63

Choose the false statement: in mares

a. Abortion can be induced with prostaglandin on day 22 of pregnancy
b. Abortion can be induced with prostaglandin on day 14 of pregnancy
c. Abortion can be induced with prostaglandin on day 29 of pregnancy
d. Abortion can be induced with prostaglandin on day 45 of pregnancy
e. Abortion can be induced with prostaglandin on day 26 of pregnancy

Answer 63

d. Abortion can be induced with prostaglandin on day 45 of pregnancy

Question 64

Choose the right answer! In the goat the easiest and most accurate method to diagnose early
pregnancy is the:
a. A-mode ultrasound techniques
b. B-mode ultrasound technques
c. Doppler techniques
d. Measuring of progesterone concentration
e. Measuring of oestrogen concentration

Answer 64

b. B-mode ultrasound technques

Question 65

What is the relation between the heat and ovulation in the swine?

a. Duration of the heat is 24-36 h, ovulation at the beginning of estrus
b. Duration of the heat is 3 days, ovulation between 46-54 h
c. Duration of the heat is 24 h, ovulation 12 h after the end of clinical oestrus
d. Duration of the heat is 5-7 days, ovulation 24 h before the end of clinical oestrus
e. Duration of the heat is 9 days, ovulation between day 2-4

Answer 65

b. Duration of the heat is 3 days, ovulation between 46-54 h