Past papers midt 2 1st semester Flashcards

1
Q

in Wegener granulomatosis :

a. ) large elastic arteries are affected
b. ) small to medium sized arteries are affected
c. ) autoantibodies against endothelial cells are present
d. ) C-ANCA antibodies are present

A

B and D

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2
Q
  1. ) characteristic for Wegener granulomatosis
    a. ) multifocall necrotizing pulmonary artery granulomas (lung)
    b. ) myocardial infarction (heart is rarely effected)
    c. ) focal necrotizing thrombogenic vasculitis of isolated glomeruli (kidney)
    d. ) good prognosis if untreated
A

A, C

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3
Q
  1. ) Wegener triade in wegerners granulomatosis
    a. ) granulomas, vasculitis , pulmonary involvement
    b. ) granulomas , respiratory tract involvement , glomerulonephritis
    c. ) granulomas, vasculitis of small and medium sized arteries , glomerulonephritis
    d. ) granulomas, vasculitis, myocardial infaction
A

B

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4
Q
  1. ) difference between giant cell arteritis and takayasu arteritis (2correct)
    a. ) granuloma formation in giant cell arteritis (characterizes it)
    b. ) giant cell arteritis affects people over 50 (>55y)
    c. ) progressive luminal narrowing in takayasu arteritis
    d. ) pulmonary involvement in takayasu arteritis
A

B, C

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5
Q
  1. ) which vasculitis is also called the pulsless disease
    a. ) giant cell arteritis because its granulomas limit blood flow
    b. ) polyarteritis nodosa because renal involvement decreases blood pressure
    c. ) Kawasaki diseases bc aneurysm formation decreases blood flow
    d. ) Takayasu arteritis weakens the pulse of the upper extremities
A

D

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6
Q

157.)
the aorta of young women is affected by :
a.) polyarteritis nodosa
b.) Takayasu arteritis (usually Asians)
c.) Crohn citizens
d.) Raynauds syndrome ( upper limb veins !)
e.) syphilitic andarteritis obliterans

A

B

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7
Q
  1. ) which vasculitis type is NOT associated wth ANCA antibodies ? ( 2 correct )
    a. ) Wegener granlomatosis
    b. ) Microscopic polyarteritis
    c. ) polyarteritis nodosa
    d. ) Chrug strauss
    e. ) giant cell arteritis
A

C, E

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8
Q
  1. ) polyarteritis nodosa (2 correct) :
    a. ) commonly in women
    b. ) pulmonary involvement
    c. ) pronounced renal involvement
    d. ) affect the whole arterial tree
    e. ) is a segmental transmural necrotizing inflammation
A

C,E

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9
Q
  1. ) characteristic for polyarteritis nodosa ( 2 correct):
    a. ) granuloma formation
    b. ) ANCA antibodies and ADCC ( antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity)
    c. ) mainly affects vessels of : kidney , heart , liver and GI
    d. ) rapid hypertension due to renal a. involvement
A

C,D

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10
Q
161.)
leads to polyarteritis nodosa  
a.) contraceptives  
b.) heavy smoking  
c.) greasy food  
d.) strong alcoholism  
e.) congenital heart diseases
A

B

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11
Q
  1. ) histological appearance of polyarteritis nodosa (2correct)
    a. ) in elastic arteries
    b. ) fibrinoid necrosis of small arteries
    c. ) in muscular arteries
    d. ) in large arteries
A

B, C

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12
Q

163.)
characteristic for polyarteritis nodosa EXCEPT :
a.affects small to medium sized vessels
b.most frequently in middle age
c.affects lungs
d. acute necrotic arteriolitis affecting all vessel wall layers

A

C

most frequent in young adults

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13
Q
  1. ) kindey biopsy can diagnose this diseases EXCEPT :
    a. ) Wegener granulomatosis
    b. ) amyloidosis
    c. ) arteriosclerosis
    d. ) giant cell arteritis
    e. ) polyarteritis nodosa
A

D

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14
Q

characteristic for Kawasaky disease: ( 2correct)

a. in the aorta of young women
b. in childhood (under five years old)
c. primarily involves renal arteries
d. primarily involves coronary arteries (can cause aneurysm)

A

B, D

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15
Q

possible complication of kawasaky disease ( 2 correct) : a.coronary aneurysm , rupture and thrombosis

b. malignant hypertension
c. conjunctival and oral erythema
d. blindness

A

A, C

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16
Q

167.) muscle cells ?
Which vasculitis is associated with autoantibodies against endothelial and smooth muscle cells ?
a.) Wegener granulomatosis (ANCA antibodies)
b.) microscopic polyarteritis (same)
c.) kawasaky disease
d.) chrug strauss (same)

A

C

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17
Q
  1. ) characteristic for microscopic polyangiitis ( 2correct):
    a. ) affects large muscular arteries
    b. ) affects segments of small arteries , capillaries and venules
    c. ) all arterial lesions are of the same age
    d. ) coronary artery thrombosis
A

B, C

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18
Q

169.) causes of microscopic polyangiitis ( 3correct) :
a.) peniciline and sulfamide induced necrotizing arteritis
b.) food hypersensitivity
c.) PLANCA antibodies against offending agent ( here we talk about RBCs with absorbed
peniciline ! )
d.) secondary to henoch schönlein purpura

A

A,C,D

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19
Q
  1. ) possible complications of microscopic polyangiitis ( 2 correct) :
    a. ) necrotizing glomerulonephritis
    b. ) myocardial infarction
    c. ) necrotizing pulmonary arteritis
    d. ) macroscopic infactions
A

X (A,C)

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20
Q
  1. ) characteristic for infectious vasculitis
    a. ) caused by viral infections
    b. ) caused by direct invasion of vessel wall by bacteria and fungi
    c. ) can lead to malignant hypertension
    d. ) can lead to myotic aneurysm (aneurysm caused by bacterial infection)
A

B,D

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21
Q

Raynauds phenomen occurs in :

a. liver
b. brain
c. carpal tunnel
d. vessels of upper extremities (hands)

A

E

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22
Q

cardiac Raynaud phenomen

a. stenotic event that always leads to myocardial infarction
b. caused by hyperactivity of medial smooth muscle in the coronary arteries
c. caused by mechanical vessel wall damage
d. results in coronary vasospasm that may lead to myocardial infarction when prolonged

A

B,D

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23
Q

what histological change explains aortic aneurysm in syphilis

a. ) calcification
b. ) cystic meial necrosis
c. ) direct lysis of tunic media by endotoxin
d. ) endarteritis of vasa vasorum
e. ) fatty streak

A

D

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24
Q

175.) complication of arteriolosclerosis EXCEPT:
a.) thrombosis
b.) median necrosis
c.) ischemic organ damage
d.) aneurysm
e.) embolization
arteriolosclerosis : vesselhardening due to hyaline accumulation in media/intima , no thrombus / plaque wthatsoever

A

E

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25
Q
  1. ) important factor in atherosclerosis EXCEPT :
    a. ) hypertension
    b. ) lipid deposition in vessel wall
    c. ) endothelial destruction
    d. ) hyperglacemia
    e. ) amyloid deposition in vessel wall
A

E

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26
Q

177.)
not true for an aneurysm :
a.) within the lumen there is frequent thrombosis
b.) the lumen shows eccentric thinning
c.) occurs in arteries
d.) is a circumscribes alteration of the vessel wall
e.) the elastic fibers in the vessel wall are diminished

A

X

But someone says E

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27
Q
  1. ) an unstable atheromatous plaque contains more lipid than a stable one
    a. true
    b. false
A

A

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28
Q

180.)
Chracteristic for Eisenmenger syndrome : (2 correct)
a.) includes ASD , VSD and patent ductus ateriosus
b.) shunt reversal of an left to right or right to left shunt
c.) isolated vessel transposition ( its lethal !)
d.) can be seen in ASD, VSD and patent oval formen

A

B,D

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29
Q
  1. ) PDA (patent ductus arteriosus) :
    a. ) normally closes in response to O2, PGE2 and increasing pulmonary resistance
    b. ) normally closes in response to O2 , PGE2 and decreasing pulmonary resistance
    c. ) is closed prematurely in hypoxic neonates
    d. ) its closure is delayed or inhibited in hypoxic neonates
A

B, D

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30
Q
  1. ) Tetralogy of fallot includes :
    a. ) ASD, subpulmonic stenosis , aortic obstruction by ASD , right ventricular dilation
    b. ) VSD, subpulmonic stenosis , overriding of the VSD by the aorta , right ventricle dilation
    c. ) VSD , subpulmonic stenosis , overriding of the VSD by the aorta , right ventricle hypertrophy
    d. ) ASD, VSD , pulmonic stenosis and right atrial dilation
A

C

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31
Q

A man is pulsless at the popliteal arteries, hypertensive in the upper extremities, has a history of stroke , suffers from pain during intense walking

a. ) coarctation of aorta
b. ) venstricular septal defect (VSD)
c. ) atrial septal defect (ASD)
d. ) transposition of the great vessels

A

A

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32
Q

which alteration does not belong to the tetralogy of fallot ?

a. pulmonary stenose
b. overriding of aorta
c. right heart hypertrophy
d. ventricular spetal defects
e. left heart hypertrophy

A

E

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33
Q

most common cardiac congenital malformation is pulmonary stenosis

a. true
b. false

A

B

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34
Q

what is NOT a result of right ventricular failure ?

a. splenomegaly
b. ascites
c. pulmonary edema
d. edema in leg
e. nutmeg liver

A

C (left ventricular failure)

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35
Q

typical sign of left ventricular heart failure is edema in region of the ankles

a. true
b. false

A

B (it is typical for right sided heart failure , left sided is generalized both sided edema)

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36
Q

mitral stenosis leads to (2correct)

a. left ventricular dilation
b. left atrial dilation
c. pulmonary edema
d. right ventricular hypertrophy

A

B,C

D ( chronic only ! )

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37
Q

possible consequence of mitral stenosis ( 2correct)

a. left ventricular hypertrophy
b. atrial fibrillation
c. pulmonary hypertension
d. aortic aneurism

A

B, C

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38
Q

possible cause of left ventricular failure : (2correct )

a. ) pulmonary fibrosis
b. ) pulmonary embolism
c. ) hypertension
d. ) aortic insufficiency

A

C,D

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39
Q

tendency for mitral valve prolapse is genetically inherited a. true
b. false

A

A

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40
Q

changes in a mitral valve insufficiency EXCEPT :

a. ) dilation of the right atrium
b. ) dilation of the right ventricle
c. ) dilation of the left ventricle
d. ) slight atrophy of the right ventricle
e. ) sclerosis of the pulmonary artery

A

D (atrophy: shrinkage of cell)

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41
Q

cause of aortic stenosis ? ( 2 correct )

a. calcification
b. hemochromatosis
c. rheumatic endocarditis
d. amyloidosis

A

A,C

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42
Q

forms of aortic coarctation are : infantile , adult and intermediate
true
false

A

false ( only infantile and adult ??)

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43
Q
  1. ) Leads to chronic core pulmonale
    a. ) lobar peumonia
    b. ) thromboembolism of pulmonary veins
    c. ) pulmonary edema
    d. ) bronchiopneumonia
    e. ) emphysema
A

e

b (acute core pulmonale if saddle embolus)

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44
Q
  1. ) cause of core pulmonale ( 2 correct)
    a. ) hypercholestermia
    b. ) sever kyphoscoliosis
    c. ) cirrhosis
    d. ) chronic obstructive lung diseases
A

B,D

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45
Q
  1. ) cause of hydrothorax :
    a. ) acute core pulmonale
    b. ) pulmonary embolism
    c. ) acute left ventricular failure
    d. ) hypertension
    e. ) chronic right heart failure
A

E ( congestion of pleural veins -> plasma filtration in pleural
space )

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46
Q

which process most frequently leads to enlarged heart size ?

a. dysplasia
b. metaplasia
c. hyperplasia
d. atrophy
e. hypertrophy

A

E

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47
Q

heart diseases often leading to hydrothorax ( 2correct )?

a. chronic pericarditis
b. dilative cardiomyopathy
c. atrial appendage thrombosis
d. core pulmonlae chronicus

A

B (decreased CO L> venous congestion –> pleural vein congestion), D

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48
Q

in dilative cardiomyopathy : spherical dilation and mural thrombosis of the left ventricle are typical

a. ) true
b. ) false

A

True

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49
Q

in which diseases is the heart abnormally enlarged but the number of myocytes is unchanged?

a. ) atrophy
b. ) hypertrophy
c. ) dysplasia
d. ) anaplasi

A

B

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50
Q
  1. ) not common in right ventricular hypertrophy
    a. ) ascites
    b. ) pulmonary edema
A

B (left ventricular hypertrophy)

A - and systemic edema etc

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51
Q

203.)
left dilative cardiomyapthy is : ( 2correct )
a.) associated with decreasing contractility and atrophy
b.) associated with decreasing contractility and optional hypertrophy
c.) due to a XLlinked dystrophin mutation
d.) associated wth tricuspid valve regurgitation

A

B,C

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52
Q
  1. ) which statement is characteristic for cardiomyopathy ?
    a. ) is associated with an inflammatory infiltration
    b. ) heals within a short time
    c. ) is slowly progressing
    d. ) has no long term consequences
    e. ) leads to fast cardiac failure
A

C

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53
Q
  1. ) in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy ( 2 correct) :
    a. ) the myocardium shows hypertrophy and dilation
    b. ) the myocardium shows eccentric hypertrophy of the ventricular spetum
    c. ) there is a right outflow tract obstruction due to septal enlargement ( left !)
    d. ) there is marked myocardial hypertrophy and interstitial fibrosis
A

B,D

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54
Q
  1. ) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy leads to
    a. ) increased contractility and cardiac oputput
    b. ) decreased contractility and cardiac output ( predisposing to IHD!! )
    c. ) systolic dysfunction ( impaired contraction)
    d. ) diastolic dysfunction (impaired relaxation)
A

B,D

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55
Q
  1. ) Restrictive cardiomyopathy (2 correct) :
    a. ) Idiopathic (often unknown) or due to irradiation fibrosis , sarcoidosis, amyloidosis
    b. ) decreased cardiac output
    c. ) decreased cardiac contractility
    d. ) decreased cardiac compliance and ventricular filling
A

A,D

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56
Q
  1. ) Löfflers endomyocarditis ( 2 correct) :
    a. ) associated with sarcoidosis
    b. ) associated with cardiac fibrosis and thrombosis
    c. ) associated with lymphocytic infiltration
    d. ) associated with eosinophilic infiltration ( pulmonary eosinophilia = löfflers sign!)
A

B,D

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57
Q
  1. ) peniciline can cause myocarditis
    a. ) true
    b. ) false
A

true (hypersensitive myocarditis

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58
Q

210.)
rheumatic arthritis / endocarditis is due to an infectious disease
a.) ture
b.) false

A

false ( post streptoccal sequel but the process itself is nonLinfectious ( Antibody mediated – autoimmune disease)

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59
Q

211.) ischemic heart disease :
a.) imbalance between cardiac perfusion and myocardial O2 demand leading to
myocardial ischemic injury
b.) common endpoint of many cardiac diseases
c.) commonly results from hematogenous diseases impairing coronary blood flow
d.) is unrelated to congestive heart failure

A

A,C

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60
Q

Congestive heart failure:

a. imbalance between cardiac perfusion and myocardial O2 demand leading to myocardial ischemic injury
b. heart is unable to maintain a CO sufficient to meet metabolic demands of the myocardium which results in ishemic myocardial injury
c. heart is unable to maintin a CO sufficient to meet metabolic demands of downstream tissue which results in systemic hypoperfussion
d. is the common endpoint of most cardiac diseases

A

C,D

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61
Q

Prinzmetal Angina is a consequence of brain spasms.
true
false

A

false ( coronary spasm !)

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62
Q

macroscopic appearance of an ischemic heart disease EXCEPT :

a. core pulmonale
b. chronic ishemic heart disease
c. angina pectoris
d. heart infarct
e. sudden cardiac death

A

A

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63
Q
215.) 
which microscopic lesion is characteristic for chronic myocardial ischemia ?  
a.interstitial fibrosis  
b.granulocytic infiltration  
c.granuloma 
d.apoptosis
A

A

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64
Q
  1. ) What worsens ischemic cardiac diseases?
    a) left ventricular hypertrophy
    b) tachycardia
    c) anemia
    d) bradycardia
A

A,B,C

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65
Q

fatty degeneration of the myocardium

a. lipomatosis of the heart
b. the late stadium of a myocardial infarction
c. amyloidosis of the myocardium
d. scaring due to rheumatic myocarditis
e. a fine linear hypoxic small dropLlike steatosis

A

E

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66
Q

what leads to an acute myocardial infarction ( 2correct)

a. ) abdominal aortic aneurysm
b. ) coronary thrombosis
c. ) severe anemia
d. ) temporal arteriti

A

B,C

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67
Q
219.) how much time does it need for VISIBLE macroscopic changes in the myocardium 
after a myocardial infarction ? 
a.) 12L18h  (12 – 24 hrs) 
b.) 1day 
c.) 6days 
d.) 6weeks
A

A

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68
Q
220.)
in the area of the myocardial infarction a scar (macroscopic) develops : 
a. in 7814 days   
b. in 4 weeks   
c. in 283 days   
d. in 587 days   
e. in 2L3weeks
A

E

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69
Q

Due to MI the following micro- and macroscopic changes can be seen until postLinfarction day 20 EXCEPT :

a. ) coagulation necrosis
b. ) hemorrhagic edges
c. ) pearl like pale scar tissue
d. ) capillary granulation tissue
e. ) progressively decreasing area of the infarct

A

D

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70
Q

organisation of necrotic area in a myocardial infarction starts :

a. after 5 days
b. after 12 hrs
c. after 1 month
d. after 2 weeks

A

A

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71
Q

possible form of acute myocardial infarction ( 2correct)

a. isolated right ventricular
b. transmural
c. pericardia
d. subendocardial

A

B,D

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72
Q

typical change is :
in case of a 3 vessel stenosis ( high grade atherosclerosis in all 3 coronary arteries )
a.) transmural posterior infarction
b.) transmural infarction
c.) subendocardial infarction
d.) transmural septal infarction
e.) large combined front wall and posteriorior wall infarction ( circumferential infarction )

A

E

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73
Q

225.)
in case of hypercholesteremia a heart attack below age 40 comes only rarely
a.) ture
b.) false

A

false

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74
Q
226.) 
what is the cause of yellow demarcation zone surrounding acute myocardial infarctions?
a.) granulocytic iinfiltration  
b.) fatty degeneration  
c.) accumulation of glycogen  
d.) accumulation of lipofuchsin
A

A

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75
Q
  1. ) which special condition causes hemorrhagic infarction ?
    a. ) haemophilia
    b. ) coronary intervention performed 12h after onset of MI
    c. ) thrombophilia
    d. ) shock
A

B

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76
Q
  1. ) one of the most common complication of myocardial infarction is arrhythmia
    a. ) true
    b. ) false
A

false

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77
Q
  1. ) can occur on basis of scar formation after myocardial infarction :
    a. ) narrowing of ventricles
    b. ) right to left shunt
    c. ) aneurysm
    d. ) stenosis of aorta
A

C

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78
Q
  1. ) when is myocardial wall rupture most characteristic after MI ?
    a. ) immediately
    b. ) after several weeks
    c. After 1 week
A

C (4-7 days)

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79
Q
  1. ) possible cause of hemopericaerdium
    a. ) pericardial rupture
    b. ) hemorrhagig infarction in neighbouring area
    c. ) influenza
    d. ) cardiac vein thrombosis
    e. ) rupture of MI
A

E

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80
Q
  1. ) what is not a complication of a myocardial infarct
    a. ) rupture of free ventricular wall
    b. ) rupture of affected wall
    c. ) fibrosis pericardium
    d. ) papillary rupture
A

C

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81
Q

233.)
complication of chronic cardiac aneurism
a. mural thrombiosis and embolization
b. left ventricular hypertrophy
c. papillary muscle rupture
d. mitral insufficiency

A

A

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82
Q
234.) (2good) : 
possible complication of myocardial infarction associated with myocardial rupture 
a.) aortic stenosis  
b.) fibrinous pericarditis  
c.) left to right shunt  
d.) mitral insufficiency
A

C,D

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83
Q
  1. ) heart defects predispose to endocarditis
    a. ) true
    b. ) false
A

true

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84
Q
  1. ) most common cause of myocarditis in europe?
    a. ) viruses
    b. ) trichinellosis
    c. ) chlamydia
    d. ) chagasche diseas (worldwide)
    e. ) Ecchiococcus
A

A

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85
Q
  1. ) sterile endocarditis is ( 2correct)
    a. ) endocarditis lenta
    b. ) liebmann sachs endocarditis
    c. ) marandtic endocarditis
    d. ) endocarditis ulcerate
A

B,C

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86
Q

238.)
Liebman Sacks endocarditis is caused by bacteria.
true
false

A

false (sterile endocarditis

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87
Q

nonLbacterial thrombotic endocarditis ( 2correct)

a. also called liebmann sachs endocarditis
b. also called endocarditis marantica
c. associated wth autoimmune process
d. associated with pre8terminal state and bad general condition

A

A,B

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88
Q

The heart lesion associated with SLE:

a. ) Marantic endocarditis
b. ) Liebman Sacks endocarditis
c. ) Pericarditis ( too !!) d.) Myocarditis

A

B

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89
Q
  1. ) in liebamnn sachs endocarditis bacteria are demonstrated in the vegetations
    a. ) ture
    b. ) false
A

false (nonLsterile)

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90
Q
  1. ) endocarditis lueitca ( 2correct)
    a. ) associated with aortic degeneration
    b. ) associated wth AIDS
    c. ) associated wth syphilis
    d. ) is an infectious endocarditis
A

A,C

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91
Q
  1. ) characteristic for carcinoid endocarditis ( 2correct)
    a. ) associated wth tumors of the : appendix, GI, pancreas, lung
    b. ) involves secretion of norepinephrine and parathyroid hormone
    c. ) involves secretion of serotonin, histamine, bradykinin, PG
    d. ) affects mainly the left heart and the mitral valve
    e. ) thickening of the tricuspid valve and endocardium of the right heart
A

A,C

92
Q

rheumatic endocarditis is an example of an infective endocarditis
true
false

A

false (POST streptococcal , Immunoglobulin mediated L> autoimmune

93
Q

In rheumatic endocarditis

a. bacteria are found in valve vegetations (non – bacterial)
b. verrucosus thrombi of thrombocytes along lines of closure of cusps
c. perforation of valves
d. large polypoid thrombi along lines of closure of cusps e. ulcerated thrombi along lines of closure of cusps

A

B

94
Q

risk for infectious endocarditis increases due to :

a. SLE
b. left ventricular hypertrophy
c. emphysema
d. congenital valve diseases

A

D

95
Q

Schottmüllers triade (Schottmuller bacillus L causes enteric fever)
characteristic for carcinoid endocarditis ( 2correct)
a.) applies to rheumatic fever
b.) applies to infective endocarditis
c.) endocarditis ulcerosa , splenic infarction, embolic focal nephritis
d.) endocarditis lenta , splenic ischemia , embolic foacal nephritis

A

B,C

96
Q

infectious endocarditis ( 2correct) :

a. always affects previously damaged heart valves
b. the acute form affects previously damaged heart valves c. the subacute form affects previously damaged heart valves
d. the subacute form is associated wth FUO ( fever of unknown origin

A

C,D

97
Q
possible complication of infectious mitral valve endocarditis ? (2correct)  
pulmonary embolism  
brain abscess 
hemorrhagic spleen infarct  
mitral insufficiency
A

B,D

98
Q

patients wth myocarditis mostly die from heart insufficiency
true
false

A

true

99
Q

myocarditis : ( 2correct)

a. is a primary diseases of the subendocardial cardiomyocytes
b. is a primary disease of the cardiac interstitium
c. leads to ventricular hypertrophy
d. involves secondary myocytolysis and microinfarction

A

B,D

100
Q

possible causes of myocarditis

a. viral, bacterial, protozonal infection
b. irradiation and heavy metal poisoning
c. sarcoidosis and poststreptococcal rheumatic fever
d. all of them

A

D

101
Q

myxoma is the most common primary cardiac tumor
True
false

A

true

102
Q

the corynebacterium diphtheria toxin does not damage the myocardium

a. ) true
b. ) false

A

false

103
Q
  1. ) which is not a complication of prosthetic valves ?
    a. ) haemolytic anemia ( valves cut up RBCs ! )
    b. ) infectious anemia
    c. ) arrhythmias
    d. ) thromboembolism
    e. ) valve vegetations
A

B

104
Q

256.)

features of rheumatic arthritis ?

a. endocarditis verrucosa acuta
b. aschoffs bodies
c. fibrinous pericarditis
d. nodules on skin

A

B

105
Q
  1. ) Characteristic for rheumatic fever
    a. ) achoffs nodules ( ANtischkowas cells !) b.) niger body
    c. ) eisenmenger
    d. ) nodules in skin
A

A

106
Q
  1. ) characteristic complication of lobar pneumonia
    a. ) glomerulonephritis
    b. ) purulent lymphadenitis
    c. ) pleuritis fibrinosa
    d. ) pneumothorax
    e. ) pulmonary embolism
A

C

107
Q

most common cause of lobar pneumonia :

a. ) streptococcus pneumoniae
b. ) straphylococcus aureus
c. ) legionella
d. ) klebsiella

A

A

108
Q
  1. ) typical for bronchopneumonia : (2 correct)
    a. ) diretly attacks a lung lobe
    b. ) fragile parenchyma
    c. ) lung biopsy is necessary for diagnosis
    d. ) purulent inflammation foci
A

B,D

109
Q

NSIP : nonspecific interstitial pneumonia ( 2 correct )

a. ) is a transient pneumonia
b. ) is a chronic , fibrosing patchy or uniformly distributing interstitial diseases
c. ) lesions show temporal homogeneity
d. ) its of idiopathic origine (nonLspecific)

A

B,D

110
Q

characteristic for bronchopneumonia (2 correct) : a.multifocal purulent inflammation

b. affects 1lobe only
c. lung biopsy is necessary for diagnosis
d. parenchyma becomes breakable

A

A,D

111
Q

BOOP : bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia ( 2 correct)

a. ) subpleural , peribronchial patchy consolidations
b. ) affects a whole lobe
c. ) diffuse mucous plug obliteration of small airways
d. ) polypoid plugs of loose organizing connective tissue within the alveolar ducts

A

A,D

112
Q
  1. ) select the true statement ( 2 correct )
    a. ) in bronchopneumonia the inflammation spreads around the biggest bronchi in the lobe
    b. ) in bronchopneumonia the inflammation spreads diffusely along the bronchial tree
    c. ) in lobar pneumonia the parenchyma of a lobe is diffusely inflamed
    d. ) in lobar pneumonia the inflammation leads to segmental or lobar consolidation it affects the whole lobe
A

B,D

113
Q
  1. ) select the true statements ( 2 correct )
    a. ) in interstitial pneumonia there is an productive cough
    b. ) in lobar pneumonia airspaces are filled with homogenous exudate
    c. ) in bronchial pneumonia there is no sputum
    d. ) in bronchial pneumonia there is extensive mucous production and suppurative exudation
A

B,D

114
Q
  1. ) the pneumonia casued by S. aureus is an atypical pneumonia
    a. ) ture
    b. ) false
A

false

115
Q

Pneumonia caused by S. aureus :

a. ) can be a lobar pneumonia or a bronchopneumonia
b. ) progresses in 4 stages : congestion , red hepatisation , grey hepatisation , resolution
c. ) there is unproductive cough
d. ) the pleura is usually unaffected

A

A,B

116
Q
  1. ) pneumonia caused by S.aureus
    a. ) has a risk of progressing to respiratory failure
    b. ) is a common pathogen of healthy adults
    c. ) is a common nosocominal and pediatric pathogen
    d. ) complications are empyemas , abscess formation and endocarditis
A

C,D

117
Q
  1. ) in congestion :
    a. ) liver like consistency of the lung
    b. ) RBC lysis
    c. ) enzymatic degradation of cell derbis
    d. ) vascular congestion and neutrophil infiltatrion
A

D

118
Q

In red hepatisation:

a. ) red, bogged , heavy appearance of the lung
b. ) liver like consistency , alveolar spaces filled with RBC and neutrophils (hardens)
c. ) semisolid derbis is coughed up
d. ) ingrowing fibroblasts

A

B

119
Q
  1. ) typical for grey hepatisation
    a. ) the infection shows temporal homogeneity
    b. ) there is fibrinous exudate in the alveoli
    c. ) happens on day 6 of lobar pneumonia
    d. ) the alveoli are filled with neutrophils
A

B

120
Q
  1. ) grey hepatisation :
    a. ) proteinus exudate in alveolar spaces
    b. ) neutrophils in alveolar spaces
    c. ) RBC lysis and persisting fibinopurulent exudation
    d. ) phagocytotic clearance
A

C

121
Q
  1. ) Characteristic in grey heptatisation:
    a. ) fibrinous exudate in alveoli
    b. ) seen on 6th day of pneumonia
    c. ) the inflammation is at the same state in the whole lobe d.) masses of neutrophils are seen in the alveoli
A

A

122
Q

Resolution ( 2 correct) :

a. ) enzymatic degradation of cell debris and fibroblast mediated organization
b. ) pulmonary edema
c. ) neutrophils in the interstitium
d. ) phagocytotic infiltration

A

A,D

123
Q

a yellow hepatisation can be seen in :

a. ) tuberculosis
b. ) lobar pneumonia
c. ) bronchopneumonia
d. ) influenza pneumonia
e. ) aspiration pneumonia

A

B

124
Q

75.) in response to pneumonia the pleura ( 2 correct)
a.) remains usually unaffected except in infections wth S.aureus
b.) secretes copious amounts of pleural fluid rich in defensins
c.) develops a fibrinous , fibrinopurulent pleuritis
d.) organization of fibrous tissue may lead to scarformation and chronic restrictive
pleuritis

A

C,D

125
Q

he pneumonia caused by the influenza virus is of fibrinous inflammatory type
true
false

A

false

126
Q

77.)
correct for atypical pneumonia :
a.) extensive productive cough / sputum
b.) patchy infiltration in alveolar septa and pulmonary interstitium
c.) diffuse consolidation
d.) homogenous eosinophilic alveolar exudate

A

B

127
Q
  1. ) choose the pathogenes causing atypical pneumonia ( 3 correct) :
    a. ) mycoplasma pneumonia
    b. ) influenza virus , adenovirus, rubeola virus
    c. ) S. aureus (typical – nosocomial infection)
    d. ) chlamydia pneumoniae
    e. ) klebsiella
A

A,B,D

128
Q

) characteristic for atypical pneumonia ( 2 correct ) :

a. ) macrophagic and neutrophilic infiltration
b. ) infiltration of : lymphocytes , plasma cells and histiocytes
c. ) epithelial cell damage inhibits ciliary clearance in upper respiratory tract
d. ) fibrous reaction of pulmonary interstitium

A

B,C

129
Q
interstitial pneumonia is caused by :  
viral pneumonia   
streptococcal pneumonia   
pneumocystic carnii 
straphylococcu
A

Viral and carnii

130
Q

Lung abscess
a.) involves extensive anaerobic bacterial replication within lung parenchyma
b.) usually involves anaerobic bacteria
c.) can be due to aspiration pneumonia , necrotizing pneumonia or septic embolism
d.) commonly in right upper lobe , posterior segemt ( we talk about unconscious
hospitalized and lying patients here ! )

A

B,C,D

131
Q
  1. ) characteristic for Löfflers pneumonia
    a. ) it ́s an pulmonary eosinophilia
    b. ) it’s a transient autoimmune disease
    c. ) it involves eosinophilic infiltration , alveolar septal thickening
    d. ) all of them
A

D

132
Q
283.)
which lesion affects characteristically the peripheral lung ? 
a.) tuberculotic lymphadenitis  
b.) infarct  
c.) squamous cell carcinoma  
d.) adenocarcinoma
A

B,D

133
Q
  1. ) in the backround of a typical tracheobronchitis is usually an acute viral infect
    a. ) true
    b. ) false
A

A

134
Q
  1. ) complication of chronic bronchitis may be
    a. ) chonic core pulmonale
    b. ) bronchiectasis
    c. ) repiratory failure
    d. ) chronic congestion of lung
A

A

135
Q

blood aspiration and hemorrhagic pneumonia have the same histological appearance :

a. ) true
b. ) false

A

B -false

136
Q

obstructive lung diseases are (2 correct) :
chronic bronchitis and bronchiectasis
ARDS and pneumoconiosis
emphysema and asthma
chest wall disorders and interstitial lung diseases

A

A, C

137
Q

restrictive diseases are characterized by : limited airflow, increased resistance and obstruction (obstructive diseases)

a. ) true
b. ) false

A

false

138
Q

pneumothorax is caused by atelectasis :

a. ) true
b. ) false

A

false

139
Q

in compression atelectasis

a. ) air is absorbed from the alveoli
b. ) an foreign body compresses the main bronchi
c. ) pleural effusion or hemothorax compresses the pleural cavity and the lung
d. ) the damage is potentially irreversible

A

C

140
Q

in contraction atelectasis ( 2correct) :

a. ) air is absorbed from alveolis
b. ) overproduction of elastic tissue leads to lung contraction
c. ) localized or generalized fibrosis decreases ability to expand the lungs
d. ) damage is potentially irreversible

A

C, D

141
Q
  1. ) in reabsorption atelectasis ( 2 correct) :
    a. ) a forein body obstructs the airways
    b. ) the damage is potentially ireversible
    c. ) air is reabsorbed from the alveoli
    d. ) pleural effusion compresses the lung
A

A,C

142
Q
pneumothorax can be caused by :  
rib fracture  
 thoracic trauma 
  bulla emphysema  
 subclavian sth ....unreadable 
  all true
A

all true

143
Q

true for chronic bronchitis EXEPT :

a. ) mucous gland hyperplasia
b. ) goblet cell metaplasia in small airways
c. ) associated with emphysema and smoking
d. ) smooth muscle hyperplasia

A

D

144
Q

chronic bronchiolitis

a. ) is associated with asthma
b. ) is associated with chronic bronchitis
c. ) is a fibrous change in small air ways
d. ) is goblet cell metaplasia in small airways

A

B,D

145
Q

bronchiolitis obliterans ( 2 correct ):

a. ) is associated with chronic bronchitis
b. ) obliteration of small airways by inhalation of a foreign body
c. ) obliteration of small airways due to mucous plug formation (fibrous plug)
d. ) obliteration of small airways due to submucosal fibrosis

A

A,D

146
Q

ARDS can occure due to intoxication , metabolic – and circulatory problems

a. true
b. ) false

A

true

147
Q

Bronchiectasis is dilation of bronchi and bronchioles due to destruction of muscle and elastic tissue associated with necrotizing infections

a. ) true
b. ) false

A

true

148
Q
  1. ) possible cause of bronchiectasis ?
    a. ) obstruction and infection
    b. ) dilation and infection
    c. ) compression and infection
    d. ) emphysema and infection
A

A

149
Q

cause of bronchiectasis can be (2correct) :

bronchial asthma  ( in very severe and chronic cases too !)   bronchial pneumonia  
mucoviscidosis  
chronic bronchitis
A

C,D

150
Q
cause of bronchiectasis can be (2good)   
chronic bronchitis  
ARDS 
mucoviscdosis  
pulmonary hypertension
A

A,C

151
Q

mucous plug in bronchi induces bronchiectasis :
true
false

A

true(any obstruction)

152
Q

acute bronchiectasis ( 2 correct)

a. ) is associated with fibrosis
b. ) is associated with acute infection
c. ) bronchioles are ulcerated
d. ) bronchioles show reactive epithelial proliferation

A

B,C

153
Q

in chronic bronchiectasis ( 2 correct) :

a. ) there is an acute superimposed inflammation
b. ) there is peribronchial and bronchial fibrosis
c. ) the damage is reversible
d. ) complications are : bronchial wall destruction and abscess formation

A

B,D

154
Q

alphaL1Lantitrypsin deficiency is common in . ( 2correct)

  1. )
    a. ) panlobar emphysema
    b. ) panacinar emphysema
    c. ) asthma
    d. ) bronchitis
A

A,B

155
Q

possible cause of pulmonary hypertension ( 2 correct)

a. ) bronchopneumonia
b. ) emphysema
c. ) chronic renal failure
d. ) pulmonary fibrosis

A

B,D

156
Q

in which diseases enlarged alveolar spaces and destruction of alveolar septa can be seen ?

a. ) alveolar proteinosis
b. ) chronic bronchitis
c. ) pulmonary hypertension
d. ) lung infarction
e. ) emphysema

A

E

157
Q

congestive Heart failure is the cause of pleural transudate
true
false

A

true

158
Q

which change causes NO core pulmonale ?

a. ) emphysema
b. ) lungfibrosis
c. ) stenosis of tricuspid valve
d. ) lungembolism
e. ) chronic bronchitis

A

C

159
Q

core pulmonale is caused by

a. ) pulmonary fibrosis
b. ) tricuspid stenosis
c. ) lobar bronchitis
d. ) viral pneumonia

A

A,C

160
Q

consequence of smoking EXCEPT :

a. ) emphysema + chronic bronchitis
b. ) desquamative interstitial pneumonia (DIP)
c. ) Bronchiolitis
d. ) ARDS

A

D

161
Q

which microscopic feature is characteristic for ARDS ?

  1. )
    a. ) hyaline membrane
    b. ) necrosis
    c. ) granuloma
    d. ) intraalveolar mucin
A

A

162
Q
  1. ) cause of ARDS is edema in alveolar wall which impairs gas exchange
    a. ) ture
    b. ) false
A

false(hyalin is the cause of impaired gas exchange )

163
Q

autopsy of a patient who died in status asthmaticus shows

a. ) panlobular emphysema
b. ) compensatory emphysema
c. ) hepatisation
d. ) increased lung volume

A

D

164
Q

asthma involves

a. ) IgE
b. ) curschmanns spirals ( whorles of shed epithelium )
c. ) hyperplasia of mucous glands
d. ) bronchospasm
e. ) all

A

E

165
Q

airway remodelling includes all EXEPT :

a. ) basementmembrane fibrosis and vascularization of submucosa
b. ) hypertrophy of submucosal glands
c. ) fibrosis of submucosa
d. ) goblet cell metaplasia
e. ) hypertrophy and hyperplasia of bronchial smooth muscle

A

C

166
Q

Hypersensitivity pneumonia ( 2 correct):

a. ) is an allergic reaction involving bronchial and alveolar tissue
b. ) is an allergic reaction involving alveolar tissue and pulmonary interstitium
c. ) includes hypersensitivity type III and IV
d. ) includes hypersensitivity type I and II

A

B,C

167
Q

characteristic for hypersensitivity pneumonia (2correct):

a. ) consolidation of a whole lobe
b. ) peribronchial accentuation
c. ) damage caused is irreversible
d. ) mononuclear infiltrate and nonLcaseating granuloma formation

A

B, (D)

168
Q

granulocytic , fibrinous alveolar exudate due to :

a. ) viral pneumonia
b. ) mycoplasma pneumonia
c. ) bacterial pneumonia
d. ) caseous pneumonia
e. ) pneumocyszic carcnii pneumonia

A

C

169
Q
surfactant is influenced by : (3correct) 
type II pneumocytes   
tyroxine   
insulin
costicosteroids
A

Everyone except insulin (is an antagonist)

170
Q

bronchial tree
in cystic fibrosis : bronchiectasis is often becaue the viscous mucus clogs up the
a.) true
b.) false

A

true

171
Q

characteristic for sarcoidosis (3 correct):

a. ) lesions are bilateral
b. ) lesions are rarely calcified
c. ) granuloma formation
d. ) can lead to interstitial lung diseases ( massive pulmonary fibrosis L> honey comb lung !)

A

A,C,D

172
Q

true for sarcoidosis ( 3correct):

a. multisystemic nonLcaseating granulomatous disease b.unilateral lesion
c. higher incidence in nonLsmokers
d. involves tracheal, parabronchial and hilar lymphnodes

A

A,C and D

unilat is wrong

173
Q
  1. ) which condition can cause severe pulmonary bleeding ?
    a. ) tuberculotic granuloma
    b. ) bronchiopneumonia
    c. ) infarction
    d. ) sarcoidosis
A

A

174
Q

Which organs can be affected in Primary Tuberculosis? (2 correct answers)

a) Lung
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Small intestine

A

A, D

175
Q
  1. ) what is the most possible location of TB reactivation in lung ?
    a. ) basis
    b. ) bronchial cartilage
    c. ) apex
    d. ) hilus
A

C

176
Q

characteristic for lung TB EXEPT : ?

a. ) typical in secondary TB is the apical simons foci
b. ) includes granuloma formation
c. ) eosinophils dominate in the granuloma
d. ) can cause milary TB through hematogenous spread
e. ) can form cavitation

A

C

177
Q
  1. ) typical manifestation of extrapulmonary TB ( 2 correct):
    a. ) skin sarcoidosis
    b. ) Marantic endocarditis
    c. ) basilar meningitis
    d. ) potts diseases
A

C( via infective embolism) ,D (TB in vertebral body )

178
Q

common manifestation of postLprimary TB ( 2 correct) :
triggered by mycobacterium TB histological changes correspond to hypersensitivity
a.) Gohn complex
b.) tuberculin reaction
c.) tuberculotic osteomyelitis
d.) milary TB

A

C,D( hematogenous spread L> caseous necrosis foci in all parenchymal organs)

179
Q

which organs are involved in TB ? (lung, intestine)

a. ) skeletal muscle
b. ) heart muscle
c. ) pancreas
d. ) nebenhoden
e. ) thyroid gland

A

B

180
Q

which of the following is a characteristic complication of silicosis (3 correct) ?

a. ) suspectible to TB
b. ) mesothelioma
c. ) chronic core pulmonale
d. ) bronchial carcinoma

A

A,C,D

181
Q

typical for TB EXCEPT :

a. ) typical for the secondary form of TB is the simonsche foci
b. ) includes granuloma formation
c. ) may result in formation of caverna
d. ) can result in military TB by hematogenous spread
e. ) eosinophils are the dominant cells in the granulomas

A

E

182
Q

Kidney tuberculosis usually results from :

a. ) hematogenous spread from the lung
b. ) non is correct
c. ) lymphogenic spread from the intestines
d. ) fracture of a vertebral tuberculosis
e. ) ascending from the urethers

A

A

183
Q

where can we normally see squamous cell carcinoma ?

a. pleura
b. salivary gland
c. lymph nodes
d. bronchus epithelium

A

bronchus epithelium

184
Q

primary and metastatic lung adenocarcinoma are always distinguishable by histological appearance
True
False

A

False

185
Q

lung carcinoma can be derieved from both bronchial and alveolar epithelium
true
false

A

true

186
Q

340.)
typical for squamous cell carcinoma of the lung (2 correct):
a.) generally associated wth HPV infections
b.) generally a form of central bronchial carcinoma
c.) this lung cancer has the worst prognosis
d.) occurs due to squamous metaplasia

A

B,D

C is for small cell

187
Q

which carcinoma does not exist in the lung ?

a. ) adenocarcinoma
b. ) squamous cell carcinoma
c. ) neuroendocrine carcinoma
d. ) small cell carcinoma
e. ) large cell carcinoma
f. ) myxoma

A

F (heart)

188
Q

which carcinoma has the strongest association with smoking ?

a. ) large cell carcinoma
b. ) adenocarcinoma
c. ) small cell carcinoma
d. ) neuroendocrine carcinoma
e. ) squamous cell carcinoma

A

C,E

189
Q
  1. ) which carcinoma is typical in nonLsmokers ?
    a. ) large cell carcinoma
    b. ) adenocarcinoma
    c. ) small cell carcinoma
    d. ) neuroendocrine carcinoma
    e. ) squamous cell carcinoma
A

B

190
Q
  1. ) typical for lung carcinoma : ( 2correct)
    a. ) often given metastasis in skeletal muscle
    b. ) diagnosed in early state
    c. ) often give metastasis in brain
    d. ) often is an occult carcinoma
A

C,D( cancer cells in sputum but yet no cancer found in lungs )

191
Q

typical for squamous cell carcinoma ( 3 correct )

a. arises peripherally
b. arises centrally
c. developmental sequence : basal cell hyperplasia , squamous metaplasia , dysplasia , cancer in situ , d.squamous cell carcinoma
e. most common mutation : KLRAS

A

B,C,D

192
Q

Character for squamos cell carcinoma

a. ) lepidic growth
b. ) linistic growth
c. ) keratin pearls in well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma
d. ) gives early and widespread metastasis

A

C

193
Q

adenocarcinoma ( 2 correct)

a. ) is typically in smoking men
b. ) is typical in nonLsmoking women
c. ) growth slowly but gives early and widespread metastasis
d. ) its major mutation is p53 muation

A

B,C

194
Q

characteristic for adenocarcinoma : (2 correct)
a.) growth peripherally
b.) follows the same developmental sequence as squamous cell carcinoma
c.) develops from atypical adenomatous hyperplasia over adenocarcinoma in situ to
invasive adenocarcinoma
d.) may arise from bronchialveolar stem cells

A

C,D

195
Q
  1. ) in atypical adenomatous hyperplasia
    a. ) squamous cell hyperplasia
    b. ) cuboidal cell hyperplasia
    c. ) EGFR , ALK , cMET and KLRas are the most common mutations
    d. ) shows lepidic growth
A

B,C

196
Q

adenomacarcinoma in situ

a. ) shows linistic growth
b. ) shows lipidic growth along the alveolar septa
c. ) provokes extensive desmoplastic reaction
d. ) is invasive

A

B (L> bronchoalveolar adenocarcinoma !)

197
Q
352.)
bronchial carcinoma (2correct) :  
a.) leiomyosaercoma is a special form of it  
b.) can cause neoplastic syndrome   
c.) can originate  from scars  
d.) are mainly  in periphael location
A

B,C

198
Q

adenomacarcinoma can be of mucinous differentiation type producing copious amounts of mucous sputum

a. ) true
b. ) false

A

true

199
Q
  1. ) BASC : bronchioalveolar stem cells
    a. ) at the bronchioalveolar junction
    b. ) multipotent stem cells involved in claracell and alveolar epithelial cell regeneration
    c. ) may be precursor for squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma
    d. ) all of them
A

D

200
Q
  1. ) large cell carcinoma ( 2 correct) :
    a. ) shows mainly squamous cell differentiation
    b. ) does not show squamous or glandular differentiation
    c. ) responds well to chemotherapy
    d. ) ample cytoplasma , large nuclei and vesicular chomatin
A

B,D

201
Q
  1. ) small cell carcinoma ( 2 correct) :
    a. ) centrally located solid gray masses extending in lung parenchyma
    b. ) respond well to chemotherapy
    c. ) are easily resectable
    d. ) grow slowly and give extensive metastasis
A

A,B

202
Q
  1. ) typical for small cell carcinoma of the lung ( 2 correct )
    a. ) most have metastized by the time of diagnosis
    b. ) grow on the epithelial cells lining the alveolar space
    c. ) histologically they show a scant cytoplasm , granular chromatin , frequent mitotic figures and crushLartifacts
    d. ) they are smaller than T8lymphocytes
A

A,C

203
Q
  1. ) small cell carcinomas typically : ( 3 correct )
    a. ) grow in the submucosa around bronchi in a circumferential fashion
    b. ) cells are of cuboidal shape wth prominent nuclei
    c. ) cells are of small round or spindle like shape
    d. ) the most common mutations found are : MYC, p53 and Rb
A

A,C,D

204
Q
  1. ) typical for carcinoid tumor EXCEPT : (3correct)
    a. ) arises from alveolar epithelial cell
    b. ) arises from diffuse neuroendocrine cell population
    c. ) is easily resectable
    d. ) shows obstructive , intraluminal growth pattern
A

A,C,D

205
Q
  1. ) characteristic for carcinoid tumors :
    a. ) penetrate bronchial wall and fan out in pulmonary interstitium
    b. ) given frequent distal metastasis
    c. ) are nests of uniform , regular round cells with salt and peper appearance
    d. ) are usually peripheral lesions of the pleura
A

A,C

206
Q
  1. ) characteristic for carcinoid syndrome EXCEPT :
    a. ) is caused by neuroendocrine tumor of the lung and colon
    b. ) is due to secretion of ADH, ACTH and glucocorticoids
    c. ) is due to secretion of serotonin, bradykinin ,histamine and tachycardin
    d. ) causes , flushing , diarrhea , increased heart rate and low blood pressure
A

A,C,D

207
Q
  1. ) paraneoplastic syndromes are MOST likely caused by : ( 2 correct)
    a. ) small cell carcinoma
    b. ) large cell carcinoma
    c. ) carcinoid
    d. ) adenocarcinomas
A

A,C( neuroendocrine tumors )

208
Q
  1. ) pancost tumors ( 2correct)
    a. ) are located in the base of the lung
    b. ) are located in the apex of the lung
    c. ) compress intercostal nerves causing diffuse dermatome pain
    d. ) compress the cervical plexus causing ulnar nerve pain
A

B,D

209
Q
  1. ) Horners syndrome ( 2 correct) :
    a. ) contralateral enopthalmus , ptosis , miosis , anhidrosis
    b. ) ipsilateral enopthalmus ( eyeball depression) , ptosis, miosis ,anhidrosis
    c. ) due to compression of sympathetic trunk by a lung carcinoma
    d. ) due to compression of cervical sympathetic nerves by a pantumor
A

B,D

210
Q
  1. ) malignant mesothelioma
    a. ) is related to asbestose inhalation
    b. ) spreads along pleural surfaces
    c. ) direct invasion of thoracic wall
    d. ) all of them
A

D

211
Q
  1. ) mesothelioma
    a. ) is of squamous cell origine
    b. ) is of cuboidal mesothelial cell origine
    c. ) may show sarcomatous spindle cell differentiation
    d. ) is a bening tumor
A

B,C

212
Q
  1. ) of the lung cancers the worst prognosis has ….
    a. ) small cell carcinoma
    b. ) bronchioalveolar carcinoma
    c. ) adenocarcinoma
    d. ) non8keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma
    e. ) keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma
A

A

213
Q
  1. ) common metastasis of lung cancer EXCEPT :
    a. ) hilar and mediastinal lymphnodes
    b. ) brain bone and liver
    c. ) brain , pancreas and liver
    d. ) adrenal gland
A

A,B,D(!!!almost exclusively !!!)

214
Q
  1. ) common site of metastatsis from lung carcinoma : (2correct)
    a. ) adrenal glands
    b. ) brain
    c. ) kidney
    d. ) spleen
A

A, B

215
Q
  1. ) common complications of lung tumors EXCEPT :
    a. ) pleural and pericardial effusion
    b. ) swollen virchows lymphnode
    c. ) endocarditis
    d. ) hemoptysis , cough , chest pain
    e. ) paraneoplastic lesions
A

C

216
Q
  1. ) benign tumors in the lungs are more frequent than malignant tumors
    a. ) true
    b. ) false
A

false

217
Q
372.)
which organ is typically affected by tumor embolisam of renal carcinoma ?  
a.) lung  
b.) brain  
c.) contralateral kidney  
d.) liver  
e.) spleen
A

A

218
Q
  1. ) can cause granulomatous infection of cervical lymph nodes EXCEPT:
    a. ) sarcoidosis
    b. ) TB
    c. ) yersinia pestis
    d. ) rheumatic fever
A

A,B

219
Q
  1. ) in which tumor there is hoarseness (2 correct) : ?
    a. ) laryngeal papilloma
    b. ) glottis carcinoma
    c. ) bronchiocarcinoma
    d. ) tongue tumor
A

A,B

220
Q
  1. ) most laryngeal tumors are subglottic
    a. ) true
    b. ) false
A

B( vocal cords !)

221
Q
  1. ) characteristic for laryngeal papilloma EXCEPT :
    a. ) mainly in real vocal cords
    b. ) regular stratisfied squamous epithelium
    c. ) greater tha 1 cm
    d. ) benign tumor
    e. ) gives metastasis
A

E(no, its benign)

222
Q
  1. ) in which region of the larynx is a carcinoma most common ?
    a. ) in sinus piriformis
    b. ) on the epiglottis
    c. ) on aryepiglottic folds
    d. ) on the vocal cords
A

D

223
Q
378.)
parotid gland tumor EXEPT :  
a.) warthin tumor  
b.) pleomorphic adenoma  
c.) mukoepithelial cyst  
d.) squamous cell carcinoma
A

D

224
Q
  1. ) Typical composition of pleiomorphic adenoma, EXCEPT:
    a. ) epithelial cells : ductal and myoepithelial cells
    b. ) myxoid , chondroid or mucoid ground substance
    c. ) fibrous capsule
    d. ) goblet cells
A

D

225
Q
  1. ) In cervicofacial actinomycosis there is a broadlike infiltration
    a. ) true
    b. ) false
A

true

226
Q

Leukoplakia in the oral caity is a precancerous state
true
false

A

true