PAST PAPERS Flashcards

1
Q

Drug that potentially could cause fall

A

Gliclazide

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2
Q

What antibiotic does ciclosporin have an interaction with?

A

Clarithromycin

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3
Q

When should lithium levels be taken?

A

12 hours post dose

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4
Q

What class of drugs can cause an increase in creatinine?

A

NSAIDs

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5
Q

What colour does rifampicin turn urine?

A

Orange-red

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6
Q

What bacterium can cause the exacerbation of COPD?

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

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7
Q

What antibiotic is usually given instead of amoxicillin for pen-allergic patients?

A

Doxycycline

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8
Q

What dose of paracetamol should be given to a 4 and a half year old?

A

240mg every 4-6 hours

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9
Q

If a patient is having an acute psychotic episode, which antipsychotic should be given?

A

Olanzapine 10mg OD

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10
Q

What dose of ibuprofen should be given to a 3 year old?

A

100mg TDS

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11
Q

If a child presents with a thread-like object in their faeces and is scratching their bottom, OTC product should be given?

A

Ovex (mebendazole) for the whole family

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12
Q

If a patient has CAP and C.difficile, which antibiotic should be given?

A

Vancomycin

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13
Q

If a patient has gout, what OTC product do they need to buy off-license?

A

Feminax

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14
Q

What anti diabetic medication has haematuria as one of its adverse drug reactions?

A

Pioglitazone

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15
Q

Of the antihypertensives, which drug is most likely to cause postural hypotension?

A

Doxazosin

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16
Q

If patient is taking Madopar capsules, what formulation can they be switched to if they’re struggling to swallow caps?

A

Switch to dispersible tablets (Opening caps is unlicensed)

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17
Q

What are symptoms of Reye’s syndrome?

A

Vomiting, loss of energy, drowsiness, rapid breathing, seizures

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18
Q

What is the reversal agent for dabigatran?

A

Idarucizamab

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19
Q

What risk is presented by NOACs but not LMWH?

A

Epidural haematoma

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20
Q

Which NSAID provides the lowest vascular risk?

A

Ibuprofen

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21
Q

What is the licensed age for codeine?

A

12 years

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22
Q

People of what descent have ultra fast metabolism of codeine to form morphine?

A

Middle Eastern and African/Ethiopian descent

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23
Q

What is the first line treatment for an acute attack of gout?

A

NSAIDs, if contraindicated- Colchicine

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24
Q

“Paracetamol can be given before live vaccine immunisations.” True or False?

A

False. Giving paracetamol before live vaccines may lower the immune response.

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25
“Two live vaccines can be given parenterally on the same day.”
True. Ideally can be given on the same day. If this is not possible, then separate vaccines by 4 weeks. The parenteral/intranasal administration of live vaccines is not thought to affect oral live vaccines.
26
What are symptoms of Type 1 Diabetes?
Abdominal pain, Enuresis (urinary incontinence), Fatigue, Weight loss
27
What is the most common age for onset of Type 1 Diabetes?
Early Adolescence
28
What two drugs can result in hypertensive crisis?
Phenelzine and Pseudoephedrine This can occur within 2 weeks of discontinuation and can be fatal.
29
What group of drugs can be given for pre-operative sedation?
Benzodiazepines Midazolam can be given 5-10 mins pre procedure.
30
What are signs of lithium toxicity?
Nausea & vomiting Muscle twitching Tremor Cramping Ataxia
31
What are the signs of digoxin toxicity?
Confusion Irregular pulse Loss of appetite Nausea Vomiting Diarrhoea Vision changes- yellow vision Blind spots Blurred vision
32
Which antiemetic is given for nausea and vomiting in palliative care?
Metoclopramide
33
Which benzodiazepine is given for anticipatory nausea and vomiting for chemotherapy?
Lorazepam
34
What are the consequences of not treating anaemia?
This may lead to heart failure as the heart has to pump harder and faster to compensate for decreased oxygen levels.
35
How is Giardiasis contracted?
By drinking water contaminated with the Giardia parasite or through direct contact.
36
What does the sputum of patients with heart failure, oedema and fluid overload look like?
Pink, frothy sputum
37
What does the sputum of patients with shortness of breath, chest pain and coughing up blood look like?
Red stained sputum
38
For whom is sodium citrate not suitable?
Men (refer) Fluid retention Lithium (body retains lithium and causes toxicity) Cautioned in pregnancy
39
Which OTC antiemetic is not licensed for the prevention of motion sickness? Options: A) Cinnarizine B) Meclozine C) Prochlorperazine D) Promethazine hydrochloride E) Promethazine teocla
C) Prochlorperazine
40
What are symptoms of hypoglycaemia?
Sweating Pallor Irritability Hunger Lack of coordination Sleepiness Trembling Palpitations
41
What are symptoms of hyperglycaemia?
Dry mouth Increased thirst Weakness Headache Blurred vision Frequent urination
42
How can measles present itself?
Cold-like symptoms, conjunctivitis, cough, irritability, and small, greyish irregular lesions surrounded by an erythematous base on the inside of the cheeks. These symptoms followed after 3-5 days by a maculopapular rash behind the ears, then spreading down the body and fading by the third day.
43
How often should penciclovir 1% cream be applied for the treatment of cold sores?
8 times a day
44
What are the restrictions for driving for patients with epilepsy?
They can resume driving if they have been seizure free for a year.
45
Which ethnic origin requires the test to detect for the HLA-B\*1502 allele?
Patients of Southeast Asian descent The HLA-B\*1502 allele is highly associated with the outcome of carbamazepine-induced Steven-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis.
46
What vitamin deficiencies can Orlistat cause?
It can reduce the absorption of fat soluble vitamins: vitamins A, D, E, K and beta-carotene. (Most likely to be deficient in Vitamin A) It is important when taking Orlistat that the patient is on a low fat diet. If there is no fat in a meal or if a meal is missed then the dose should be omitted. They should only continue treatment beyond 12 weeks if the weight loss has exceeded 5%.
47
What are the side effects of dipyridamole?
Feeling sick (nausea), diarrhoea, vomiting, headaches
48
What is the dose of paracetamol for a 6 year old?
Paracetamol 250mg QDS
49
What Act protects you when reporting your concerns?
The Public Disclosure Act
50
What is the recommended duration for a Schedule 2 Controlled Drug Veterinary Med?
Good practice for only 28 days treatment
51
Your duty of confidentiality applies to all patients regardless of age- true or false?
True
52
A potential adverse effect of warfarin is calciphylaxis
Monitor for any painful skin rashes
53
What dose of Ibuprofen should be given to a 4 year old?
7.5ml TDS
54
Which diabetic med has an MHRA alert regarding life-threatening cases of DKA?
Canagliflozin
55
If a patient is confirmed to not be under the Pregnancy Prevention Programme (PPP), then how much Isotretinoin can be supplied?
More than 30 days can be supplied
56
Fostair Nexthaler needs to be kept in the fridge- True or False?
False- the Nexthaler does not need to be kept in the fridge. But the OG Fostair does.
57
What is given to treat nocturnal enuresis?
1) Enuresis alarm 2) Desmopressin (over the age of 5) and gradually withdraw 3) Desmopressin + oxybutynin hydrochloride/ tolterodine tartrate 4) Imipramine hydrochloride (withdraw gradually)
58
Which antacid can cause black stools?
Bismuth subsalicylate
59
Which drug does not cause xerostomia (dry mouth)? 1) chlorphenamine 2) dosulepin 3) doxazosin 4) gliclazide 5) oxybutynin
4) Gliclazide
60
What is the maximum quantity of Migraleve that can be taken in 24 hours?
Two pink and six yellow tablets
61
What are precipitating factors for acute otitis externa?
Diabetes Ear trauma Use of hearing aids Swimming