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Past Paper Mistakes > PAST PAPERS > Flashcards

PAST PAPERS Flashcards

1
Q

Drug that potentially could cause fall

A

Gliclazide

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2
Q

What antibiotic does ciclosporin have an interaction with?

A

Clarithromycin

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3
Q

When should lithium levels be taken?

A

12 hours post dose

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4
Q

What class of drugs can cause an increase in creatinine?

A

NSAIDs

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5
Q

What colour does rifampicin turn urine?

A

Orange-red

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6
Q

What bacterium can cause the exacerbation of COPD?

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

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7
Q

What antibiotic is usually given instead of amoxicillin for pen-allergic patients?

A

Doxycycline

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8
Q

What dose of paracetamol should be given to a 4 and a half year old?

A

240mg every 4-6 hours

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9
Q

If a patient is having an acute psychotic episode, which antipsychotic should be given?

A

Olanzapine 10mg OD

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10
Q

What dose of ibuprofen should be given to a 3 year old?

A

100mg TDS

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11
Q

If a child presents with a thread-like object in their faeces and is scratching their bottom, OTC product should be given?

A

Ovex (mebendazole) for the whole family

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12
Q

If a patient has CAP and C.difficile, which antibiotic should be given?

A

Vancomycin

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13
Q

If a patient has gout, what OTC product do they need to buy off-license?

A

Feminax

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14
Q

What anti diabetic medication has haematuria as one of its adverse drug reactions?

A

Pioglitazone

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15
Q

Of the antihypertensives, which drug is most likely to cause postural hypotension?

A

Doxazosin

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16
Q

If patient is taking Madopar capsules, what formulation can they be switched to if they’re struggling to swallow caps?

A

Switch to dispersible tablets (Opening caps is unlicensed)

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17
Q

What are symptoms of Reye’s syndrome?

A

Vomiting, loss of energy, drowsiness, rapid breathing, seizures

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18
Q

What is the reversal agent for dabigatran?

A

Idarucizamab

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19
Q

What risk is presented by NOACs but not LMWH?

A

Epidural haematoma

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20
Q

Which NSAID provides the lowest vascular risk?

A

Ibuprofen

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21
Q

What is the licensed age for codeine?

A

12 years

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22
Q

People of what descent have ultra fast metabolism of codeine to form morphine?

A

Middle Eastern and African/Ethiopian descent

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23
Q

What is the first line treatment for an acute attack of gout?

A

NSAIDs, if contraindicated- Colchicine

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24
Q

“Paracetamol can be given before live vaccine immunisations.” True or False?

A

False. Giving paracetamol before live vaccines may lower the immune response.

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25
Q

“Two live vaccines can be given parenterally on the same day.”

A

True. Ideally can be given on the same day. If this is not possible, then separate vaccines by 4 weeks. The parenteral/intranasal administration of live vaccines is not thought to affect oral live vaccines.

26
Q

What are symptoms of Type 1 Diabetes?

A

Abdominal pain, Enuresis (urinary incontinence), Fatigue, Weight loss

27
Q

What is the most common age for onset of Type 1 Diabetes?

A

Early Adolescence

28
Q

What two drugs can result in hypertensive crisis?

A

Phenelzine and Pseudoephedrine This can occur within 2 weeks of discontinuation and can be fatal.

29
Q

What group of drugs can be given for pre-operative sedation?

A

Benzodiazepines Midazolam can be given 5-10 mins pre procedure.

30
Q

What are signs of lithium toxicity?

A

Nausea & vomiting Muscle twitching Tremor Cramping Ataxia

31
Q

What are the signs of digoxin toxicity?

A

Confusion Irregular pulse Loss of appetite Nausea Vomiting Diarrhoea Vision changes- yellow vision Blind spots Blurred vision

32
Q

Which antiemetic is given for nausea and vomiting in palliative care?

A

Metoclopramide

33
Q

Which benzodiazepine is given for anticipatory nausea and vomiting for chemotherapy?

A

Lorazepam

34
Q

What are the consequences of not treating anaemia?

A

This may lead to heart failure as the heart has to pump harder and faster to compensate for decreased oxygen levels.

35
Q

How is Giardiasis contracted?

A

By drinking water contaminated with the Giardia parasite or through direct contact.

36
Q

What does the sputum of patients with heart failure, oedema and fluid overload look like?

A

Pink, frothy sputum

37
Q

What does the sputum of patients with shortness of breath, chest pain and coughing up blood look like?

A

Red stained sputum

38
Q

For whom is sodium citrate not suitable?

A

Men (refer) Fluid retention Lithium (body retains lithium and causes toxicity) Cautioned in pregnancy

39
Q

Which OTC antiemetic is not licensed for the prevention of motion sickness? Options: A) Cinnarizine B) Meclozine C) Prochlorperazine D) Promethazine hydrochloride E) Promethazine teocla

A

C) Prochlorperazine

40
Q

What are symptoms of hypoglycaemia?

A

Sweating

Pallor

Irritability

Hunger

Lack of coordination

Sleepiness

Trembling

Palpitations

41
Q

What are symptoms of hyperglycaemia?

A

Dry mouth Increased thirst Weakness Headache Blurred vision Frequent urination

42
Q

How can measles present itself?

A

Cold-like symptoms, conjunctivitis, cough, irritability, and small, greyish irregular lesions surrounded by an erythematous base on the inside of the cheeks. These symptoms followed after 3-5 days by a maculopapular rash behind the ears, then spreading down the body and fading by the third day.

43
Q

How often should penciclovir 1% cream be applied for the treatment of cold sores?

A

8 times a day

44
Q

What are the restrictions for driving for patients with epilepsy?

A

They can resume driving if they have been seizure free for a year.

45
Q

Which ethnic origin requires the test to detect for the HLA-B*1502 allele?

A

Patients of Southeast Asian descent The HLA-B*1502 allele is highly associated with the outcome of carbamazepine-induced Steven-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis.

46
Q

What vitamin deficiencies can Orlistat cause?

A

It can reduce the absorption of fat soluble vitamins: vitamins A, D, E, K and beta-carotene. (Most likely to be deficient in Vitamin A) It is important when taking Orlistat that the patient is on a low fat diet. If there is no fat in a meal or if a meal is missed then the dose should be omitted. They should only continue treatment beyond 12 weeks if the weight loss has exceeded 5%.

47
Q

What are the side effects of dipyridamole?

A

Feeling sick (nausea), diarrhoea, vomiting, headaches

48
Q

What is the dose of paracetamol for a 6 year old?

A

Paracetamol 250mg QDS

49
Q

What Act protects you when reporting your concerns?

A

The Public Disclosure Act

50
Q

What is the recommended duration for a Schedule 2 Controlled Drug Veterinary Med?

A

Good practice for only 28 days treatment

51
Q

Your duty of confidentiality applies to all patients regardless of age- true or false?

A

True

52
Q

A potential adverse effect of warfarin is calciphylaxis

A

Monitor for any painful skin rashes

53
Q

What dose of Ibuprofen should be given to a 4 year old?

A

7.5ml TDS

54
Q

Which diabetic med has an MHRA alert regarding life-threatening cases of DKA?

A

Canagliflozin

55
Q

If a patient is confirmed to not be under the Pregnancy Prevention Programme (PPP), then how much Isotretinoin can be supplied?

A

More than 30 days can be supplied

56
Q

Fostair Nexthaler needs to be kept in the fridge- True or False?

A

False- the Nexthaler does not need to be kept in the fridge. But the OG Fostair does.

57
Q

What is given to treat nocturnal enuresis?

A

1) Enuresis alarm 2) Desmopressin (over the age of 5) and gradually withdraw 3) Desmopressin + oxybutynin hydrochloride/ tolterodine tartrate 4) Imipramine hydrochloride (withdraw gradually)

58
Q

Which antacid can cause black stools?

A

Bismuth subsalicylate

59
Q

Which drug does not cause xerostomia (dry mouth)? 1) chlorphenamine 2) dosulepin 3) doxazosin 4) gliclazide 5) oxybutynin

A

4) Gliclazide

60
Q

What is the maximum quantity of Migraleve that can be taken in 24 hours?

A

Two pink and six yellow tablets

61
Q

What are precipitating factors for acute otitis externa?

A

Diabetes Ear trauma Use of hearing aids Swimming

Past Paper Mistakes (6 decks)

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