Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Past Paper Mistakes > On Track > Flashcards

On Track Flashcards

1
Q

MHRA Pioglitazone

A

MHRA has issued a safety alert for increased risk of heart failure linked with pioglitazone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MHRA Empagliflozin

A

MHRA has issued a safety alert for increased risk of diabetic ketoacidosis linked with empagliflozin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MHRA Insulin

A

MHRA has issued a safety alert for increased risk of severe harm and death due to withdrawing insulin from pen devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Generalised Anxiety Disorder

A

Generalised anxiety disorder is characterised by persistent excessive and inappropriate anxiety on most days for at least 6 months. The anxiety is not restricted to a specific situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Agoraphobia

A

Agoraphobia is where a person becomes afraid of places or situations from which escape might be difficult.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PTSD

A

Post-traumatic stress disorder usually occurs after exposure to a traumatic event which involved actual or threatened death, or serious injury or threats to the physical integrity of self or others. The person responds with intense fear, helplessness or horror. Sufferers can re-experience symptoms (flashbacks) and avoid situations associated with the trauma. This condition usually occurs within 6 months of the traumatic event.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Crohn’s disease

A

The chronic history, loose stools, weight loss and raised inflammatory markers are suggestive of Crohn’s disease. Further specialist investigations are required for this patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Coeliac disease

A

The recurrent abdominal pain, loose and pale stools, together with poor growth, are suggestive of coeliac disease. Further specialist investigations are required for this patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Form written on prescription for nasal drops

A

Narist. is the latin term for nasal drops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Form written on prescription for ointment

A

Unguentum is the latin word for ointment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Digoxin and quinine

A

Plasma concentration of digoxin increased by quinine. Nausea and vomiting may be early signs of an excessive dose of digoxin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pimozide and ketoconazole

A

This combination is very dangerous as pimozide is a CYP3A4 enzyme substrate and ketoconazole is a potent inhibitor of CYP3A4 leading to a marked increase in pimozide serum levels. This can cause ventricular arrhythmias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Sildenafil and isosorbide mononitrate

A

Sildenafil may markedly increase the hypotensive effect of isosorbide mononitrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Epigastric pain

A

Gastric ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Central or right lower quadrant pain

A

Appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Left lower quadrant pain

A

Diverticulitis and irritable bowel syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Loin area

A

Renal colic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why is lactulose used for hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Through its mechanism of action lactulose prevents the reabsorption of ammonia and other toxins from faecal matter in the gut which can cause hepatic encephalopathy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Phenytoin-miconazole (Daktarin oral gel)

A

Miconazole enhances anticonvulsant effect of phenytoin (plasma concentration enhanced) although with topical use, the risk is lower.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which drug can decrease the INR of a patient on warfarin?

A

Phytomenadione- vitamin K which antagonises the vitamin K antagonist warfarin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Symptoms of cystitis

A

Painful to urinate- burning, stinging type of pain.
Feels like she needs to urinate frequently but is only passing small amounts of urine.
Urine is quite dark and smells strongly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Trichomoniasis

A

Sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by a tiny parasite called Trichomonas vaginalis (TV).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Symptoms of trichomoniasis

A

Abnormal vaginal discharge that may be thick, thin or frothy and yellow-green in colour
Producing more discharge than normal, which may also have an unpleasant fishy smell
Soreness, swelling and itching around the vagina – sometimes the inner thighs also become itchy
pain or discomfort when passing urine or having sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Inward growth on the sole of the foot, with tiny black dots on its surface

A

Verruca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Recommended check points for avoiding prescribing errors

A

Right medicine, right patient, right dose, right route, right time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Enoxaparin

A

Enoxaparin can raise potassium levels due to it inhibiting aldosterone secretion. This is particularly in patients with diabetes mellitus, chronic renal failure, pre-existing metabolic acidosis, taking medicinal products known to increase potassium. Plasma potassium should be monitored regularly especially in patients at risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Supply order for midwife

A

It must contain the occupation of the midwife
It must contain name of the patient for which the controlled drug is being obtained
It must contain the total quantity of drug to be obtained
It must contain the signature of an appropriate medical officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which patients should avoid combined oral contraceptives due to arterial disease risk factors?

A

Under risk factors for arterial disease - only migraine as described is an avoid criteria.

Patients with migraine with aura are at an increased risk of stroke and should not take combined contraceptives because of the increased risk of stroke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Symptoms of pyelonephritis

A

Dysuria, fever and flank pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Threadworm in pregnancy

A

Anthelmintics are not recommended during pregnancy and so the patient should be given advice regarding hygiene measure only, which should be followed for six weeks.
Advise her to maintain hygiene measures for six weeks (e.g. cut finger nails and launder bedding and towels on a daily basis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Symptoms of thyrotoxicosis

A

weight loss, palpitations (associated with atrial fibrillation), insomnia, and diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Symptoms of coeliac disease

A

abdominal pain, foul smelling steatorrhoea (fatty stools due to malabsorption), weight loss and dermatitis herpetiformis (a type of skin rash that is itchy and has blisters that burst when scratched).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Maximum interval the responsible pharmacist should leave for reviewing the pharmacy procedures

A

Standard operating procedures (SOPs) should be reviewed at least every 2 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How long should the Responsible Pharmacist record be kept for from the date of the last entry?

A

The Responsible Pharmacist record should be kept for 5 years from the last day to which the record relates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How long should the CD register should be kept for from the date of last entry?

A

CD registers should be kept for 2 years from the date of last entry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Vitamin D in renal impairment

A

Vitamin D, colecalciferol, is the non-activated form of vitamin D. It is activated in the kidneys, so if a patient has reduced renal function then the activated form (alfacalcidol) should be given instead of colecalciferol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Treatment of iron overload

A

Indicated for the treatment of chronic iron overload when desferrioxamine is contraindicated or inadequate (with non-transfusion-dependent thalassaemia syndromes).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Mycophenolate counselling

A

As a precautionary measure for male patients, it is now recommended that either the patient or their female partner use reliable contraception during treatment with mycophenolate medicines and for at least 90 days after stopping.
Female patients of childbearing age receiving mycophenolate should always use contraception - 2 methods of effective contraception are preferred.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Statins in pregnancy

A

Statins should be avoided in pregnancy (discontinue 3 months before attempting to conceive) as congenital anomalies have been reported and the decreased synthesis of cholesterol possibly affects fetal development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which drug used in hypertension can cause post-menopausal bleeding as a side effect?

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which drug used in hypertension can cause insomnia as a side effect?

A

Captopril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Prescriber emergency supply

A

In an emergency, a doctor or dentist maybe supplied with a Sch 2 or 3 CD on the undertaking that a requisition will be furnished within 24 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The invoice for Sativex® is recommended by NICE to be retained for this length of years for the purpose of HM Revenue and Custom.

A

Sativex is a Sch 4 part I, thus no requirement to retain invoice. However, NICE recommends to retain for 6 years for HM Tax and Custom purposes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Repeats of private prescriptions

A

If a private prescription does not state the number of times the item maybe repeated, it can be repeated once, except if it is for contraception where it can be repeated five times.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which antiplatelet has anti-pyretic properties?

A

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which drug can result in gingival hyperplasia (swollen gums)?

A

Ciclosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Hydroxychloroquine

A

Associated with retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which class of drugs can mask the symptoms of hypoglycaemia?

A

Beta-blockers

Be wary if patient taking sulphonylureas or insulin where there is greater risk of hypos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Beta blockers

A

Bradycardia

Cold extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Statin for secondary prevention of CVD

A

Annual monitoring of cholesterol required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Disposing of paracetamol tablets

A

Paracetamol tablets should be disposed of in a medicines disposal bin, how they were purchased does not change the disposal process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Emergency supply of Cilest®

A

21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Emergency supply of Zoely

A

Zoely is a 28-day preparation with 24 active tablets and 4 inactive tablets, rather than a seven day tablet free interval. Under emergency supply regulations, a full cycle of a contraceptive may be supplied so in this case 28 days would be classed as the full cycle even with the inactive tablets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Rifaximin for travellers diarrhoea

A

200 mg every 8 hours for 3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Owings

A

Owings must be dispensed within the validity of a prescription, which is 6 months for NHS prescription.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

CD owings

A

The appropriate date of a NHS CD prescription is either the signature date or the date indicated by the prescriber as a date before which the medicine should not be supplied, whichever is the later. The 28 day validity of a CD prescription runs from the appropriate date.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Private scripts owings

A

Owings must be dispensed within the validity of a prescription, which is 6 months for this prescription. The appropriate date of a private prescription is the signature date.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Carbamazepine and erythromycin

A

Plasma concentration of carbamazepine is increased by erythromycin thus increased risk of carbamazepine toxicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Amiodarone and simvastatin

A

There is an increased risk of myopathy when simvastatin is given with amiodarone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Warfarin and fluconazole

A

Anticoagulant effect of warfarin increased with fluconazole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Theophylline and disulfiram

A

Metabolism of theophylline is inhibited by disulfiram and therefore there is an increased risk of theophylline toxicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Type of headache frequently seen in elderly women

A

Temporal arteritis is the only condition listed which is strongly associated with advancing age and is also more common in women.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which headache develops secondary to infection?

A

Sinusitis occurs as a result of a previous infection, whereas the headache associated with meningitis is one of the symptoms of an infection itself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which headache is most closely associated with children?

A

Meningitis is most closely associated with young children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Headache that is associated with nasal congestion and excruciating attacks of pain one side of the head.

A

Cluster headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Headache where the pain is occipital

A

Sub-arachnoid haemorrhage

Sinusitis, cluster headache, migraine and temporal arteritis are associated with frontal headache; meningitis, tension-type headache and medication overuse headache are more generalised in nature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

A parenteral drug misuser is seen in the clinic.

Which vaccine is indicated for this patient?

A

Hepatitis A vaccine

68
Q

What renal function is alendronic acid contraindicated below?

A

35ml/min

69
Q

Signs and symptoms of otitis media in children

A

Irritability, crying, fever and pain

70
Q

Withdrawal of baclofen

A

Serious life-threatening side-effects such as hallucinations and fever result from sudden withdrawal of baclofen therapy. Patients must be warned not to suddenly stop taking this medication.

71
Q

Max dose of ibuprofen

A

The maximum dose of Ibuprofen that can be prescribed as per BNF is 600 mg q.d.s. Which equates to a maximum daily dose of 2.4 grams.

72
Q

Carbamazepine dosing

A

Carbamazepine is an enzyme autoinducer and thus a lower loading dose is required. Carbamazepine induces its own metabolism and so the maintenance dose is higher than the initial doses

73
Q

Treating pneumocystis infection in patients who cannot tolerate co-trimoxazole

A

Atovaquone is licensed for the treatment of mild to moderate pneumocystis infection in patients who cannot tolerate co-trimoxazole.

If it is severe, then hydrocortisone, pentamidine isetionate or prednisolone could be given

74
Q

Theophylline and smoking

A

Smoking may increase theophylline clearance and increased doses of theophylline are therefore required.

75
Q

Clozapine and smoking

A

In cases of sudden cessation of smoking, the plasma clozapine concentration may be increased, thus leading to an increase in adverse effects.

76
Q

Pirfenidine and smoking

A

Smoking has the potential to induce hepatic enzyme production and thus increase medicinal product clearance and decrease exposure.

77
Q

Ropinirole and smoking

A

Smoking is known to induce CYP1A2 metabolism, therefore if patients stop or start smoking during treatment with ropinirole, dose adjustment may be required.

78
Q

OTC age for chloramphenamine

A

Chlorphenamine is licensed for use in children aged 1 year and above but not for use in coughs and colds.

79
Q

Fosavance®

A

Alendronic acid and colecalciferol

80
Q

Teysuno®

A

Tegafur, gimeracil and oteracil

81
Q

Triapin®

A

Ramipril and felodipine

82
Q

Targinact®

A

Oxycodone and naloxone

83
Q

Mycophenolate contraception

A

As a precautionary measure for male patients, it is now recommended that either the patient or their female partner use reliable contraception during treatment with mycophenolate medicines and for at least 90 days after stopping. Female patients of childbearing potential receiving mycophenolate should always use contraception and for up to 6 weeks after stopping treatment.

84
Q

Private CD scripts

A

Private prescriptions for Schedule 2 CDs should be sent to the relevant NHS agency.

85
Q

Vet CD scripts

A

Veterinary prescriptions for Schedule 2 CDs should be retained for 5 years, there is no requirement to submit them to the relevant NHS agency.

86
Q

NHS CD scripts

A

NHS prescriptions for Schedule 2 CDs should be sent to the relevant NHS agency.

87
Q

Requisition for a Schedule 2 CD from a registered doctor

A

Requisitions from doctors for Schedule 2 CDs should be sent to the relevant NHS agency.

88
Q

Proguanil in pregnancy

A

Can be given in the usual doses during pregnancy as benefit of prophylaxis in malaria outweighs risk.

89
Q

CAP in pregnancy

A

Amoxicillin is indicated in low-severity community acquired pneumonia. Amoxicillin is appropriate to use in breastfeeding according to the BNF. Although clarithromycin can be indicated in some instances for low-severity community acquired pneumonia, the BNF states that it should be avoided in breastfeeding.

90
Q

Side effect of desmopressin

A

Hyponatraemia

91
Q

Which items are not accepted by pharmacies as part of the disposal of medicinal waste scheme?

A

The pharmacy will, if required by NHS England or the waste contractor, sort them into solids (including ampoules and vials), liquids and aerosols, and the local NHS England team will make arrangements for a waste contractor to collect the medicines from pharmacies at regular intervals.

92
Q

What is herpes labialis?

A

Oral herpes

93
Q

Misoprostol

A

Diarrhoea may occasionally be severe and require withdrawal, reduced by giving single doses not exceeding 200 micrograms and by avoiding magnesium-containing antacids.

94
Q

Legal requirements for a requisition of a controlled drug

A

Name of the recipient
Purpose of the requisition
Signature of the recipient
Total quantity of the drug

95
Q

Above what strength of insulin is considered a high strength insulin?

A

100 units/mL

96
Q

You have just finished using a stock bottle of methadone in the pharmacy. You are unable to pour anything out of the bottle, but you can see that there are still traces inside.
In what way should you deal with the disposal of the remaining liquid inside the bottle?

A

Rinse the bottle with water and pour into a denaturing kit

97
Q

Contact sensitisation is a risk with this drug

A

Chlorpromazine

98
Q

How do bisphosphonates work?

A

Bisphosphonates are adsorbed onto hydroxyapatite crystals in bone, slowing both their rate of growth and dissolution, and therefore reducing the rate of bone turnover. This in turn can help prevent osteoporosis.

99
Q

6-in-1 vaccine

A

Given as a single injection (at 8 weeks, 12 weeks and 16 weeks) containing vaccines to protect against six separate diseases: diphtheria; tetanus; whooping cough (pertussis); polio; Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib); and hepatitis B.

100
Q

Rubella during pregnancy

A

Rubella usually only becomes a serious concern if a pregnant woman catches the infection during the first 20 weeks of her pregnancy. This is because the rubella virus can disrupt the development of the baby and cause a wide range of health problems.

101
Q

This medication is used at a continuing dose of 1 mg daily in the management of Parkinson’s disease.

A

Rasagiline

102
Q

Early treatment with this drug can delay the need for levodopa therapy in Parkinson’s disease.

A

Selegiline

(Note rasagiline is not indicated for delaying the need for levodopa therapy although it is a monoamine oxidase B inhibitor as well)

103
Q

This drug may exacerbate oedema and because of this is cautioned for use in congestive heart failure.

A

Amantadine is cautioned in congestive heart failure as it may exacerbate oedema.

104
Q

This Parkinsons drug may cause hair loss as a side effect.

A

Hair loss is a side effect of treatment with selegiline hydrochloride.

105
Q

Gout

A

Commonly affects the large toe but may also affect the ankles, heels, knees, wrists, fingers and elbows. It commonly occurs at night and may last 3-10 days.

106
Q

RP record

A

If the record is kept electronically it needs to be backed up, kept on the pharmacy premises, and available for GPhC inspection if required.

107
Q

How long does the RP record need to be retained for?

A

5 years

108
Q

How long should signed orders be retained for?

A

Signed orders should be kept for two years from the date of supply.

109
Q

How long should private prescriptions be retained for?

A

Private prescription records should be kept for two years from the date of dispensing.

110
Q

Intermediate steroids

A

Prednisolone and triamselone

111
Q

Prednisolone 5mg=

A

Hydrocortisone 20mg

112
Q

Causes of secondary diabetes

A

Steroid induced

Pancreatic damage

113
Q

Long acting insulin dosing

A

Twice daily determir (not as long acting)

Once daily levemir

114
Q

Rapid acting insulins

A

Just before meals

115
Q

Long acting insulins

A

Lantus- glargine
Levemir- detemir
Tresiba- degludec (ultra long acting)

116
Q

Glibenclamide

A

Long acting sulphonylurea

117
Q

SGLT-2 inhibitor

A

Dapagliflozin

Inhibits the reabsorption of glucose from the renal tubules

118
Q

Acarbose

A

Alpha glucosidase

119
Q

Humalog

A

Insulin lispro- rapid acting

120
Q

Linezolid and MAOI

A

Linezolid is a reversible, non-selective inhibitor of monoamine oxidase; however, at the doses used for antibacterial therapy, it does not exert an anti-depressive effect.

121
Q

Fentanyl ‘50’ patch

A

equivalent to 120 mg daily of morphine salt

122
Q

Treating migraines in patients with ischaemic heart disease

A

Aspirin and metoclopramide could be used to relieve the symptoms of a migraine: pain and vomiting, respectively. Serotonin 5HT1 agonists (i.e. the ‘triptans’) are contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease.

123
Q

Bromocriptine

A

Hypotension- especially during the first couple of days

124
Q

Causes of bleeding gums

A

Diabetes, poor oral hygiene, pregnancy and smoking

125
Q

Lower abdominal pain when taking the pill

A

Ectopic pregnancy

126
Q

Buprenorphine

A

Schedule 3

127
Q

First-line treatment option for uncomplicated chlamydia.

A

Azithromycin 1g STAT

128
Q

Flucloxacillin

A

May cause cholestatic jaundice at any time during treatment and up to two months post treatment.

129
Q

Yasmin

A

Can cause vaginal discharge
Contains drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 30 mcg
It is a monophasic 21-day preparation
It may cause sexual dysfunction

130
Q

SSRIs and epilepsy

A

SSRIs lower seizure threshold

131
Q

Methadone

A

Schedule 2

132
Q

Ergotamine

A

Used in cluster headaches

Contraindicated in inadequately controlled hypertension

133
Q

Benzodiazepines contraindications

A 
Acute pulmonary insufficiency
Marked neuromuscular respiratory weakness
Phobic states
Sleep apnoea syndrome
Unstable myasthenia gravis
134
Q

Monitoring of azathioprine

A

Consider measuring TPMT activity before starting azathioprine, mercaptopurine, or tioguanine therapy
Monitor full blood count weekly (more frequently with higher doses or if severe renal impairment) for first 4 weeks (manufacturer advises weekly monitoring for 8 weeks but evidence of practical value unsatisfactory), thereafter reduce frequency of monitoring to at least every 3 months.
Blood tests and monitoring for signs of myelosuppression are essential in long-term treatment.

135
Q

Treating muscle cramps

A

Quinine

Baclofen

136
Q

Excessive drooling of saliva

A

Glycopyrronium bromide- good for patients with cognitive impairments due to fewer CNS effects
Can be referred for botulinum toxin A

137
Q

Tetrabenazine

A

Control movement disorders in Huntington’s chorea

Can also be given for tardive dyskinesia if switching or withdrawing the antipsychotic drug

138
Q

Diabetes and the DVLA- for those on insulin and on drugs that can cause hypos (e.g. sulphonylureas)

A

If you have more than one severe hypo while awake in 12 months you must stop driving and tell the DVLA.
If you have even one severe hypo while driving, you must stop driving and tell the DVLA straight away.
If you usually check your blood glucose, check them within two hours of driving – however short the trip. On longer journeys, you must check them every two hours.

139
Q

Epilepsy and the DVLA

A

Epilepsy or multiple unprovoked seizures: Must not drive and must notify DVLA. Driving must cease for 12 months from the date of the most recent seizure

First unprovoked epileptic seizure/ isolated seizure: Must not drive and must notify DVLA. Driving must cease 6 months from the date of the seizure, or for 12 months if there is an underlying causative factor that may increase risk.

140
Q

Tetracyclines in pregnancy

A

1st trimester- effects on skeletal development
2nd + 3rd trimesters- discolouration of the child’s teeth, and maternal hepatotoxicity has been reported with large parenteral doses.

141
Q

Patients <50kg taking paracetamol

A

patients weighing <50 kg should be monitored for signs of toxicity if using paracetamol and the max daily dose may be reduced to 500 mg qds to help prevent toxicity.

142
Q

Which drug must be used in caution in patients with sensitivity to sulphonamides?

A

Sumatriptan

143
Q

Senna onset of action

A

8 to 12 hours

144
Q

Bisacodyl onset of action

A

10 to 12 hours

145
Q

Heparin toxicity antidote

A

Protamine sulfate

146
Q

Methotrexate and pregnancy

A

Sexually active male patients or their female partners are recommended to use reliable contraception during treatment of the male patient and for at least 6 months after cessation of methotrexate. Men should not donate semen during therapy or for 6 months following discontinuation of methotrexate.

147
Q

Which drug is a potent uterine stimulant and may be teratogenic?

A

Misoprostol

148
Q

How long after treatment cessation can flucloxacillin cause cholestatic jaundice?

A

8 weeks

149
Q

Which antiepileptic drug may cause visual field defects?

A

Vigabatrin

150
Q

Which SSRIs are licensed for PTSD?

A

Sertraline and paroxetine

151
Q

When to avoid SSRIs

A

In a manic phase of bipolar disorder.
Taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), or who have recently discontinued a MAOI.
Taking pimozide.
With uncontrolled epilepsy or new onset seizures.

152
Q

Treating impetigo

A

Topical antiseptic such as hydrogen peroxide 1% cream
Offer an oral antibiotic for patients with bullous impetigo, or with impetigo who are systemically unwell or at high risk of complications.

First choice topical antibiotic:
Fusidic acid 2%- Apply TDS for 5 to 7 days

First choice oral antibiotic:
Flucloxacillin- 500 mg QDS for 5 to 7 days

153
Q

Contraindications of amiodarone

A

Avoid in severe conduction disturbances (unless pacemaker fitted); avoid in sinus node disease (unless pacemaker fitted); iodine sensitivity; sino-atrial heart block (except in cardiac arrest); sinus bradycardia (except in cardiac arrest); thyroid dysfunction

154
Q

Which drug is contraindicated in a patient suffering with complete biliary obstruction?

A

Colestyramine is contraindicated in complete biliary obstruction as it NOT likely to be effective.

155
Q

Which medication is contraindicated in acute inflammation of the gall bladder?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

156
Q

Serious skin rashes when taking lamotrigine

A

Serious skin reactions including Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis have developed (especially in children); most rashes occur in the first 8 weeks.

157
Q

Which drug is licensed for use in narcolepsy?

A

Dexamfetamine sulfate

158
Q

Which drug is used for migraines (unlicensed)?

A

Valproic acid

159
Q

Use of which drug is contraindicated in patients who suffer with, or have a history of postural hypotension?

A

Tamsulosin hydrochloride- may cause a reduction in blood pressure. As such, it is contraindicated in those who suffer with postural hypotension.

160
Q

Use of higher dosages of which drug may cause photosensitisation, and as such, sunlight should be avoided

A

Chlorpromazine causes photosensitivity at higher doses

161
Q

Cluster headaches

A

Brief headaches around an eye with possible associated symptoms of unilateral photophobia, redness, lid swelling and nasal stuffiness. These are recurrent and could last for a couple of weeks.

162
Q

Sinus headaches

A

a dull, throbbing headache in the upper half of the face which is made worse on bending down. It can also be associated with halitosis and pain, swelling and tenderness around the eyes, cheeks and forehead.

163
Q

Which antidiabetic drug would you give after metformin if CV targets are not being met?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors e.g. dapagliflozin

164
Q

Which antidiabetic drug would you give after metformin if targets are not being met and the patient is obese?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors e.g. dapagliflozin

165
Q

Pancreatin

A

It is important to ensure adequate hydration at all times in patients receiving higher-strength preparations of this drug.

166
Q

Side effect of sucralfate

A

A bezoar is a solid mass of indigestible material that accumulates in the digestive tract, sometimes causing a blockage.

Past Paper Mistakes (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions