🦋 Flashcards

1
Q

Which anticonvulsive requires therapeutic monitoring of phenobarbital serum levels in addition to its own?

A- Carbamazepine
B- Clonazepam
C- Ethosuximide
D- Phenytoin
E- Primidone
A

E- Primidone

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2
Q

Which anticonvulsive is most likely to cause kidney stones?

A

Topiramate

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3
Q

Which antiepileptics are likely to cause hyponatraemia?

A

Carbamazepine
Eslicarbamazepine
Oxcarbamazepine
Sodium valproate

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4
Q

If patient reports a sore throat after carbimazole use, what blood test should be ordered?

A

Neutrophil count

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5
Q

Reasons to stop HRT therapy for further investigation

A

Severe abdominal pain
Swelling or pain in calf muscle
Sudden breathlessness
Prolonged headache

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6
Q

Counselling advice for GTN tablets

A

If symptoms don’t resolve after 3 doses, call an ambulance
May be used as prophylaxis before exercise
Discard 8 weeks after opening
Throbbing headache and flushing are common side effects

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7
Q

Aqueous creams

A

Aqueous creams as leave-on emollients may increase the risk of skin reactions

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8
Q

Who is the prophylaxis of meningococcal disease indicated for?

A

Those with prolonged close contact with a case of meningococcal disease

  • during the 7 days before onset of disease
  • if they had transient close contact and have been directly exposed to large respiratory droplets/secretions around the time of hospital admission
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9
Q

Appropriate antibiotic therapy for patient presenting with cut on arm. The wound is oozing yellow and crusty with localised erythema.

A

Flucloxacilin 500mg QDS for 7 days

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10
Q

Which lab test would confirm if a patient is suffering from a hypersensitivity reaction?

A

FBC and differential

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11
Q

At risk groups for seasonal influenza vaccines

A

Respiratory conditions- asthma (needing steroid inhaler or tabs), COPD (including emphysema and bronchitis)
Diabetes
Heart conditions
Being very overweight- BMI of 40 or above
CKD
Liver disease e.g. hepatitis
Neurological conditions e.g. Parkinson’s, MS
Learning disability
Problems with the spleen e.g. spleen removal or sickle cell disease
Weakened immune system e.g. due to AIDS or HIV or taking steroid tabs or chemo

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12
Q

How is the absolute bioavailability of a drug given as an oral extended release tablet determined?

A

By comparing it to the bioavailability of the parenteral solution of the drug given as IV bolus or IV infusion

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13
Q

What drug can cause weight loss, tachycardia and waking through the night due to stress?

A

Levothyroxine

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14
Q

How long should a child with measles stay off school from when the symptoms first appear?

A

4 days

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15
Q

Complications of measles

A

1 in 20 people experience ear infections

Other complications:
Bronchitis
Convulsions
Pneumonia
Encephalitis
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16
Q

MMR vaccine

A

May be administered by IM or SC injection.
Administered at 12 months, then a booster shot is given 3 years later.
May be given to children that have had a previous anaphylactic reaction to eggs.

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17
Q

Patients of Chinese ethinicity are at greatest risk for genetic polymorphisms in which CYP50 isoenzyme?

A

CYPD2D6

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18
Q

How long can doxycycline be used for the prophylaxis of malaria?

A

2 years

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19
Q

Diethyltoluamide (DEET) 20-50% in lotions, sprays, or roll-on formulations is safe and effective when applied to the skin of adults and children over 2 months of age. True or False?

A

True

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20
Q

Diethyltoluamide (DEET) 20-50% cannot be used during pregnancy and breast-feeding. True or False?

A

False

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21
Q

When sunscreen is needed in addition to DEET, DEET should be applied after the sunscreen. DEET reduces the SPF of sunscreen so a sunscreen should also be applied.

A

Mosquito nets impregnated with permethrin provide the most effective barrier protection against insects. Mats and vaporised insecticides are also useful.

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22
Q

If 24 month old baby has oral thrush, what OTC product can be given?

A

Daktarin oral gel

Suitable for aged 4 months and over.

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23
Q

Which inhaler is a LAMA that is effective for the management of COPD, but cannot be used for relief of acute bronchospasm?

A

Spiriva (tiotropium)

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24
Q

The CHM has advised that this inhaler should be introduced at a low dose and the effect properly monitored prior to dose increase.

A

Serevent (salmeterol)

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25
Q

Which inhaler provide short term relief in mild COPD. Its maximal effect occurs 30-60 mins after use.

A

Atrovent (Ipratropium)

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26
Q

What are symptoms of reactivation of latent TB?

A

Breathlessness, night sweats, fatigue and weight loss.

Anti-TNF therapies- esp. monoclonal antibody preparations- e.g. infliximab are associated with risk of reactivating TB. This usually occurs within 3-6 months of commencing infliximab.

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27
Q

What is the antibiotic used to treat pneumonia that is caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii (Pneumocystis carinii)?

A

Co-trimoxazole (can also be used prophylactically)

If CI, then atovaquone

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28
Q

Which antibiotic should not be given with isotretinoin?

A

Doxycycline

Isotretinoin increases the risk of benign intracranial hypertension when given with doxycycline.

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29
Q

Which drug can increase the likelihood of thrush and UTI episodes to occur?

A

Dapagliflozin

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30
Q

Which antidiabetic drug can increase the risk of lactic acidosis?

A

Metformin

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31
Q

Which drug can help with insulin resistance as it works by increasing insulin utilisation in the body, thereby helping her lose weight and reduce her insulin dose?

A

Metformin

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32
Q

Which antidiabetic drug should be avoided in chronic heart failure?

A

Pioglitazone

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33
Q

What use of amitriptyline is off-license?

A

Neuropathic pain

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34
Q

Which opioid is less suitable for prescribing?

A

Kaolin and Morphine Mixture, BP (Kaolin and Morphine Oral Suspension) is less suitable for prescribing.

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35
Q

Fluoxetine 10mg tablets

A

Unlicensed

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36
Q

Symptoms of mumps

A
Swelling of the parotid glands
headache
joint pain
feeling sick
dry mouth
mild abdominal pain
feeling tired
loss of appetite
a high temperature (fever) of 38C or above
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37
Q

Which antimuscarininc bronchodilators is licensed for twice daily use?

A

Aclidinium bromide

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38
Q

What are signs of anaphylaxis?

A

Difficulty breathing
Dizziness
Pale skin
Swelling of tongue

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39
Q

Questions to ask patient who comes in with primary dysmenorrhoea (period pain)

A

Age
Nature of pain
Onset of pain
Severity of pain

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40
Q

Pseudoephedrine

A

Dose: ONE tablet every 4-6hrs upto 4 times a day
It is licensed from 12 years old
It can cause sleep disturbances
Can be used in the manufacture of crystal methamphetamine
Each tablet has a strength of 60mg. Max OTC sale of 720mg (12 tabs).

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41
Q

Dioralyte sachets

A

Dissolve in 200ml of fresh water or freshly boiled and cooled water
Discard an hour after it’s been made up, or after 24 hours if kept in the fridge
Can be given to 3 months old and over
Dose: One sachet after each loose stool, can take upto 5 sachets in 24 hours.

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42
Q

What dose of paracetamol should be given to a 26 month old toddler?

A

7.5ml QDS PRN

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43
Q

What time gap would you recommend between hypromellose and lacrilube eye drops?

A

5 minutes

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44
Q

Which inhaler has a dose indicator that changes colour from green to red to show that the dose had been inhaled correctly?

A

Genuair

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45
Q

Which inhaler does not have a dose counter?

A

Easi-breathe

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46
Q

Preparations that do NOT contain which sugars can be classed as sugar free?

A

Fructose, glucose and sucrose

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47
Q

What is the mechanism of action of EllaOne?

A

Primary mechanism for ellaOne is inhibition or delay of ovulation

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48
Q

Driving and diabetes

A

Check your blood glucose no longer than 2 hours before driving

Check your blood every 2 hours if you’re on a long journey

Travel with sugary snacks and snacks with long-lasting carbs, like a cereal bar or banana

If you feel your levels are low:
Stop the car when it’s safe
Remove the keys from the ignition
Get out of the driver’s seat
Check your blood glucose and treat your hypo
Do not drive for 45 minutes after you start to feel better

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49
Q

What can the dispensing technician do before the RP comes into work?

A

DIspense prescriptions

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50
Q

What are referral points to a Dr for a patient who may have piles?

A

Sharp stabbing pain on defecation
Blood mixed in the stools, giving them a tarry red or black appearance
Symptoms present after 1 week OTC treatment
Haemorrhoid symptoms with nausea and vomiting

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51
Q

Side effects of Buscopan (hyoscine butylbromide)

A
Pupil Dilatation
Dry mouth
Urinary retention
Constipation
Blurred vision
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52
Q

Symptoms of digoxin toxicity

A
Diarrhoea
Nausea
Palpitations
Blurred vision
Yellow vision
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53
Q

Digoxin toxicity

A

Most common trigger: hypokalemia, which may occur as a result of diuretic therapy. Dosing errors are also a common cause of toxicity in the younger population.
Factors that increase the risk of digoxin toxicity include: Hypothyroidism/hyperthyroidism.

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54
Q

How long should a thermometer be placed under the tongue for an accurate oral temperature?

A

3-4 minutes

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55
Q

Cause of warts and veruccas

A

Infection of the skin with the human papilloma virus (HPV).

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56
Q

Treatment of warts/veruccas

A

Topical salicylic acid (15-50%) should be applied daily for up to 12 weeks

Cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen can be carried out for a maximum of 6 treatments

Without any treatment warts and verrucae may spontaneously resolve within two years.

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57
Q

What age group have the highest incidence of warts and veruccas?

A

16-18 year age group

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58
Q

How long do you have immunity from the Yellow Fever vaccine before requiring re-vaccination?

A

10 years

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59
Q

Which drug requires referral to hospital immediately if there is any redness, pain or swelling of the leg?

A

Tamoxifen

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60
Q

What parameter should be monitored 2 weeks after commencing Fluoxetine?

A

Assessment for signs of suicidal ideation

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61
Q

What is the MHRA alert on SSRIs?

A

Small increased risk of postpartum haemorrhage when used in the month before delivery

There is a small increased risk of congenital heart defects when taken during early pregnancy. If used during the third trimester there is a risk of neonatal withdrawal symptoms, and persistent pulmonary hypertension in the newborn has been reported.

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62
Q

Common symptoms of abrupt withdrawal of SSRIs

A
Gastro-intestinal disturbances
Headache
Anxiety
Dizziness
Paraesthesia
Electric shock sensation in the head, neck, and spine
Tinnitus
Sleep disturbances
Fatigue
Influenza-like symptoms
Sweating
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63
Q

Within how long can antidepressant withdrawal occur?

A

Within 5 days of stopping treatment.

The risk of withdrawal symptoms is increased if the antidepressant is stopped suddenly after regular administration for 8 weeks or more.

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64
Q

Which is the best research methodology for making evidence based clinical decisions, according to the Cochrane Collaboration?

A

Meta-analysis studies

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65
Q

Benzoyl peroxide

A

Adults and children over 12 years old
Takes around 4 weeks to start working
Not suitable for very bad acne with nodules (large, hard lumps that build up beneath the surface of the skin and can be painful) or cysts (large, pus-filled lumps that look similar to boils).
Can bleach or discolour your hair, as well as clothes, towels and bedding. Keep it away from hair and coloured fabrics.
Try to avoid strong sunlight while using benzoyl peroxide gel, wear sunscreen.

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66
Q

What can cause neutropenia in a patient?

A

Viral infection

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67
Q

Patient presents with scalp ringworm

A

If a pet is the source of the fungal infection, then it should be assessed and treated by a vet

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68
Q

What requires urgent referral in people with dyspepsia?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia

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69
Q

Advice with the COC

A

Blood pressure may increase

Studies also show that it decreases risk of ovarian and womb cancer, but can increase the risk of breast cancer

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70
Q

If a patient presents with sneezing, rhinorrhoea, congestion and itch and watery, red eyes, what medicine could help to relieve their symptoms?

A

Nasal beclometasone

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71
Q

Reporting your concerns

A

The Public Disclosure Act exists to protect you should you raise a concern

Failure to disclose concerns may constitute a failure of your own fitness to practice

You should keep a personal record of the concerns you have and who you have raised
them with

You should try to maintain confidentiality where appropriate when raising concerns

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72
Q

Handling of waste medicines returned to pharmacies in England

A

Liquid waste should not be decanted into a waste container

Waste should not be stored for longer than three months

All waste must be stored in a designated area away from medicines that are fit for use

No more than 5 cubic meters of hazardous waste can be stored at any one time

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73
Q

A prescription for a Veterinary Medicinal
Product (VMP) which is also a Schedule 2 Controlled Drug must be written on a Standardised Controlled drug form. True or False?

A

False

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74
Q

Advanced services provided by community pharmacies

A

Stoma Appliance Customisation
New Medicines Service
Flu Vaccination
Medicines Use Review

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75
Q

Drug Driving code

A

The new offence covers blood levels of specific medicines classified as Controlled Drugs in the body.

Drivers can invoke a specific defence, which covers Controlled Drugs taken in accordance with medical advice.

A separate offence exists of driving while impaired through drugs – and this applies to driving while impaired by any type of drug.

Cannabis is an example of a drug covered by the new legislation

According to the new Drug Driving offence legislation, the police DO NOT need to prove impairment case-by-case where a specified drug has been detected above the specified limit.

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76
Q

The contactable pharmacist may be the contactable pharmacist for more than one
pharmacy at the same time. True or False?

A

True

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77
Q

What can staff do while the RP is not physically present on the premises?

A

Accuracy checking

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78
Q

Concomitant use of clozapine and co-trimoxazole may result in what?

A

Bone marrow suppression

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79
Q

What medication is there legislation for that prohibits you from administering the medicine without instruction from an appropriate practitioner?

A

Soluble Insulin 100units/mL injection

Not legislation is required for:
Diazepam 10mg/2. 5mL rectal solution
Salbutamol 100mcg inhaler
Adrenaline 1mg/mL injection
Midazolam 5mg/mL buccal solution
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80
Q

Pharmacy record

A

RP must ensure it’s correctly mainained
Electronic copy must be kept for 5 days from the date it was first created
All pharmacy staff have the right to view this record
An entry can be made remotely as long as it fulfils all legal requirements.

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81
Q

CPDs

A

A minimum of nine relevant entries per year must be made
CPD entries can be stored securely online
CPD requirements apply equally to all pharmacy professionals
Handwritten records must be written in an approved format

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82
Q

What electrolyte imbalance can indapamide cause?

A

Hypomagnesaemia
Hypokalaemia
Hyponatraemia

Hypokalaemia is dangerous in severe cardiovascular disease and in patients also being treated with cardiac glycosides.
In hepatic impairment, hypokalaemia caused by diuretics can precipitate encephalopathy.

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83
Q

Why should thiazides and thiazide-like diuretics not be used to treat gestational diabetes?

A

May cause neonatal thrombocytopenia, bone marrow suppression, jaundice, electrolyte disturbances, and hypoglycaemia; placental perfusion may also be reduced. Stimulation of labour, uterine inertia, and meconium staining have also been reported.

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84
Q

To identify signs of agranulocytosis or neutropenia in patients taking clozapine, how often should this particular patient have his blood counts monitored?

A

Weekly leucocyte and differential blood counts for 18 weeks, then at least every 2 weeks and if clozapine continued and blood count stable after 1 year at least every 4 weeks (and 4 weeks after discontinuation)

If leucocyte count below 3000 /mm3 or if absolute neutrophil count below 1500 /mm3 discontinue permanently and refer to haematologist.

Patients who have a low white blood cell count because of benign ethnic neutropenia may be started on clozapine with the agreement of a haematologist.

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85
Q

In addition to agranulocytosis or neutropenia, what other adverse effects can occur?

A

Fatal myocarditis (most commonly in first 2 months) and cardiomyopathy reported. Persistent tachycardia especially in first 2 months should prompt observation for other indicators for myocarditis or cardiomyopathy.

Impairment of intestinal peristalsis, including constipation, intestinal obstruction, faecal impaction, and paralytic ileus, (including fatal cases) reported.

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86
Q

Clozapine dose adjustment

A

Clozapine dose adjustment might be necessary if smoking started or stopped during treatment.

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87
Q

Monitoring for clozapine

A

Monitor prolactin concentration at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and then yearly.
Annual cardiovascular health monitoring
Monitor leucocyte and neutrophil count
Blood lipids and weight should be measured at baseline, every 3 months for the first year, then yearly.
Fasting blood glucose should be measured at baseline, after one months’ treatment, then every 4–6 months.

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88
Q

Foods to avoid with MAOIs e.g. phenelzine

A

Potentially life-threatening hypertensive crisis can develop in those taking MAOIs who eat tyramine-rich food (such as mature cheese, salami, pickled herring, Bovril®, Oxo®, Marmite® or any similar meat or yeast extract or fermented soya bean extract, and some beers, lagers or wines) or foods containing dopa (such as broad bean pods). 

Avoid tyramine-rich or dopa-rich food or drinks with, or for 2 to 3 weeks after stopping, the MAOI.

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89
Q

What treatment would be considered for a 10 year old with major depression?

A

Fluoxetine

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90
Q

Which sulphonylurea carries the greatest risk of hypoglycaemia, so should be avoided in the elderly?

A

Gilbenclamide

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91
Q

Reasons to stop combined hormonal contraceptive

A

An unusual, severe, prolonged headache
Unexplained swelling of calf in one leg
Severe stomach pain
Sudden breathlessness

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92
Q

Adrenaline injection advice

A

If you still feel unwell after the first injection, use a second injector 5 to 15 minutes after
the first.

An ambulance should be called after each administration.

The individual should lie down with their legs raised (unless they have breathing difficulties, in which case they should sit up) and should not be left alone.

Always carry 2 pens with you at all times.

Inject (intramuscularly) into the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh

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93
Q

Monitoring parameters for antipsychotics

A

Blood lipids and weight should be measured at baseline, at 3 months (weight should be measured at frequent intervals during the first 3 months), and then yearly with antipsychotic drugs. Patients taking olanzapine require more frequent monitoring of these parameters: every 3 months for the first year, then yearly.

Fasting blood glucose should be measured at baseline, at 4–6 months, and then yearly. Patients taking olanzapine should have fasting blood glucose tested at baseline, after one months’ treatment, then every 4–6 months.

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94
Q

Monitoring with statins

A

Before starting treatment with statins, at least one full lipid profile (non-fasting) should be measured, triglyceride concentrations, thyroid-stimulating hormone, and renal function should also be assessed.

NICE suggests that liver enzymes should be measured before treatment, and repeated within 3 months and at 12 months of starting treatment.
Those with serum transaminases of more than 3 times the upper limit of the reference range should discontinue statin therapy.

Before initiation of statin treatment, creatine kinase concentration should be measured in patients who have had persistent, generalised, unexplained muscle pain.
If the concentration is more than 5 times the upper limit of normal, a repeat measurement should be taken after 7 days. If it still remains above 5 times, statin treatment should not be started; if concentrations are still raised but less than 5 times the upper limit, the statin should be started at a lower dose.

Patients at high risk of diabetes mellitus should have fasting blood-glucose concentration or HbA1C checked before starting statin treatment, and then repeated after 3 months.

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95
Q

Monitoring for ACE inhibitors

A

Renal function and electrolytes should be checked before starting ACE inhibitors (or increasing the dose) and monitored during treatment (more frequently if side effects mentioned are present).

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96
Q

Monitoring for sodium valproate

A

Monitor liver function before therapy and during first 6 months especially in patients most at risk.

Measure full blood count and ensure no undue potential for bleeding before starting and before surgery.

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97
Q

Common side effects of beta blockers

A

Abdominal discomfort; bradycardia; confusion; depression; diarrhoea; dizziness; dry eye (reversible on discontinuation); dyspnoea; erectile dysfunction; fatigue; headache; heart failure; nausea; paraesthesia; peripheral coldness; peripheral vascular disease; rash (reversible on discontinuation); sleep disorders; syncope; visual impairment; vomiting

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98
Q

Signs of lithium toxicity

A

Signs of intoxication require withdrawal of treatment and include increasing gastro-intestinal disturbances (vomiting, diarrhoea), visual disturbances, polyuria, muscle weakness, fine tremor increasing to coarse tremor, CNS disturbances (confusion and drowsiness increasing to lack of coordination, restlessness, stupor); abnormal reflexes, myoclonus, incontinence, hypernatraemia.

With severe overdosage seizures, cardiac arrhythmias (including sino-atrial block, bradycardia and first-degree heart block), blood pressure changes, circulatory failure, renal failure, coma and sudden death reported.

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99
Q

What are potential side effects of doxorubicin?

A

Diarrhoea, dehydration, and red colouration of the urine can commonly occur with this cytotoxic antibiotic

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100
Q

What is the dosing limit for doxorubicin?

A

Higher cumulative doses are associated with cardiomyopathy and it is usual to limit total cumulative doses to 450 mg/m2 because symptomatic and potentially fatal heart failure is common above this dose.

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101
Q

Which cytotoxic drug can result in progressive pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Bleomycin

This is dose-related, occurring more commonly at cumulative doses greater than 300 000 units. Basal lung crepitations or suspicious chest C-ray changes are an indication to stop therapy with this drug.

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102
Q

Which analgesic should be voided if at all possible in patients with a history of epilepsy or susceptibility to seizures?

A

Tramadol

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103
Q

The duration the responsible pharmacist records must be kept for

A

5 years

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104
Q

The duration that CD requisition forms must be kept for.

A

2 years

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105
Q

The duration that CD registers must be kept for, following the final entry and issue of a new register.

A

2 years

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106
Q

Permethrin 5% cream

A

Apply all over the body including the head (BNF), SPC states to exclude the head

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107
Q

Legal requirements

A

The AGE of patient on prescription if under 12

For an emergency supply at request of a doctor, the prescription must be
received within 72 hours

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108
Q

Diamorphine is the preferred opioid in palliative care because:

A

Its greater solubility allows effective doses to be given in a small volume

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109
Q

What is the mechanism of action of canagliflozin?

A

Canagliflozin reversibly inhibits sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) in the renal proximal convoluted tubule to reduce glucose
reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion.

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110
Q

Why are tetracyclines contraindicated for under 12s?

A

Deposition of tetracyclines in growing bone and teeth (by binding to calcium) causes
staining and occasionally dental hypoplasia.

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111
Q

Consider stopping use of the suspected drug with all ADRs. True or False?

A

False.

Only stop use of the suspected drug if the
ADR is serious or at the request of the individual, and avoid its use in future

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112
Q

What counts as a missed pill with combined oral contraceptives?

A

A missed
pill is one that is 24 or more hours late

Emergency contraception is recommended if 2
or more combined oral contraceptive tablets are missed from the first 7 tablets in a
packet and unprotected intercourse has occurred since finishing the last packet.

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113
Q

What counts as a missed pill for a woman taking Qlaira® [dienogest with estradiol valerate], or Zoely® [Estradiol with nomegestrol]?

A

12 hours or more late

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114
Q

What to do if you forget to take a progestogen-only contraceptive?

A

Take it as soon as you remember and take the next pill at the right time. If the pill was more
than 3 hours (12 hours for desogestrel) overdue you are not protected.

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115
Q

Signs and symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease

A

Fever, loss of appetite, sore throat, raised spots on mouth, throat and skin and feeling unwell.
After 12 to 36 hours, the red spots develop into yellowy-red ulcers in your mouth, on your tongue and inside your cheeks.
After one to two days, sores may start on hands and feet.

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116
Q

When to refer for hand, foot and mouth disease

A

Make a GP appointment if symptoms do not resolve in 10 days

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117
Q

What antidiabetic medicine should not be used in patients with a history of bladder cancer?

A

Pioglitazone

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118
Q

In England, Northern Ireland and Wales, what is the automatic age of screening for bowel cancer?

A

60 years old

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119
Q

What should you do if a patient taking Madopar has felt an overpowering
urge to buy unnecessary things?

A

BNF states that review of medication should be sought if worrying psychological changes occur relating to impulse control disorders. So the dose of Madopar may need to be decreased.

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120
Q

What is the definition for morbidity rate?

A

Refers to the incidence rate of disease within a population

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121
Q

When is the rotavirus vaccine given?

A

It is given at 8 and 12 weeks of age.

Rotavirus is a common cause of childhood diarrhoea and sickness.
The vaccine is administered orally to young infants.

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122
Q

Which act protects whistleblowers in the workplace to come forward about negligence and other issues?

A

Disclosure Act 1998

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123
Q

What is a root cause analysis?

A

A root cause analysis is used to identify all factors that could have contributed to
this error for analysis

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124
Q

When can Buccastem M be given?

A

Buccastem M (prochlorperazine) is only licensed for nausea and vomiting in previously diagnosed migraine, in adults aged 18 years and over.

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125
Q

Age restrictions for pholcodine 5mg/5mL and dextromethorphan

A

12 years and over (but pholcodine can be given at 2mg/5ml- Galenphol Paediatric Linctus- from the age of 6)

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126
Q

Age limit for Covonia syrup

A

1 year and over

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127
Q

Age limit for Beconase nasal spray

A

P version can be bought OTC but is only suitable for adults aged 18 and over.

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128
Q

Age limit for Cetirizine 5mg/5ml liquid

A

2 years and over

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129
Q

Pseudoephedrine and phenelzine

A

Pseudoephedrine would not be appropriate – there is a risk of hypertensive
crisis when pseudoephedrine is given with Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
avoid pseudoephedrine for at least 2 weeks after stopping MAOI.

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130
Q

Patient taking pioglitazone presenting with vomiting and abdominal pain

A

Seek immediate medical attention as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fatigue and dark urine may indicate liver toxicity

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131
Q

Methadone and quetiapine

A

There is an increased risk of ventricular arrhythmias when antipsychotics that prolong the QT interval are given with methadone

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132
Q

Vitamin A in pregnancy

A

Vitamin A may cause birth defects, women who are (or may become) pregnant are advised not to take vitamin A supplements (including tablets and fish-liver oil drops), except on the advice of a doctor or an antenatal clinic; nor should they eat liver or products such as liver paté or liver sausage.

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133
Q

What is given to prevent haemorrhagic disease of newborns?

A

All newborn babies should receive vitamin K

to prevent vitamin K deficiency bleeding (previously termed haemorrhagic disease of the newborn)

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134
Q

Pregnancy prescription exemption

A

While pregnant and for 12 months after

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135
Q

Co-beneldopa

A

Levodopa helps the Parkinson’s symptoms, benserazide prevents the breakdown of levodopa in other parts of the body

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136
Q

Supply of unlicensed meds

A

Record must be kept for 5 years

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137
Q

Responsible Pharmacist records

A

Need to be personally made by the RP themselves

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138
Q

Max oral dose of aspirin

A

4g

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139
Q

When to take theophylline levels

A

5 days after starting

4-6 hours after a dose

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140
Q

Naproxen (1 g daily)

A

Associated with a lower thrombotic risk

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141
Q

Carbimazole

A

Report sore throat immediately

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142
Q

Folinic acid

A

Suspected methotrexate overdose

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143
Q

Mebendazole

A

Not to be used in children under 2 years

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144
Q

CE on licensed devices

A

Conformite Europeenne

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145
Q

Max number of days for methadone prescriptions

A

14 days

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146
Q

Rifampicin-simvastatin

A

Decreased control of hypercholesterolaemia as rifampicin can induce the metabolism of simvastatin

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147
Q

Methotrexate monitoring

A

Full blood count and renal and liver function tests repeated every 1–2 weeks until therapy stabilised, thereafter patients should be monitored every 2–3 months.
Advise to report all symptoms and signs suggestive of infection, especially sore throat

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148
Q

Leflunomide-warfarin

A

Leflunomide inhibits the enzyme that metabolises warfarin, leading to bleeding

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149
Q

Prescribing of ciclosporin

A

Must be brand specific

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150
Q

Side effect of ciclosporin

A

Hypertension

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151
Q

Interactions with ciclosporin

A

Pomelo juice is predicted to increase ciclosporin exposure, and purple grape juice is predicted to decrease ciclosporin exposure.

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152
Q

Monitoring for ciclosporin

A

Liver function, serum potassium (especially in renal dysfunction- risk of hyperkalaemia), serum magnesium, blood lipids before treatment and after the first month of treatment.
Monitor kidney function—dose dependent increase in serum creatinine and urea during first few weeks may necessitate dose reduction in transplant patients
Monitor blood pressure—discontinue if hypertension develops that cannot be controlled by antihypertensives.
In rheumatoid arthritis measure serum creatinine at least twice before treatment. During treatment, monitor serum creatinine every 2 weeks for first 3 months, then every month for a further 3 months, then every 4–8 weeks depending on the stability of the disease, concomitant medication, and concomitant diseases (or more frequently if dose increased or concomitant NSAIDs introduced or increased).

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153
Q

How do advanced services work?

A

Contractors are paid monthly based on the MURs claimed for

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154
Q

Doxycycline for malaria prophylaxis

A

100mg daily, starting 2 days before entering area and continuing for 4 weeks after leaving

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155
Q

Monitoring adverse effects of atorvastatin

A

Alanine transaminase and creatinine kinase

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156
Q

Most people are able to use NRT, including:

A

Adults and children over 12 years of age – although children under 18 should not use the lozenges without getting medical advice first
Pregnant women
Breastfeeding women

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157
Q

Isoniazid co-therapy with pyridoxine

A

Pyridoxine hydrochloride should be given prophylactically in all patients from the start of treatment. Peripheral neuropathy is more likely to occur where there are pre-existing risk factors such as diabetes, alcohol dependence, chronic renal failure, pregnancy, malnutrition and HIV infection.

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158
Q

Isoniazid food/drink interactions

A

Avoid tyramine-rich foods (such as mature cheeses, salami, pickled herring, Bovril®, Oxo®, Marmite® or any similar meat or yeast extract or fermented soya bean extract, and some beers, lagers or wines) or histamine-rich foods (such as very mature cheese or fish from the scromboid family (e.g. tuna, mackerel, salmon)) with isoniazid, as tachycardia, palpitation, hypotension, flushing, headache, dizziness, and sweating reported.

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159
Q

How long do women need to wait after taking ulipristal acetate before starting suitable hormonal contraception?

A

5 days

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160
Q

One missed contraceptive pill dose

A

Take the last pill you missed now, even if this means taking 2 pills in 1 day
Carry on taking the rest of the pack as normal
Take your 7-day pill-free break as normal, or if you’re on an everyday (ED) pill, take your dummy (inactive) pills

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161
Q

Two or more missed contraceptive pill doses

A

Take the last pill you missed now, even if this means taking 2 pills in 1 day
leave any earlier missed pills
carry on taking the rest of the pack as normal
use extra contraception, such as condoms, for the next 7 days
When you come to the end of your pill pack, after missing 2 or more pills:

if there are 7 or more pills left in the pack after the last missed pill – finish the pack, take your 7-day pill-free break as normal, or take your inactive pills before you start your next pack
if there are less than 7 pills left in the pack after the missed pill – finish the pack and start a new pack the next day; this means missing out the pill-free break or not taking your inactive pills

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162
Q

SLS endorsement on Nizoral cream

A

Nizoral® cream is not prescribable in NHS primary care except for the treatment of seborrhoeic dermatitis and pityriasis versicolor; endorse prescription ‘SLS’.

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163
Q

Contraindications of antimuscarinics

A

Angle-closure glaucoma; gastro-intestinal obstruction; intestinal atony; myasthenia gravis (but some antimuscarinics may be used to decrease muscarinic side-effects of anticholinesterases); paralytic ileus; pyloric stenosis; severe ulcerative colitis; significant bladder outflow obstruction; toxic megacolon; urinary retention

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164
Q

Quinolones

A

can prolong the QT interval; conditions that predispose to seizures; diabetes (may affect blood glucose); exposure to excessive sunlight and UV radiation should be avoided during treatment and for 48 hours after stopping treatment; G6PD deficiency; history of epilepsy; myasthenia gravis (risk of exacerbation); psychiatric disorders

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165
Q

Lithium-ramipril

A

Ramipril is predicted to increase the concentration of lithium.

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166
Q

Acid reflux OTC treatment in pregnancy

A

Gaviscon Advance

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167
Q

Age for OTC cystitis treatment

A

16 to 65 (not including 65)

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168
Q

Meningitis symptoms

A

The first symptoms are usually fever, vomiting, headache and feeling unwell. Limb pain, pale skin, and cold hands and feet often appear earlier than the rash, neck stiffness, dislike of bright lights and confusion.

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169
Q

Lithium toxicity symptoms

A

Signs of intoxication require withdrawal of treatment and include increasing gastro-intestinal disturbances (vomiting, diarrhoea), visual disturbances, polyuria, muscle weakness, fine tremor increasing to coarse tremor, CNS disturbances (confusion and drowsiness increasing to lack of coordination, restlessness, stupor); abnormal reflexes, myoclonus, incontinence, hypernatraemia.
With severe overdosage seizures, cardiac arrhythmias (including sino-atrial block, bradycardia and first-degree heart block), blood pressure changes, circulatory failure, renal failure, coma and sudden death reported.

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170
Q

GLP-1 agonists prescribing

A

Only if triple therapy with metformin hydrochloride and two other oral drugs is tried and is not effective

only for patients who have a BMI of 35 kg/m2 or above (adjusted for ethnicity) and who also have specific psychological or medical problems associated with obesity;

or for those who have a BMI lower than 35 kg/m2 but for whom insulin therapy would have significant occupational implications or if the weight loss associated with glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists would benefit other significant obesity-related comorbidities.

After 6 months, the drug should be reviewed and only continued if there has been a beneficial metabolic response (a reduction of at least 11 mmol/mol [1.0%] in HbA1c and a weight loss of at least 3% of initial body-weight).

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171
Q

Eumovate (clobetasone 0.05%)

A

Moderate potency

Apply BD for max 7 days

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172
Q

GTN SL tabs

A

Tablets should be discarded after 8 weeks in use

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173
Q

Monitoring of aminosalicylates

A

Renal function should be monitored before starting an oral aminosalicylate, at 3 months of treatment, and then annually during treatment.

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174
Q

Maintenance dose of rivaroxaban in AF

A

20mg OD

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175
Q

Treatment of DVT dosing for rivaroxaban

A

Initially 15 mg twice daily for 21 days, then maintenance 20 mg once daily

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176
Q

Prophylaxis of DVT dosing for rivaroxaban

A

10mg OD

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177
Q

Post ACS rivaroxaban (in combo with aspirin or aspirin and clopidogrel)

A

2.5 mg twice daily usual duration 12 months

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178
Q

Common side effects of rivaroxaban

A

Constipation
Diarrhoea
Headache
Rash

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179
Q

Adrenaline anaphylaxis dose for 1 month-5 years

A

150 micrograms

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180
Q

Adrenaline anaphylaxis dose for 6-11 years

A

300 micrograms

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181
Q

Adrenaline anaphylaxis dose for 12-17 years

A

500 micrograms

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182
Q

Adrenaline anaphylaxis dose for adults

A

500 micrograms

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183
Q

Recommended injection site for adrenaline injection

A

Anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh

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184
Q

Which vitamin should be avoided with spironolactone?

A

Vitamin K

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185
Q

Thalidomide

A

Thromboprophylaxis is recommended for at least the first 5 months of treatment, especially in patients with additional thrombotic risk factors.
Patients with pre-existing peripheral neuropathy should not be treated with thalidomide unless the potential clinical benefits outweigh the risk.

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186
Q

Thalidomide and women of child-bearing age

A

A medically supervised pregnancy test should be performed on, or within 3 days prior to, initiation and repeated every 4 weeks thereafter (including 4 weeks after the last dose).
Females of childbearing potential must use effective contraception for at least 4 weeks before, during, and for at least 4 weeks after stopping treatment (including during dose interruptions).
Oral combined hormonal contraceptives and copper-releasing intrauterine devices are not recommended.

Male patients, even after successful vasectomy, must use condoms during treatment (including during dose interruptions) and for at least 1 week after stopping, if their partner is pregnant or is of childbearing potential and not using effective contraception.

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187
Q

Bulk forming laxatives onset of action

Ispaghula husk, methylcellulose and sterculia

A

2-3 days

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188
Q

Stimulant laxatives onset of action

Bisacodyl, docusate sodium, glycerol, senna, and sodium picosulfate

A

6-12 hours

Suppositories 15-60 minutes

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189
Q

Faecal softeners onset of action

Liquid paraffin

A

1-2 days

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190
Q

Liquid paraffin not recommended for use as faecal softener

A

Can cause anal seepage and irritation, granulomatous reactions caused by absorption of small quantities of liquid paraffin, lipoid pneumonia, and malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins

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191
Q

Osmotic laxatives onset of action

Lactulose, macrogols and magnesium salts

A

1-3 days

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192
Q

Pramipexole (dopamine-receptor agonist)

A

Associated with impulse control disorders, including pathological gambling, binge eating, and hypersexuality.

Risk of postural hypotension (especially on initiation)—monitor blood pressure.

Antiparkinsonian drug therapy should never be stopped abruptly as this carries a small risk of neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

Excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden onset of sleep can occur with dopamine-receptor agonists.

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193
Q

Review of Parkinson’s disease after diagnosis

A

6-12 months

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194
Q

Formulations fo co-beneldopa

A

When switching from modified-release levodopa to dispersible co-beneldopa, reduce dose by approximately 30%.

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195
Q

Apomorphine HCL

A

SC into lower abdomen

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196
Q

Disulfram reaction

A

Full body rash, feeling and being sick, stomach pain, hot flushes, a pounding heartbeat (palpitations) and a headache

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197
Q

Metronidazole with alcohol

A

Do not drink alcohol while taking a course of metronidazole tablets, liquid, suppositories or vaginal gel, or for 2 days after finishing treatment

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198
Q

How often should the need for oxybutynin therapy be reviewed?

A

Every 4-6 weeks until symptoms stabilise then every 6-12 months

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199
Q

Norethisterone dosing

A

1 tablet TDS

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200
Q

When is the most appropriate time to start taking norethisterone?

A

3 days before menstruation is due

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201
Q

When is menstruation likely to start after stopping norethisterone?

A

2-3 days after stopping

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202
Q

Ciprofloxacin-ibuprofen

A

Increased risk of convulsions

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203
Q

Treatment of clindamycin exceeds 10 days

A

Monitor renal and liver function

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204
Q

Vancomycin trough conc

A

15-20 mg/L

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205
Q

Monitoring of vancomycin

A

renal function, urinalysis and blood counts

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206
Q

Treating hypersalivation

A

Glycopyrronium bromide

Unlicensed:
antimuscarinic drugs (amitriptyline, atropine, benzatropine, trihexyphenidyl hydrochloride, hyoscine hydrobromide)

Beta-blockers

Botulinum toxin

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207
Q

Mefloquine for malaria

A

Mefloquine is associated with potentially serious neuropsychiatric reactions. Abnormal dreams, insomnia, anxiety, and depression occur commonly. Psychosis, suicidal ideation, and suicide have also been reported. Psychiatric symptoms such as insomnia, nightmares, acute anxiety, depression, restlessness, or confusion should be regarded as potentially prodromal for a more serious event.

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208
Q

Solifenacin-itraconazole

A

Itraconazole (CYP3A4 inhibitor) is predicted to increase the exposure to solifenacin.

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209
Q

Pharmacokinetics of theophylline

A

Theophylline is metabolised in the liver. The plasma-theophylline concentration is increased in heart failure, hepatic impairment, and in viral infections. The plasma-theophylline concentration is decreased in smokers, and by alcohol consumption.

210
Q

Animal bites

A

Co-amoxiclav

211
Q

Suspected meningococcal septicaemia with a history of immediate hypersensitivity reactions to penicillins and cephalosporins

A

Chloramphenicol

212
Q

Too much Vitamin D can result in

A

Hyperphosphatemia

213
Q

Depo-provera injection

A

Needs to be administered every 12 weeks, reduction in bone mineral density occurs in first 2 to 3 years of use then stabilises

214
Q

Copper coil

A

Method of emergency contraception that can be used up to 5 days after earliest likely calculated ovulation, regardless of number of episodes of unprotected intercourse earlier in cycle

215
Q

Furosemide

A

Symptoms are improved within 1 hour of taking med
Hypokalaemia
Diuresis does not interfere with sleep

216
Q

HbA1c target for multiple antidiabetic drugs

A

53 mmol/l

217
Q

Which TB med is most likely to cause deterioration to vision?

A

Ethambutol

218
Q

TB meds- warfarin

A

May cause reduction in INR

219
Q

Steroid emergency card should be given to those

A

those with primary adrenal insufficiency;
those with adrenal insufficiency due to hypopituitarism requiring corticosteroid replacement;
those taking corticosteroids at doses equivalent to, or exceeding, prednisolone 5 mg daily for 4 weeks or longer across all routes of administration (oral, topical, inhaled, intranasal, or intra-articular);
those taking corticosteroids at doses equivalent to, or exceeding, prednisolone 40 mg daily for longer than 1 week, or repeated short oral courses;
those taking a course of oral corticosteroids within 1 year of stopping long-term therapy.

220
Q

Clenil vs Qvar

A

Qvar is twice as potent as Clenil

221
Q

MHRA

A

Responsible for licensing of new meds and new combinations of active chemicals

222
Q

Migraleve and paracetamol

A

Migraleve contains paracetamol and codeine so do not give if patient has recently taken paracetamol.

223
Q

Secondary prevention of CV events

A

Patients should be given DAPT, beta-blocker, ACE inhibitor, nitrate and statin.

224
Q

Mineralocorticoid side effects

A

Hypertension
Hypokalaemia
Sodium retention
Water retention

225
Q

Impetigo

A

Impetigo is contagious and risk mitigation measures are needed. Current advice is 48 hours should elapse after initiation of an antibiotic before returning to work

226
Q

Theophylline toxicity

A

Vomiting (which may be severe and intractable)
Agitation
Restlessness
Dilated pupils
Sinus tachycardia- only clear red flag warning sign
Hyperglycaemia.
More serious effects are haematemesis, convulsions, and supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias. Severe hypokalaemia may develop rapidly.

227
Q

Post ischaemic stroke

A

Initial treatment with aspirin 300 mg for 14 days. Secondary prevention with clopidogrel 75 mg daily thereafter.

228
Q

Impetigo

A

usually only affects the face

229
Q

Measles

A

face to trunk and only slight itching in some

230
Q

Patient returned CDs

A

Medication can be destroyed and denatured by the Responsible Pharmacist. A witness is preferable not mandatory and preferably it should be a registered healthcare professional.

231
Q

Warfarin and antibiotics

A

Rifampicin decreases anticoagulant effect. Clarithromycin, doxycycline, erythromycin and metronidazole increase anticoagulant effect.

232
Q

Common side effect of oxybutynin

A

Constipation

233
Q

Head lice

A

Wet combing or dimeticone 4% lotion is recommended first-line for pregnant or breastfeeding women, young children aged 6 months to 2 years, and people with asthma or eczema.

234
Q

OTC omeprazole sale

A

Omeprazole 10 mg capsules at a maximum dose of 20 mg once a day for four weeks

235
Q

Buccal midazolam administration

A

Wait five minutes before administering as the seizure may stop on its own

236
Q

What is a biosimilar?

A

A biosimilar is a biologic medicine that is similar to an already licensed biologic medicine in terms of quality, safety and efficacy. A biosimilar is specifically developed and licensed to treat the same disease(s) as the original innovator product. A biosimilar can only be marketed after the patent protecting the originator product and any period of marketing exclusivity have expired.

237
Q

Which asthma scenario requires referral to GP?

A

The patient has noticed a cough at night causing waking

238
Q

Being the RP

A

RP can only be the RP for one pharmacy at any given time

239
Q

Loratidine

A

2 years+

>30kg

240
Q

Diagnosis of T2DM

A

Based on HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or more, fasting plasma glucose level of 7.0 mmol/L or more or random plasma glucose of 11.1 mmol/L or more in the presence of symptoms or signs of diabetes

241
Q

Metformin mechanism of action

A

Metformin exerts its effect mainly by decreasing gluconeogenesis and by increasing peripheral utilisation of glucose; since it acts only in the presence of endogenous insulin it is effective only if there are some residual functioning pancreatic islet cells.

242
Q

Symptoms of Vitamin B12 deficiency

A

Pins and needles in her feet.
Fatigued
Low mood
Mouth ulcers

Signs- Good vegetarian diet

243
Q

Treating hypoglycaemia

A

15–20 g (3–4 heaped teaspoonfuls of sugar dissolved in water,
or 150–200 mL pure fruit juice,
or 4–7 glucose tablets)
repeated after 10–15 minutes if necessary
Glucagon only used if patient unresponsive/no oral route

244
Q

Fexofenadine-erythromycin

A

Co-administration of fexofenadine hydrochloride with erythromycin has been found to result in a 2-3 times increase in the level of fexofenadine in plasma.

245
Q

Senna

A

Can be sold OTC for aged 12 years and over
Contraindicated in intestinal obstruction
Safe in pregnancy
Licensed as POM > 6 years old.

246
Q

When would a higher dose of folic acid need to be given during pregnancy?

A

Higher dose recommended for those with history of neural tube defects, diabetic, overweight, antiepileptic medication / antiviral for HIV prescribed

247
Q

The prescription legally requires the particulars of the prescriber

A

Prescriptions require particulars that indicate the type of appropriate practitioner.

Details of medicinal products are not legal prescription requirements under Regulation 217 and 218 Human Medicines Regulations 2012 but may cause issues for reimbursement but also enables pharmacists to identify what to supply.

248
Q

Safe custody of controlled drugs

A

All CD Schedule 1
All CD Schedule 2 (except quinalbarbitone (secobarbital)).
All CD Schedule 3 (except methylphenobarbitone,
midazolam, phenobarbitone (phenobarbital), hentermine, tramadol or any stereoisomeric form of the above, or any salts of the above).

249
Q

How often should cervical screening be done?

A

Women aged 24.5 years should receive their first invitation to ensure they can be screened before they are aged 25 years. Those who are 25–49 years should be offered screening every 3 years. Women who are 50–64 years should be offered screening every 5 years.

250
Q

For OTC benzoyl peroxide, which strength should be given?

A

Benzoyl peroxide 2.5% gel- start on this strength to minimise side effects before considering 5%

251
Q

Which drug is licensed for acute labour pain?

A

Levobupivacaine

252
Q

Which drug can cause symptoms like lichen planus?

A

Thiazide diuretics have reported lichenoid drug eruption as a side effect.

253
Q

Cautions for pseudoephedrine

A

Diabetes; heart disease; hypertension; hyperthyroidism; ischaemic heart disease (in adults); prostatic hypertrophy (in adults); raised intra-ocular pressure (in children); susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma (in adults)

254
Q

Common side effect of donepezil

A

Aggression

255
Q

What is home office specific instalment prescribing instructions if there is a bank holiday?

A

“Please dispense instalments due on pharmacy closed days on a prior suitable day.”

256
Q

Thiazides and related diuretics can exacerbate

A

gout, systemic lupus erythematosus, diabetes

257
Q

Schedule 3, 4 and 5 CDs and record keeping

A

Do not need to be recorded in the register

Invoices for CD 3 and 5 need to be retained for 2 years

258
Q

If patient is in anaphylaxis

A

Administer adrenaline then call 999 and reporting that there is a case of suspected anaphylaxis.

259
Q

Breakthrough pain formulations

A

MST Continus, Morphgesic SR and Zomorph MR are all modified release preparations therefore not appropriate for breakthrough pain.

260
Q

Mirabegron

A

Blood pressure should be monitored before starting treatment and regularly during treatment, especially in patients with pre-existing hypertension with mirabegron

261
Q

Azithromycin monitoring

A

ECG needed to rule out prolonged QT and LFT’s also required (CT scan and sputum cultures also actioned)

262
Q

Which CDs have a 6 month prescription validity?

A

CD INV POM and CD INV P

263
Q

Fostair

A

Fostair has extra fine particle size distribution which can produce a more potent effect

264
Q

Citalopram causes hyponatraemia in elderly

A

Symptoms of low sodium are confusion and seizures

265
Q

Opioid induced constipation

A

Osmotic laxative (or docusate sodium to soften the stools) and a stimulant laxative is recommended. Bulk-forming laxatives should be avoided.

Naloxegol is recommended for the treatment of opioid-induced constipation when response to other laxatives is inadequate.

Methylnaltrexone bromide is licensed for the treatment of opioid-induced constipation when response to other laxatives is inadequate.

266
Q

Which vaccine is given to a neonate at risk of tuberculosis?

A

BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin)
It is a live attenuated strain derived from Mycobacterium bovis which stimulates the development of immunity to M. tuberculosis.

267
Q

Rotavirus

A

Most common cause of infantile gastroenteritis

Oral vaccine is delivered at two months

268
Q

MMR vaccine

A

Administered at 12 months and between the ages of 3 – 5 according the immunization schedule.
It should not be administered on the same day as yellow fever vaccine; there should be a 4-week minimum interval between the vaccines.
When protection is rapidly required, the vaccines can be given at any interval and an additional dose of MMR may be considered.

269
Q

Maximum daily dose of Tramadol

A

400mg in 24hrs

270
Q

Otomise contains

A

Otomize and acetic acid

271
Q

Acute otitis externa

A

Pseudomonas aeroginosa

272
Q

Complication of otitis externa

A

Malignant or necrotising otitis externa

273
Q

What organisms can cause HAP?

A
MRSA
Pseudomonas aeroginasa (doesn’t really cause CAP)
274
Q

Nephrotoxicity and Ototoxicity with Aminoglycosides

A

Nephrotoxicity- reversible

Ototoxicity- irreversible

275
Q

Neomycin

A

Given orally for bowel sterilisation but not parenterally

276
Q

Vancomycin + gentamicin

A

Infective endocarditis- synergistic effect

277
Q

When to avoid gentamicin in pregnancy?

A

Second and third trimesters

Auditory and vestibular nerve damage (look out for dizziness, tinnitus, ringing in the ears, deafness)

278
Q

Types of glycopeptides

A

Vancomycin
Teicoplanin
Telavancin

279
Q

Vancomycin levels

A

10-15mg/L trough

15-20mg/L for endocarditis or less sensitive strain of MRSA or complicated infections

280
Q

When would you use flucloxacillin instead of amoxicillin?

A

Cellulitis (caused by Staphylococcus aureus)

281
Q

Penicillinase resistant antibiotic

A

Flucloxacillin

282
Q

Rash 72hrs after penicillin administration

A

Unlikely to be an allergic reaction

283
Q

Initial phase of TB

A

RIPE

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

284
Q

Continuation phase of TB

A

Rifampicin

Isoniazid

285
Q

Ethambutol

A

Ocular toxicity

286
Q

Rifampicin

A

Orange-red discolouration of secretions e.g. contact lenses

287
Q

Rifampicin, Isoniazid and Pyrazinamide (RIP)

A

Liver toxicity

288
Q

Isoniazid

A

Peripheral neuropathy

289
Q

FP10MDA for instalments

A

Limited to max 14 days treatment

290
Q

First line for patients for patients with post-menopausal osteoporosis

A

Oral bisphosphonates, alendronic acid and risedronate sodium

HRT can also be used- usually restricted to younger postmenopausal women, due to risks of CV disease and cancer in older postmenopausal women and women on long-term HRT therapy.

291
Q

Teriparatide

A

Reserved for postmenopausal women with severe osteoporosis at very high risk for vertebral fractures.
Treatment is limited to 24 months.

292
Q

Glibenclamide

A

Caution in the elderly

293
Q

Audit cycle

A
Stage 1 - preparation
Stage 2 - select criteria
Stage 3 - measuring level of performance
Stage 4 - making improvements
Stage 5 - maintaining improvements
294
Q

Severe hypertension

A

clinic systolic blood pressure of 180 mmHg or higher, or a clinic diastolic blood pressure of 120 mmHg or higher.

295
Q

Sumatriptan

A

Not suitable for children

Okay to take with ibuprofen or paracetamol

296
Q

HBPM target

A

<135/85

297
Q

What to do if INR>8 with no bleeding

A

stop warfarin sodium; give phytomenadione (vitamin K1) by mouth using the intravenous preparation orally [unlicensed use]; repeat dose of phytomenadione if INR still too high after 24 hours; restart warfarin when INR <5.0

298
Q

INR 5.0–8.0, minor bleeding

A

stop warfarin sodium; give phytomenadione (vitamin K1) by slow intravenous injection; restart warfarin sodium when INR <5.0

299
Q

What to do if INR<6 but more than 0.5 units above the target value

A

Reduce dose or stop warfarin

300
Q

If INR >8.0, minor bleeding

A

stop warfarin sodium; give phytomenadione (vitamin K1) by slow intravenous injection; repeat dose of phytomenadione if INR still too high after 24 hours; restart warfarin sodium when INR <5.0

301
Q

Major bleeding with warfarin

A

stop warfarin sodium; give phytomenadione (vitamin K1) by slow intravenous injection; give dried prothrombin complex (factors II, VII, IX, and X); if dried prothrombin complex unavailable, fresh frozen plasma can be given but is less effective; recombinant factor VIIa is not recommended for emergency anticoagulation reversal

302
Q

NSAIDs and citalopram

A

Increased risk of bleeding and hyponatraemia

303
Q

Treating lower back pain

A
NSAID
Weak opioid (either alone or with paracetamol) only if NSAID is contraindicated, not tolerated or ineffective
304
Q

Vet CD prescriptions

A

Require prescriber number

305
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide MHRA alert

A

cumulative, dose-dependent increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer, particularly in long-term use, and advise patients to regularly check for and report any new or changed skin lesions or moles;
advise patients to limit exposure to sunlight and UV rays and use adequate sun protection;
reconsider the use of hydrochlorothiazide in patients who have had previous skin cancer;
examine all suspicious moles or skin lesions (potentially including histological examination of biopsies).

306
Q

Contraindications of thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics

A

Addison’s disease; hypercalcaemia; hyponatraemia; refractory hypokalaemia; symptomatic hyperuricaemia

307
Q

Cautions of thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics

A

Diabetes; gout; risk of hypokalaemia; systemic lupus erythematosus

308
Q

Ipratropium + blurred vision

A

Acute angle-glaucoma

309
Q

Thiazide-like diuretics- electrolyte imbalances

A

Hypokalaemia
Hypercalcaemia
Hyperglycaemia

310
Q

Thiazide-like diuretics in hepatic impairment

A

Can precipitate encephalopathy

311
Q

Thiazide-like diuretics with digoxin

A

Can cause hypokalaemie= digoxin toxicity

312
Q

Signs of lactic acidosis (when taking metformin)

A

dyspnoea, muscle cramps, abdominal pain, hypothermia, or asthenia

313
Q

How long do veterinary prescriptons last for?

A

6 months unless stated otherwise

314
Q

Which CDs require denaturing?

A

Schedule 2, 3 and 4 (Part 1)

315
Q

Patient returned CDs

A

patient returned schedule 2 CDs should be recorded and their subsequent destruction recorded (in a separate record to the CD register). Patient returned CDs should be denatured in the presence of another member of staff, preferably a pharmacist or pharmacy technician if available. Does not require an authorised person

316
Q

Date expired pharmacy CD stock

A

Obsolete, expired and unwanted Schedule 1 and 2 CDs should be destroyed in the presence of an authorised witness. RPS guidance indicates that for Schedule 3 CDs it would be good practice to have another member of staff witness the denaturing.

317
Q

What activities would need the supervision of a RP present?

A

Professional check (clinical and legal check) of a prescription
Sale/Supply of pharmacy medicines
Sale/Supply of prescription-only medicines (e.g. handing dispensed medicines to patient, patient representative or a delivery person)
Supply of medicines under a patient group direction (PGD)
Wholesale of medicines
Emergency Supply of a medicine(s) at the request of a patient or healthcare professional

318
Q

What activities would need the supervision of a RP present but they do not need to be physically present?

A

The assembly process (including assembly of compliance aids (monitored dosage systems)):

Generating a dispensing label
Taking medicines off the dispensary shelves
Assembly of the item (e.g. counting tablets)
Labelling of containers with the dispensing label
Accuracy checking

319
Q

What activities would need the RP signed in as in charge of premises but not physically present?

A

Sale of general sale list (GSL) medicines

Processing waste stock medicines or patient returned medicines (excluding Controlled Drugs)

320
Q

What activities do not require a Responsible Pharmacist to be in charge of the pharmacy?

A

Ordering stock from pharmaceutical wholesalers
Receiving stock from pharmaceutical wholesalers into the building (excluding Controlled Drugs)
Putting medicinal stock received from the wholesaler away onto the pharmacy shelves (GSL, P, and POMs, excluding CDs)
Date Checking (excluding CDs)
Stocking pharmacy with consumables
Cleaning of the pharmacy
Responding to enquiries (about medicine issues)
Accessing the PMR
Receiving prescription directly from patients or collecting from a surgery
Processing of prescription forms that have been dispensed (eg. Counting number of items dispensed, sorting prior submission for reimbursement)
Delivery person conveying medicines to patient
Receiving patient returned medicines (excluding controlled drugs)

321
Q

Signed orders

A

Must contain:
Name of the school
Purpose that is the product is required for
Total quantity required

Ideally use headed paper- not a legal requirement
Needs to be retained for 2 years from date of supply or an entry made in the POM register

322
Q

What factors can increase the required insulin dose?

A

Infection
stress
accidental or surgical trauma

323
Q

What factors can decrease the required insulin dose?

A

Physical activity
Intercurrent illness
Reduced food intake
Impaired renal function

324
Q

CKS recommends Hedrin® Lotion

A

for use in pregnant and breastfeeding women and in children aged 6 months to 2 years, and in asthmatics, as it is licensed for use in these groups

325
Q

Isopropyl myristate and cyclomethicone (IPM/C, Full Marks Solution®

A

Suitable for asthmatics but not enough data for pregnant and breastfeeding women.

326
Q

Isopropyl myristate and isopropyl alcohol (Vamousse®, registered medical device)

A

Not recommended for asthmatics and not enough data for pregnant and breastfeeding women

327
Q

Malathion 0.5% aqueous liquid (Derbac-M®)

A

Suitable for people of all ages and people with asthma or skin conditions, as it does not contain alcohol.
Can be used in pregnant and breastfeeding women if wet combing and dimeticone are ineffective.

328
Q

Blood pressure target for those with primary hypertension

A

<140/90 (HBPM: 135/85)

<150/90 if over 80 years old

329
Q

Blood pressure target for those with cardiovascular disease

A

<140/90

330
Q

Blood pressure target for those with diabetes

A

<140/80 (If they are having any eye, kidney or cerebrovascular complications then it is <130/80)

331
Q

Blood pressure target for those with chronic kidney disease

A

120-139/<90

If their ACR greater than or equal 70, then 120-129/<80

332
Q

Mild topical corticosteroids

A

Hydrocortisone 0.1%, 0.5%, 1.0%, 2.5%

333
Q

Moderate topical corticosteroids

A

Betamethasone valerate 0.025% - Betnovate RD
Clobetasone butyrate 0.05% - Eumovate
Fluocinolone acteonide 0.00625% - Synalar 1 in 4 dilution

334
Q

Potent topical corticosteroids

A

Betamethasone valerate 0.1% - Betnovate
Mometasone furoate 0.1% - Elocon
Hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1% - Locoid

335
Q

Very potent topical corticosteroids

A

Clobetasol propionate 0.0525% - Dermovate

336
Q

Live vaccines to avoid during pregnancy

A
BCG (vaccination against tuberculosis)
MMR (measles, mumps and rubella)
oral polio (which forms part of the 5-in-1 vaccine given to infants)
oral typhoid
yellow fever
337
Q

If patient taking clozapine is having constipation

A

MHRA alert- intestinal peristalsis

338
Q

Supplying CDs to local district nurse

A

Must get ID- can still supply based on professional discretion
Require nurse’s name and address to be recorded in the CD register
Recommended to get them to sign the back of the prescription

339
Q

Disposing out of date patient-returned POMs

A

Approve for disposal via approved agent

340
Q

What is suitable for the initial management of DKA?

A

Soluble insulin injection

341
Q

Metronidazole-warfarin

A

Increases anticoagulant effect- increases the INR

342
Q

Patient-returned CDs

A

Accept the tablets and arrange for their disposal without recording in the CD register

343
Q

What is ringworm?

A

Fungal infection

344
Q

Class of drug of theophylline

A

Methylxanthine

345
Q

Class of drug of allopurinol

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

346
Q

Misoprostol

A
Termination of pregnancy
Induction of labour
Benign gastric ulcer,
Benign duodenal ulcer,
NSAID-induced peptic ulcer
347
Q

Why is misoprostol contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

Increase uterine growth

348
Q

TB drug likely to cause visual disturbance

A

Ethambutol

349
Q

Cold sores can be precipitated by

A

stress

350
Q

Side effects of pseudoephedrine

A

Trouble sleeping

Feel like his heart is beating too quickly

351
Q

Paracetamol dose for 3 year old

A

180mg QDS

352
Q

Terbinafine age for cream, gel or spray and solution

A

Cream, gel or spray: 16 years

Solution: 18 years

353
Q

Ciprofloxacin-theophylline

A

Cipro increases the concentrations of aminophyllines

354
Q

What to give for hard, dry stools

A

Macrogol

Docusate

355
Q

Classification of morphine

A

If above 13 mg per 5 mL the solution becomes a schedule 2 controlled drug. It is usual to adjust the strength so that the dose volume is 5 or 10 mL.

356
Q

Retaining the RP record

A

5 years

357
Q

Beta blockers are contraindicated in

A

Severe peripheral vascular disease

358
Q

Influenza vaccine in children

A

Live, attenuated intranasal vaccine has been shown to give better protection than the inactivated intramuscular vaccine

359
Q

Amoxicillin dose for oral infection for 2 1/2 year old

A

250mg TDS

360
Q

Amoxicillin dose for oral infection for 5 year old

A

5 years+ 500mg TDS

361
Q

Amoxicillin dose for oral infection for 11 month old

A

1-11 months 125mg TDS

362
Q

Dose of orlistat

A

120mg before, during and up to 1 hour after each meal Max 360mg daily

363
Q

Noticeable diseases

A
Covid 19
Measles
TB
Yellow fever
Scarlet fever
364
Q

Common effect of Covid-19

A

Lymphocytopenia

365
Q

Vancomycin resistant enterococci

A

Teicoplanin- not appropriate (similar drug class- so likely to be resistant too)
Flucloxacillin doesn’t cover enterococci
Linezolid

366
Q

Pseudomonas aeroginosa

A

Can be treated with

Ciprofloxacin

367
Q

Oxazolidone

A

Linezolid

368
Q

Aspergillosis

A

Voriconazole

Amphotericin B

369
Q

Candidiasis treatment if fluconazole CI

A

Itraconazole

370
Q

Invasive candidiasis

A

A echinocandin (e.g caspofungin)

371
Q

Where to look for up-to-date information on vaccinations

A

The Green Book has the latest information on vaccines and vaccination procedures, for vaccine preventable infectious diseases in the UK.

372
Q

Treating chickenpox in adults and children

A

Paracetamol if pain or fever are causing distress (avoid nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs). Note that oral paracetamol is not licensed for use in children under 2 months of age.
Topical calamine lotion to alleviate itch.
Chlorphenamine for treating itch associated with chickenpox for people 1 year of age or older.

373
Q

What is a cohort study?

A

A study that identifies a group of people and follows them over a period of time to see how their exposure affects their outcomes. Usually used to look at suspected risk factors that cannot be controlled experimentally.

374
Q

High risk of sepsis

A

objective evidence of new altered mental state

respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute or above, or new need for 40% oxygen or more to maintain oxygen saturation more than 92% (or more than 88% in known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)

heart rate of more than 130 beats per minute

systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg or less, or systolic blood pressure more than 40 mmHg below normal

not passed urine in previous 18 hours (for catheterised patients, passed less than 0.5 ml/kg/hour)

mottled or ashen appearance

cyanosis of the skin, lips or tongue

non-blanching rash of the skin.

375
Q

If patient has run out of supply of isosorbide mononitrate

A

Can sell as P med

376
Q

When to review warfarin

A

Two INR values higher than 5, or one INR value higher than 8 within the past 6 months.
Two INR values less than 1.5 within the past 6 months.
Time in therapeutic range (TTR) is less than 65%.

377
Q

Commencing rivaroxaban/apixaban

A

Wait till INR<2 before starting

378
Q

Measuring theophylline levels

A

5 days after initiation

3 days after dose adjustment

379
Q

Paracetamol dose for Child 1–2 months

A

30–60 mg every 8 hours as required

380
Q

Paracetamol dose for Child 3-5 months

A

60 mg every 8 hours as required

381
Q

Paracetamol dose for Child 6-23 months

A

120 mg every 4–6 hours

382
Q

Paracetamol dose for Child 2-3 years

A

180 mg every 4–6 hours

383
Q

Paracetamol dose for Child 4-5 years

A

240 mg every 4–6 hours

384
Q

Paracetamol dose for Child 6-7 years

A

240–250 mg every 4–6 hours

385
Q

Paracetamol dose for Child 8-9 years

A

360–375 mg every 4–6 hours

386
Q

Paracetamol dose for Child 10-11 years

A

480–500 mg every 4–6 hours

387
Q

Paracetamol dose for Child 12-15 years

A

480–750 mg every 4–6 hours

388
Q

Paracetamol dose for Child 16-17 years

A

0.5–1 g every 4–6 hours

389
Q

Ibuprofen dose for Child 3–5 months

A

50 mg 3 times a day

390
Q

Ibuprofen dose for Child 6-11 months

A

50 mg 3–4 times a day

391
Q

Ibuprofen dose for Child 1-3 years

A

100 mg 3 times a day, maximum daily dose to be given in 3–4 divided doses

392
Q

Ibuprofen dose for Child 4-6 years

A

150 mg 3 times a day, maximum daily dose to be given in 3–4 divided doses

393
Q

Ibuprofen dose for Child 7-9 years

A

200 mg 3 times a day, maximum daily dose to be given in 3–4 divided doses

394
Q

Ibuprofen dose for Child 10-11 years

A

300 mg 3 times a day, maximum daily dose to be given in 3–4 divided doses

395
Q

Ibuprofen dose for Child 12-17 years

A

Initially 300–400 mg 3–4 times a day; increased if necessary up to 600 mg 4 times a day

396
Q

First choice laxative during pregnancy

A

Ispaghula husk (Bulk forming)

397
Q

Can be given for prophylaxis of travellers diarrhoea

A

Loperamide

398
Q

Potential side effects of theophylline

A
Anxiety
Arrhythmias
Diarrhoea
Dizziness
GI discomfort
GORD
Headache
Nausea
Palpitations
Seizures
Skin reactions
Sleep disorders
Tremors
Urinary disorders
Vomiting
399
Q

Potential side effects of tolterodine

A
Abdominal pain
Bronchitis
Chest pain
Diarrhoea
Dry eye
Fatigue
GI disorders
Parasthesia
Peripheral oedema
Vertigo
Weight increased
400
Q

Pain relief to avoid in increased risk of falls

A

Codeine

401
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia symptoms

A

Trigeminal neuralgia is sudden, severe facial pain. It’s often described as a sharp shooting pain or like having an electric shock in the jaw, teeth or gums.

402
Q

How does neuropathic pain present?

A

The pain is usually described as a burning sensation and affected areas are often sensitive to the touch.

403
Q

NICE clinical guidelines

A

Recommendations about the appropriate treatment and care of people with specific diseases and conditions within the NHS

404
Q

When OTC sale of hydrocortisone is not appropriate?

A

Angular chelitis

405
Q

What is legally not required on CD prescription?

A

Strength of tablet

406
Q

When OTC sale of hydrocortisone is not appropriate?

A

Angular chelitis

407
Q

Carbimazole

A

May cause weight gain

Reduce dose

408
Q

Disposing fentanyl patches

A

Used patches should be folded in half with the adhesive surfaces inwards so that the adhesive is not exposed.

409
Q

How long for an adult to excrete one unit of alcohol?

A

1 hour

410
Q

Sevelamer

A

Treating hyperphosphataemia

411
Q

Electrolyte imbalance in CKD

A

Hyperphosphataemia

412
Q

Vitamin D overdose can cause

A

Hypercalcaemia

413
Q

Ciprofloxacin on skilled tasks

A

Can impair performance

414
Q

Effective in treating antibiotic-associated colitis

A

Vancomycin

415
Q

Ramipril-lithium

A

Ramipril increases lithium levels- can lead to drowsiness

416
Q

MAOIs eg moclobemide

A

Hypertensive crisis

417
Q

Thiazide diuretics are ineffective below what eGFR

A

30

418
Q

Cystitis referral

A

<16 and >65

419
Q

Procedures for handling cytotoxic medicines

A

The BNF states that local, rather than national procedures should be use “Use local procedures for dealing with spillages and safe disposal of waste material, including syringes, containers, and absorbent material”.

420
Q

Maximum dosing of ramipril based on eGFR

A

30-60ml/min/1.73m2- 5mg

421
Q

Before meals glucose targets

A

Non-diabetic: 4.0-5.9mmol/L

Diabetic: 4-7mmol/L

422
Q

Post prandial (at least 90 mins) glucose targets

A

Non-diabetic: <7.8mmol/L
Type 2: <8.5mmol/L
Type 1: 5-9mmol/L

423
Q

Dose of ibandronic acid for post-menopausal osteoporosis

A

150mg once monthly

424
Q

Which antibiotics are contraindicated in myasthenia gravis?

A

Aminoglycosides

They may impair neuromuscular transmission.

425
Q

Which drugs may cause alopecia?

A

Methotrexate

Azathioprine

426
Q

Factors that may improve the management of erectile dysfunction

A

Reduced alcohol consumption
Reduction in BMI
Regular exercise
Smoking cessation

427
Q

Blood glucose threshold for driving

A

5mmol/l

428
Q

Lithium renal monitoring

A

Every 6 months

429
Q

What dose of ibuprofen should be given to a 4 year old?

A

7.5ml TDS

430
Q

Age for sildenafil OTC sale

A

18 years

431
Q

Licensed age for salmeterol

A

5 years old and over

432
Q

Which drugs can cause hypertension?

A

NSAIDs

433
Q

Doxycycline-omeprazole

A

Doxycyline can cause dyspepsia, oesophagitis and oesophageal irritation

434
Q

Which preparation cannot be in a ‘sugar-free’ product?

A

Fructose

Hydrogenated glucose syrup, mannitol, sorbitol and xylitol can be in them

435
Q

Signs to look out for with methotrexate

A

Shortness of breath (can cause lung toxicity)
Sore throat, bruising, mouth ulcers (blood disorders)
Nausea, vomiting, abdominal discomfort, dark urine (liver toxicity)

436
Q

Insulin requirements

A

INCREASE- infection, stress, trauma and puberty

DECREASE- endocrine disorders, hepatic impairment and renal impairment

437
Q

Which drugs have a high risk of agranulocytosis?

A

Trimethoprim

Clozapine

438
Q

Weight restriction of Maloff Protect

A

Not recommended in patients under 40kg

439
Q

Signs of sepsis

A
Slurred speech or confusion
Extreme shivering or muscle pain
Passing no urine (in a day)
Severe breathlessness
It feels like theyre gonna die
Skin mottled, pale or discoloured
440
Q

Fexofenadine age

A

POM only

6 years and over

441
Q

Chlorphenamine age

A

1 year and over

442
Q

Complete control of asthma

A

no daytime symptoms
no night-time awakening due to asthma
no asthma attacks
no need for rescue medication
no limitations on activity including exercise
normal lung function (in practical terms forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and/or peak expiratory flow (PEF) > 80% predicted or best),
minimal side-effects from treatment

443
Q

Common side effect of verapamil

A

Constipation

444
Q

What is miliaria?

A

Heat rash or sweat rash

445
Q

Molluscum contagiosum

A

Small warty bumps (mollusca) appear on the skin. Caused by a virus that can be passed on by skin contact or from contaminated towels, flannels, soft toys, etc. Not serious and clears up within 12-18 months without any treatment.

446
Q

What to do if patient presents with shingles

A

Refer to GP

447
Q

What is administered in acute porphyria crisis?

A

Haem arginate

448
Q

What are the notifiable diseases?

A
Acute encephalitis
Acute infectious hepatitis
Acute meningitis
Acute poliomyelitis
Anthrax
Botulism
Brucellosis
Cholera
COVID-19
Diphtheria
Enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever)
Food poisoning
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS)
Infectious bloody diarrhoea
Invasive group A streptococcal disease
Legionnaires’ disease
Leprosy
Malaria
Measles
Meningococcal septicaemia
Mumps
Plague
Rabies
Rubella
Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)
Scarlet fever
Smallpox
Tetanus
Tuberculosis
Typhus
Viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF)
Whooping cough
Yellow fever
449
Q

Of the MAOIs, which is most likely to cause hypertensive crisis?

A

Tranylcypromine

Isocarboxazid carries the lowest risk

450
Q
Which of these are irreversible inhibitors?
Phenelzine
Moclomebide
Reboxetine
Escitalopram
A

Phenelzine

The rest are reversible inhibitors

451
Q

Mechanism of action of DPP-4 inhibitors

A

Enhances the activity of GLP-1 thus increasing glucose-dependent insulin secretion and decreasing levels of circulating glucagon and hepatic glucose production.

452
Q

Hyoscine age

A

4 years

453
Q

Cinnarazine age

A

5 years

454
Q

Which virus causes viral conjunctivitis?

A

Adenovirus

455
Q

Holiday longer than how long requires a personal export license for CDs?

A

more than 3 months’ supply or travelling for less than 3 months with any schedule 2 to 4 (part I) drugs which have been lawfully prescribed to you in your country of habitual residence.

456
Q

Severe anaphylaxis reaction symptoms

A
swelling of the throat and mouth
difficulty breathing
lightheadedness
confusion
blue skin or lips
collapsing and losing consciousness
457
Q

Legal requirements of controlled drug requisition form

A
Signature of the recipient
Name of the recipient
Address of the recipient
Profession or occupation
Total quantity of drug
Purpose of requisition

Mark the requisition indelibly with the supplier’s name and address (i.e. the name of the pharmacy). Where a pharmacy stamp is used this must be clear and legible
Send the original requisition form to the relevant NHS agency.

(Hospital, care home, hospice, prison or organisation providing ambulance services must, mark and retain the original requisition for two years)

458
Q

OTC Aspirin in pregnancy

A

Community pharmacies cannot legally sell aspirin as a pharmacy medicine for prevention of pre-eclampsia in pregnancy in England. Aspirin for this indication must be prescribed.

459
Q

Aspirin in pregnancy

A

Use antiplatelet doses with caution during third trimester; impaired platelet function and risk of haemorrhage; delayed onset and increased duration of labour with increased blood loss; avoid analgesic doses if possible in last few weeks (low doses probably not harmful); high doses may be related to intrauterine growth restriction, teratogenic effects, closure of fetal ductus arteriosus in utero and possibly persistent pulmonary hypertension of newborn; kernicterus may occur in jaundiced neonates.

460
Q

Aspirin in breastfeeding

A

Avoid—possible risk of Reye’s syndrome; regular use of high doses could impair platelet function and produce hypoprothrombinaemia in infant if neonatal vitamin K stores low.

461
Q

How long does opioid withdrawal take?

A

Complete withdrawal from opioids usually takes up to 4 weeks in an inpatient or residential setting, and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

462
Q

Methadone vs buprenorphine

A

Buprenorphine- less sedating, safer when used in conjunction with other sedating drugs (lower risk of overdose), easier to reduce dose due to milder withdrawal symptoms

Methadone- preferred in long history of abuse, those who abuse a variety of sedative drugs and alcohol and have increased during withdrawal.

463
Q

Precipitated withdrawal

A

Precipitated withdrawal can occur in any patient if buprenorphine is administered when other opioid agonist drugs are in circulation.
Starts within 1-3 hours of first buprenorphine dose and peaks at 6 hours.

464
Q

When to give first dose of buprenorphine?

A

6-12 hours after the last dose of heroin (or other short acting opioid) or 24-48 hours after the last dose methadone dose.
Can titrate to optimal dose within a week

465
Q

When to initiate methadone?

A

At least 8 hours after the last heroin dose
Takes 3-10 days for plasma concentrations to reach steady state
Can titrate to optimal dose takes a couple of weeks.

466
Q

Withdrawal of opioid substitution therapy

A

Avoid withdrawing during first trimester due to increased risk of spontaneous miscarriage.
Can gradually withdraw during second trimester, with dose reductions every 3-5 days. Further withdrawal during 3rd trimester is not recommended (foetal distress, stillbirth, and risk of neonatal mortality)

467
Q

Laxatives for opioid-induced constipation

A

Osmotic (or docusate to soften the stools)
Stimulant laxative

AVOID bulk forming

Naloxegol and methylnaltrexone (also used in palliative care) are licensed when other laxatives are inadequate.

468
Q

Suboxone

A

Contains with buprenorphine with naloxone
Used when risk of dose diversion for parenteral administration
If injected, it precipitates withdrawal but has little effect if taken sublingually.

469
Q

Postherpetic neuralgia

A

Most common complication of shingles. The condition affects nerve fibers and skin, causing burning pain that lasts long after the rash and blisters of shingles disappear.

470
Q

Treating neuropathic pain

A

amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin

Consider capsaicin 0.075% cream (Axsain®) for people with localized neuropathic pain who wish to avoid, or cannot tolerate, oral treatments.

471
Q

Weaning corticosteroids

A

Short courses of oral corticosteroids (less than 3 weeks) can be stopped abruptly. Gradual withdrawal should be considered for people whose disease is unlikely to relapse and who have:
Taken more than 40 mg oral prednisolone daily or equivalent for more than 1 week.
Taken repeated evening doses of corticosteroids.
Received more than 3 weeks of corticosteroid treatment.
Recently received repeated courses of corticosteroids (especially if taken for longer than 3 weeks), such as short courses repeatedly prescribed for the treatment of acute exacerbations of asthma.
A history of previous long-term therapy (months or years).
Other possible causes of adrenal suppression, such as excessive alcohol consumption or stress.

472
Q

Stage 1 hypertension

A

140/90 mmHg to 159/99 mmHg and subsequent ABPM daytime average or HBPM average blood pressure ranging from 135/85 mmHg to 149/94 mmHg.

473
Q

Stage 2 hypertension

A

160/100 mmHg or higher but less than 180/120 mmHg and subsequent ABPM daytime average or HBPM average blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg or higher.

474
Q

Stage 3 or severe hypertension

A

180 mmHg or higher or clinic diastolic blood pressure of 120 mmHg or higher.

475
Q

Which drug should be avoided with potassium citrate?

A

Ramipril

Concomitant use can cause hyperkalaemia

476
Q

Which sweetener can cause abdominal bloating and diarrhoea?

A

Sorbitol

477
Q

Orlistat- who to refer?

A

Patients taking medication for diabetes - dose of diabetic medication may need adjusting as weight loss may be accompanied by improved metabolic control. Orlistat 60mg P is not recommended for use by patients who are taking acarbose.
Patients taking hypertension or hypercholesterolaemia medication - it may be necessary to adjust the dose as weight loss may be accompanied by an improvement in blood pressure and /or cholesterol levels.
Patients taking amiodarone should be informed to liaise with their prescriber before starting treatment with orlistat. The dose of amiodarone may need adjusting.
Patients taking levothyroxine.
Patients taking antiepileptic medication. There is an increased risk of convulsions when orlistat is given with antiepileptics.
Patients who have been using orlistat for 6 months and longer; treatment with orlistat 60mg P should not exceed six months.
If a patient has been unable to lose weight after 12 weeks of treatment.
If a patient reports rectal bleeding while taking orlistat.
Patients with kidney disease should consult their GP before using orlistat 60mg P

478
Q

Which class of antidiabetic drugs can cause pancreatitis?

A

DPP-4 inhibitors

479
Q

What can green leafy vegetables do to INR?

A

Decrease INR

480
Q

What can cranberry juice do to INR?

A

Increase INR

481
Q

GLP-1 agonists

A

Reports of diabetic ketoacidosis when concomitant insulin was rapidly reduced or discontinued
Needs to be reported to the Yellow Card Scheme

482
Q

Potential side effects of bimatoprost

A

Dry eye; eye discolouration; eye discomfort; eye disorders; eye inflammation; headache; hypertension; hypertrichosis; skin reactions; vision disorders

483
Q

What can be given for hayfever in open angle glaucoma?

A

Sodium cromoglicate (Opticrom)

484
Q

Very bad headache in pregnancy

A

Call your midwife, doctor or hospital straight away if you have a headache and vision problems and sudden swelling on your hands, feet, face or stomach. This could be a sign of pre-eclampsia

485
Q

Risk of cancers with HRT

A

Breast- increased (higher for HRT)
Ovarian- increased and would return back to normal upon treatment cessation
Womb (endometrial):
HRT- decreases
Oestrogen only- increases (only offered to those who have had a hysterectomy)
Tibolone also increases womb cancer risk

486
Q

Which EHC should be given if patient is on the pill?

A

Levonorgestrel

If ullipristal needs to be used, progestrogen containing meds should be restarted after 5 days and should be advised to use reliable barrier method till then.

487
Q

Which EHC should be given if patient’s BMI>26kg/m2 or weigh over 70kg?

A

Ullipristal

488
Q

Which condition can increase the likelihood of developing TB?

A

Diabetes

489
Q

Record of unlicensed specials must be kept for how long?

A

5 years

490
Q

Restrictions on Nurse Independent Prescribing

A

Nurse independent prescribers are able to prescribed any Schedule 2, 3, 4 or 5 Controlled Drug (except diamorphine, dipipanone or cocaine for the treatment of addiction), so whether the nurse is an independent or supplementary prescriber does not matter as both are able to prescribe this drug.

491
Q

Disposing of blister packs

A

Meds should not be removed from blister packs unless they are controlled drugs that required denaturing

492
Q

How much fish should be recommended per week?

A

2 portions

1 portion of oily fish

493
Q

Which antiemetic is used for nausea and vomiting associated with Parkinson’s medication?

A

Domperidone

494
Q

Who receives the HPV vaccine?

A

all boys and girls aged 12 to 13 years are routinely offered the 1st HPV vaccination when they’re in Year 8 at school. The 2nd dose is offered 6 to 24 months after the 1st dose.

495
Q

Max dose of escitalopram

A

Usually 20mg, but 10mg in elderly

496
Q

Usual dose of promethazine

A

25mg

497
Q

What to do if baby is constantly crying, is red in the face and pulls legs up to chest?

A

Signs of colic- simethicone (Infacol)

498
Q

Maximum amount time it can take for NSAID to reach its maximum anti-inflammatory effect

A

21 days

499
Q

How long would PPI need to be stopped before having H pylori test?

A

14 days

500
Q

Which antidiabetic meds pose increased risk of UTIs?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors e.g. dapagliflozin

501
Q

Which beta blockers are less likely to cause nightmares?

A
Water soluble BBs: 
Sotalol
Celiprolol
Atenolol
Nadolol
502
Q

Symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease

A

o high temperature
o general sense of feeling unwell
o loss of appetite
o abdominal pain
o sore throat
o red spots on the tongue and inside the mouth after one or two days
o rash on the fingers, palms of hand, soles of the feet and occasionally on the buttocks and groins

503
Q

How to treat hand, foot and mouth disease

A

drink plenty of fluids to avoid dehydration, eat soft foods, analgesics such as paracetamol or ibuprofen

504
Q

How to treat chickenpox

A

Recommend calamine lotion and paracetamol and avoid ibuprofen

505
Q

Who is eligible for the NHS flu vaccine?

A

are 50 and over (including those who’ll be 50 by 31 March 2021)
All people aged between 6 months to under 50 years who are in a clinical risk group, such as people with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, or neurological disease; people with diabetes mellitus; people who are immunosuppressed or immunocompromised, pregnant women, people with morbid obesity and people who are on the COVID-19 shielded patient list and members of their household.
are pregnant
are in long-stay residential care
receive a carer’s allowance, or are the main carer for an older or disabled person who may be at risk if you get sick
live with someone who’s at high risk from coronavirus (on the NHS shielded patient list)
frontline health or social care workers

506
Q

Signs of hypoglycaemia

A
sweating.
feeling tired.
dizziness.
feeling hungry.
tingling lips.
feeling shaky or trembling.
a fast or pounding heartbeat (palpitations)
becoming easily irritated, tearful, anxious or moody.
507
Q

What is betahistine licensed for?

A

Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss associated with Ménière’s disease

508
Q

Which antihypertensive can cause drowsiness?

A

Methyldopa

509
Q

What is the maximum dose of simvastatin that can be given with amiodarone, amlodipine, verapamil and diltiazem?

A

20mg

510
Q

What is the maximum dose of simvastatin that can be given with bezafibrate or ciprofibrate?

A

10mg

511
Q

What is the maximum dose of simvastatin that can be given with lomitapide or ticagrelor?

A

40mg

512
Q

NSAIDs with the highest risk of gastrointestinal risk

A

Ketoprofen and ketorolac

Naproxen, diclofenac and indometacin have intermediate risk

513
Q

Amitriptyline- amiodarone

A

Black dot interaction

Can increase the risk of ventricular arrhythmias

514
Q

Signs of bladder cancer

A

haematuria, dysuria or urinary urgency

515
Q

Risk factor for bladder cancer

A

Smoking

516
Q

How long before the journey should hyoscine be taken?

A

Up to 30 mins before

Patches to be applied 5-6 hours before to the area behind the ear

517
Q

Which electrolyte imbalance are those who have a stoma predisposed to?

A

Hypokalaemia

518
Q

What organisms can cause CAP?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib)

519
Q

Treating CAP

A

Amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 5 days

Clarithromycin, Doxycycline, Erythromycin (pregnancy)

520
Q

How long should you wait before using fentanyl patches again?

A

7 days