Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

pha110 > past exam questions > Flashcards

past exam questions Flashcards

1
Q

describe the process of apoptosis

A

apoptosis is cell suicide or cell murder. cells will commit suicide when they lack any incoming survival signal in the form of trophic factors , or when they detect extensive DNA damage in their own nucleus. the major steps in apoptosis is that the cell shrinks , then the cell turns into cell fragments. the cytoskeleton collapses and the nuclear envelope disassembles. The cell then releases apoptotic bodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the location of the nucleolus and its function

A

the nucleolus is found inside the nucleus of a cell. the function of the nucleolus is to produce and assemble the cells ribosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

With regards to the cell cycle what is G0

A

the G0 is the quiescent phase. This is the phase of the cell cycle when the cell is neither dividing or preparing to divide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what effects to competitive inhibitors have on Vmax and KM

A

competitive inhibitors do not have an effect on Vmax or KM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

give 2 examples of granulocytes

A

neutrophils and basophils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the difference between EC50 and ED50 of a drug

A

EC50 is the dose required for an individual to experience 50 % of the max effect. ED50 is the dose for 50 % of the population to obtain the therapeutic effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is meant by the term analytical chemistry

A

analytical chemistry is the study and use of instruments and methods to separate , identify and quantify matter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

name 2 analytical techniques that can be used for determining the 3-D structure of a protein or protein complex

A

X-ray crystallography and nuclear magnetic resonance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

provide 2 advantages of the use of size exclusion chromatography for the analysis of proteins

A

the advantages include good separation of large molecules from the small. can be applied without interfering with the filtration process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

outline the process of glycolysis

A

pyruvate is changed to acetyl CoA using three main steps. these are decarboxylation , reduction of NAD+ and the attachment of Acetyl CoA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

examples of drugs from natural sources

A

antimalarial drug quinine and analgesic morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

a sequence of 3 nucleotide bases of MRNA

A

codon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the impact of deletion of the TATA box from the gene of a eukaryotic promotor

A

deletion of the Tata box results in loss of the corresponding cap sites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

name the two pathways of endocytosis

A

dynamin-dependent and dynamin-independent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

4 factors which effect the choice of route of administration

A

bioavailability
patient compliance
cost
side affects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

2 routes of administration which can by pass 1st metabolism

A

intravenous injection and inhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

4 functional groups present in amoxicillin

A

hydroxyl
amino group
amide group
carboxylic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

out of the cycloalkanes which is the most stable and why

A

cyclohexane is the most stable. it is the most stable because it can adopt the chair configuration which has no angle strain and low torsional strain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is meant by the term pharmacophore

A

a pharmacophore is the ensemble of steric and electronic features that is necessary to ensure that optimal supra-molecular interactions with a specific biological target structure and to trigger its biological response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

four cellular features associated with necrosis

A

swelling of organelles, such as the endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria, the rupture of the plasma membrane, and the lysis of the cell. [17] These changes cause cells to be more eosinophilic, glassy, and vacuolated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

give 2 reasons why mitochondrial DNA was thought to be inherited solely from the mother

A

when the sperm enters the egg , the tail is left outside . this is where the mtDNA is found in the sperm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

hemidesmosomes are a type of cell junction. which structures do they anchor?

A

they anchor the cell wall to a cell matrix. they anchor intermediate filaments to the ECM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which part of the blastocyst develops into the i) placenta ii) develops the embryo

A

I) the trophoblast
ii) inner cell mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is a prion disease? give an example and explain how it happens.

A

prion disease is a transmissible , untreatable and fatal brain disease. an example of this is Creutzfeldt-jakob disease. this is caused by an abnormal isoform of cellular glycoproteins known as prion protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

factors that effect hydrolysis

A

temperature
catalysis
ionic strength
structure of the reactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

primary amine + ketone =

A

imine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

pharmacognosy

A

is the study of medicinal drugs derived from natural sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

name two naturally derived drugs and the plants they are derived from

A

analgesic morphine - opium poppy
anti malarial drug quinine - cinchoa tree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what type of reaction is Krebs cycle step 1

A

a condensation reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are adverse reactions associated with the use of non-selective NSAIDS

A

perforation , ulcers and bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

2 types of anchoring filaments which are found between cells

A

adherent and desmosomes

32
Q

2 types of anchoring filaments found between cell and matrix

A

actin cell linked matrix and hemidesmosomes

33
Q

what is the function of the occluding junction.

A

the function of the occluding junction is to prevent lateral flow of integral membrane proteins from basal to apical . the other function is to block gaps between to prevent the flow of molecules freely and to ensure if they want to pass they will go through the cell.

34
Q

examples of proteins involved in occluding junctions

A

occludin and Claudin

35
Q

function of vitamin B1

A

to improve metabolism of carbohydrates

36
Q

what is the disease of vitamin B1 , name a good source of vitamin B1

A

BeriBeri is a disease of vitamin B1 and a good source of vitamin B1 is eggs

37
Q

role of vitamin B2 and the problems deficiency can cause

A

B2 catalyses dehydrogenation reactions and metabolises foods including liver and kidneys. deficiency can cause eye problems and skin disorders

38
Q

which vitamin is part of Co-Enzyme-A

A

Vitamin B (panthoic acid)

39
Q

list 4 physical instability of a pharmaceutical product

A

volatility
polymorphism
denaturation
loss or uptake of solvent

40
Q

what is the isoelectric point of a protein

A

the isoelectric point is the point exactly in the middle of two PKA values where it equals 0

41
Q

what is cytokinesis

A

cytokinesis is the cytoplasmic division at the end of mitosis , bringing separation into 2 daughter cells

42
Q

what is isomerases function in relation to enzymes

A

isomerases catalyse the movement of functional groups within a molecule . an example of this is alanine

43
Q

what is the function of hemidesmosomes

A

the function of hemidesmosomes is to anchor the ECM to the intermediate filaments

44
Q

how to increase aqueous solubility for a prodrug

A

esterification

45
Q

four functions of nucleotides

A

building blocks for nucleic acids
storage for chemical energy
carriers of activated metabolites for biosynthesis
metabolic regulators

46
Q

what is recombinant DNA

A

recombinant DNA is DNA that has been made from 2 particles

47
Q

briefly describe the process of producing a recombinant DNA

A

DNA is isolated ad purified . DNA is cleaved to get the correct length and width strands. DNA is then ligases . The DNA will then be introduced to a compatible host cell where it can be expressed and replicated . To check if there is recombinant DNA , the DNA will be screened.

48
Q

explain the significance of primary , secondary and tertiary structure of proteins

A

primary stricture is a linear structure . The second structure is not able to be made without the primary structure as it is a spontaneously folded into a regular and defined shape based on the primary structure . the tertiary structure is a 3-D structure of a polypeptide , this is a folded compact secondary structure.

49
Q

explain the principle of mass spectrometry and why it is useful for determining the size of a protein or protein complex

A

mass spectrometry is an analytical techniques that separate ionised particles such as atoms , molecules and clusters by using the differences in the ratios of their charge and their masses which can help to find their molecular weight. this can be used to determine the size of proteins and seperate them based on size.

50
Q

explain the principle of size exclusion chromatography and how it can be used to separate proteins

A

Size exclusion chromatography (SEC) separates molecules based on their size by filtration through a gel. The gel consists of spherical beads containing pores of a specific size distribution. Separation occurs when molecules of different sizes are included or excluded from the pores within the matrix.

51
Q

what is vmax with regards of enzyme activity

A

vmax is the reaction rate when the enzyme is fully saturated by substrate

52
Q

what is KM with regards of enzyme activity

A

KM is the concentration of the substrate which permits the enzyme to achieve half of Vmax

53
Q

ester + ? = carboxylic acid
amine + ? = amide

A

water

54
Q

explain the difference between inter and intra molecular H bonding . how do they affect boiling point and aqueous solubility of compounds

A

intermolecular bonding occurs between molecules of the same atom
intramolecular bonding occurs between 2 molecules .
they increase boiling point

55
Q

Log P , Ptrue and Papparent

A

PTrue - ratio of concentration of unionised particles in a mixture of two immiscible liquids .
Pappsrent - ratio of concentrations of ionised particles in a mixture of two immiscible liquids
LogP - A measure of the preference of a compound to dissolve in either water or an organic solvent (such as octanol) when uncharged.

56
Q

3 amino acids that would have an overall i) neutral nett ii) positive charge iii) negative charge

A

I) gly-gly-gly
ii) gly-lys-gly
iii) gly-asp-gly

57
Q

what interactions are involved when a substrate interacts with the active site of an enzyme

A

H-bonds , van Der Waals , ionic when substrate interacts with the active site of an enzyme.

58
Q

allosteric

A

change in shape and activity of a protein

59
Q

agonist

A

a drug or endogenous compound that when binds to a receptor causes a biological response .

60
Q

antagonist

A

a drug or endogenous compound that when binds to a receptor does not cause a biological response .

61
Q

suggest 2 possible mechanisms by which enzymes can catalyse biological reactions

A

provide a catalyst
provide a nucleotide

62
Q

describe the mode of action of penicillin antibiotics against bacteria

A

penicillin kills bacteria through binding of the B-lactam ring to the DD-transpeptidase inhibiting its cross linking activity and preventing new cell wall formation .

63
Q

what are the three issues associated with penicillin antibiotics and how can they be counteracted

A

sensitivity to stomach acid - add acyl side chain to make it electron withdrawing .
sensitivity to B-lactam- use stearic shields
limited range of activity - vary R side group till effective .

64
Q

why is penicillin V active when administered orally but penicillin G is not

A

penicillin V is active orally because it is much more stable compared to penicillin g which is too unstable to work orally .

65
Q

what is mean by the term rotamer

A

conformational isomer can be drawn rotated , staggered or eclipsed. it is not quiet free rotation due to torsional strain .

66
Q

what is meant by anti, gauche , staggered and eclipsed

A

anti is a staggered conformation which is the most stable due its substituents being the farthest apart (180)
Gauche is staggered conformation in which substituents are directly L or R of each other ( more than 0 less than 120)
staggered - newman projections , rotation around the c-c bonds . atoms are far away so it requires less energy (very stable)
eclipsed - newman projections. rotation around the c-c bond , relatively unstable due to torsional strain.

67
Q

what is torsional energy and torsional strain

A

torsional energy is the energy required to rotate ethane about the c-c bond.
torsional strain is the resistance to bond twisting / rotating

68
Q

name the 2 conformations and which is most stable

A

the boat and the chair .
the chair is the most stable as it lacks torsional strain or angle strain .

69
Q

what would happen if cyclohexane contained substituent groups - how would this affect the stability

A

this would increase the stability

70
Q

what happens when cyclohexane flips between 2 chair conformations

A

substituents move from equatorial to axial and vice versa. when substituents are in equatorial position , it is much more stable as when axial it is less crowded and less repulsive actions

71
Q

name the alternative naming system of geometric isomers

A

E-Z system , if the alkane is tri or tetra substituted system based on prioritisation of the molecular weight of the atoms. Z is if the highest molecular weight are on the same side .

72
Q

enantiomer

A

chiral compounds whose molecules are non super imposable mirror images of each other

73
Q

diastereoisomer

A

stereoisomer whose molecules are not mirror images of each other

74
Q

apoptosis

A

apoptosis is the programmed cell death - it is vital process that eliminates unwanted cells; an internally programmed series of events.
>cell shrinkage
> membranes remain intact
> cell is phagocyted so no inflammatory response
> DNA fragmented into nucleosome sized fragments

75
Q

necrosis

A

necrosis occurs after irreversible cell injury ; changes produced by enzymatic digestion of dead cellular elements.
> cellular swelling
> membranes rupture
> random DNA fragmentation
> cell contents are released eliciting an inflammatory response
examples : frost bite , gangrene

pha110 (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions