Passing the PMP: Whole Book Flashcards

1
Q

The ________ is the official text for the PMI examination

A

PMBOK

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2
Q

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements is:

A

Project Management

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3
Q

PMI was founded in:

A

1969

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4
Q

A project is a ___________ endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

A

Temporary

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5
Q

In 2000, _______ certified the PMBOK as the standard for project management literature.

A

American National Standards Institute (ANSI)

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6
Q

Planning and Closing are two parts of a _________ approach to project management.

A

Phase

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7
Q

Each knowledge area is divided into ________ areas.

A

Process

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8
Q

Each process is divided into:

A

Inputs, Tools and Techniques, and Outputs

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9
Q

Which is the best model for studying for the PMI examination?

A

Both . The Phase Model and The Knowledge Area model

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10
Q

The single phase that has the most questions about it on the examination is the ________ phase.

A

Planning

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11
Q

What is the best time to sit for the examination?

A

Immediately after taking the course

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12
Q

The person in the organization who authorizes the commencement of a project is the:

A

Sponsor

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13
Q

The document that authorizes the release of organizational resources to the project is the:

A

Charter

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14
Q

The project manager is assigned in the:

A

Charter

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15
Q

Without a ________ the project cannot go forward.

A

Charter

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16
Q

A project manager is assigned to a project in the ________ phase of the project.

A

Initiation

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17
Q

______ scope determines the features and functions of the output of the project.

A

Product

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18
Q

The work that needs to be done to produce a product/service is included in the:

A

Project Scope

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19
Q

The tangible measurement or outcome that must be produced to complete a part of a project or the project itself is called a:

A

Deliverable

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20
Q

A description of the final deliverable is one of the best ways to make sure that you are in control of the project in the ________ phase.

A

Closing

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21
Q

The Work Breakdown Structure is done by:

A

The Project team

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22
Q

The WBS is done during Scope Definition; Scope Definition comes between:

A

Scope Planning and Scope Verification

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23
Q

Most projects need ________ meeting(s) to do a good WBS.

A

Multiple

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24
Q

A good WBS:

A

Helps pull the team together, Is a roadmap for the project, Defines the scope

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25
Q

Getting the WBS done is the responsibility of:

A

The Project Manager

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26
Q

The project team is created in the ________ phase.

A

Planning

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27
Q

The document that shows the tasks needed to complete the project in detail is the:

A

WBS

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28
Q

The single most important position for completing a project successfully is the:

A

Project Manager

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29
Q

Which phase of a project has the least risk?

A

Planning, Because you have not committed the major part of your resources

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30
Q

The document that describes the objectives, work content, deliverables, and end product of a project is the:

A

Scope Statement, it controls pretty much everything that goes on in execution

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31
Q

Which one of these comes first in the project plan?

A

Scope Statement, You have to have a Scope Statement before doing any other parts of the plan

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32
Q

Which of these plans is not done during the writing of a project plan?

A

Executive Communication,

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33
Q

Who is responsible for the formation of the final project plan?

A

Project Manager

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34
Q

What is another name for functional structure?

A

Line

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35
Q

Which of these types of matrix structure gives the project manager the most control?

A

Strong; Next to a projectized form of organization, a strong matrix gives the most authority to the project manager.

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36
Q

Three types of organizational structure discussed in PMBOK are:

A

Matrix, functional, projectized

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37
Q

The type of organization where the project manager has the least authority is:

A

Functional

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38
Q

You can use project management skills in which of the following structural organizations?

A

Functional, Matrix, Projectized

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39
Q

The title of a manager who is responsible for more than one project is:

A

Program Manager: A program manager manages multiple projects and project managers.

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40
Q

Communication in a matrix environment is usually classified as:

A

Complex; This is because the project team members may have reporting lines to more than one person, which causes very complex communication and authority issues.

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41
Q

A project team member working in a functional organization reports to:

A

The Functional Manager

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42
Q

Definition of a Project Manager

A

The person who has the responsibility for the outcome of the project.

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43
Q

Definition of a Team Members

A

The project team that does the actual work on the project.

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44
Q

Definition of a Sponsor

A

The person or group that allocates resources to the project.

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45
Q

Definition of a Customer

A

The individual or organization that will use the output of the project. Other names for this stakeholder may be “client” or “user.”

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46
Q

Which one of these types is generally not a stakeholder?

A. Project Manager

B. Sponsor

C. Project Observer

D. Project Team Member

A

Project Observer

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47
Q

Stakeholders are important because:

A

Their interests may be positively or negatively affected by the project

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48
Q

If there are 2 people in the communication system, how many channels will there be?

A

1

Formula: N(N–1)/2, where N=the number of people
2(2–1)/2 = 1 or 2(1)/2 = 1

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49
Q

If there are 4 people in the communication system, how many channels will there be?

A

6

Formula: N(N–1)/2, where N=the number of people
4(4–1)/2 = 6 or 4(3)/2 = 6

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50
Q

What is the difference in communication channels between 6 and 9 people?

A

21

Formula: N(N–1)/2, where N=the number of people
6(6–1)/2 = 15 or 6(5)/2 = 15
9(9–1)/2 = 36 or 9(8)/2 = 36.

36-15 = 21

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51
Q

What are you measured against during the Execution phase of the project?

A

Project Baseline

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52
Q

Who should go to status meetings?

A

The people in the communication plan

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53
Q

Status meetings should be held at least:

A

Once a week

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54
Q

The most important document for running a status meeting professionally is:

A

An agenda

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55
Q

The person writing down meeting notes for a project status meeting is called a:

A

Scribe

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56
Q

What are the actions called that are done in response to unexpected problems?

A

Workarounds

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57
Q

Which is more important, Planning or Execution?

A

Both

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58
Q

One of the functional managers wants to make a major scope change during the execution of the project. The project manager’s action should be to:

A

Detail the impact of the change for the functional manager.

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59
Q

In Scope Change Control, the project manager must make sure that:

A

The changes are beneficial

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60
Q

As changes are brought forward, the project manager should always:

A

Consider the impact of the change

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61
Q

The one function that must be on the CCB is the:

A

Project manager

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62
Q

After a change request has been denied, you should:

A

Record it and save it

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63
Q

Change requests are made against the:

A

All change requests are made against a project plan that has the project baseline. If a change is desired in the baseline, a change request should be submitted.

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64
Q

Change requests should be:

A

Timely

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65
Q

If change requests are not done formally, this often leads to:

A

Scope creep

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66
Q

The Change Control Board should:

A

Be flexible, Have appropriate authority, Include the project manager

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67
Q

The CEO comes into your office (cubby). He or she asks for changes to be made in the scope of the project but doesn’t have enough time to go through a formal procedure, and because everyone on the project actually reports to him or her, it is expected that you get these things done. You should:

A

Determine what will happen if the change is made and then report that to the president.

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68
Q

The tools and techniques used to gather, integrate, and disseminate the outputs of project management processes are called a:

A

PMIS

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69
Q

The baseline version number of a document is:

A

1.0

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70
Q

Version control numbers should change when:

A

Any change occurs

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71
Q

Version control helps make meetings easier because:

A

It keeps everyone on the same page

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72
Q

A formal procedure for sanctioning project work is a:

A

Work authorization

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73
Q

Verbal authorization of project work is most often seen in ________ projects.

A

Smaller

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74
Q

Procurement items are detailed in the:

A

SOW; This is the document that will give bidders the detail they need to determine whether they should be bidding on a certain item or task.

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75
Q

The acronym for the value of the work already completed on the project is:

A

EV. Learn this definition for Earned Value.

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76
Q

EV, or Earned Value, is the same as:

A

BCWP; This stands for Budgeted Cost of Work Performed

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77
Q

PV is the same as:

A

BCWP; Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled.

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78
Q

If your AC = $25,000 and your EV = $20,000, how are you doing?

A

Over Budget $5,000;

EV-AC.
$20,000 –$25,000 = –$5,000

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79
Q

If your AC = $3,000 and your EV = $3,400, how are you doing?

A

+$400;

EV-AC.
$3,400 – $3,000 = $400.

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80
Q

Your Earned Value is $10,000 and your Actual Cost is $8,000. That means that your CPI is:

A

1.25:

EV/AC.
10000/8000

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81
Q

Your Earned Value is $10,000 and your Actual Cost is $12,000. What is your CPI?

A

.83:

EV/AC. –
10000/12000

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82
Q

Your EV = $8,000 and your PV = $6,000. What is your SPI?

A

1.33:

SPI=EV/PV.
EV = 8,000, PV = 6,000. 8,000/6,000 = 1.33.

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83
Q

Your EV = $500 and your PV = $600. What is your SPI?

A

.83

EV=500, PV=600. 500/600=.83.

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84
Q

You define the end of the project by defining the:

A

Final deliverable

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85
Q

The phase in which you define the final deliverable is:

A

Planning

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86
Q

The person who has the responsibility for keeping the final deliverable clear to all stakeholders is the:

A

Project manager

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87
Q

Administrative Closure should occur:

A

At the end of each phase

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88
Q

Information needs to go to:

A

Everyone in the communication plan

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89
Q

As you make approved changes to the original scope, you should:

A

Save the old versions

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90
Q

If your project comes in 20% ahead of schedule and 25% under budget, you should:

A

Find out why there was such a variance from the original plan

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91
Q

A complete set of indexed project records is called:

A

Project archives

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92
Q

Acceptance of the product of the project should be:

A

Formal

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93
Q

Formal acceptance includes:

A

Written acceptance

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94
Q

The ________ is the person/organization that gives project acceptance.

A

Customer

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95
Q

The project manager must comply with the requirements of both the customer and:

A

His own organization

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96
Q

A ________ must be written in order to require Contract Closeout.

A

Formal contract

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97
Q

A(n) ________ performs the procurement audit.

A

Outside individual/organization

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98
Q

What information goes into lessons learned?

A

Information that will help future project managers

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99
Q

When do you discuss lessons learned?

A

At regular status meetings

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100
Q

Lessons learned should be:

A

Written down

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101
Q

Lessons learned are valuable to:

A

Project managers. Project teams, Stakeholders

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102
Q

Who is responsible for keeping a lessons learned log?

A

The project manager

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103
Q

The contract file consists of ________ records.

A

Indexed

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104
Q

Before the main vendor is paid, be sure that ________ are paid.

A

Sub-contractors

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105
Q

You are a PMP-certified project manager who works for a company that is trying to get all its project managers certified. You are asked by some of your non-certified colleagues for guidance on how to take the exam. You should:

A

Give them guidance about the various resources available.

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106
Q

You have been with the organization for a short time, and you find what you think are clear violations of the PMP Code that occur with frequency. As a PMP, you should:

A

Write down the infractions, discuss them discreetly with other PMPs, and decide how to handle the situation.

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107
Q

In this same organization, you constantly hear rumors about a certain PMP failing to live up to the PMP Code. You should:

A

Gather as much information as you can before proceeding.

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108
Q

You should ________ the information you have so that you can present it to others if that becomes necessary.

A

Write down

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109
Q

You believe you have found someone who is not disclosing all of the costs involved with an upcoming project. Rather, this PMP is constructing a WBS that does not include all the tasks necessary to get the project done. You should:

A

Talk to the PMP about the WBS to see if you can rework it to reflect actual costs of the project.

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110
Q

You are looking for classes that will help you professionally. There are a series of one-day seminars that you can take that will help you. This series is presented as a set with the tuition for the set of five inclusive of all of them. You are unable to attend one of the days of the set. The topic covered that day is important to you, and you have already taken the other four days. What should you do?

A

Put only the classes you have actually attended in your resume.

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111
Q

You have been assigned to a major project in another country. Before you go, you check with your providing organization to make sure you understand all of the constraints of working in the other country. When you get there, you settle into a routine and do excellent work, completing the project within 5% of the planned budget and schedule. To show their appreciation, the sponsors of the project, who are wealthy men in their own country, send you an expensive gift to, as they put it, “Say thank you for your hard work.” It turns out that this is a fairly common practice in that country but is against both ethics and regulations in your own country. What should you do?

A

Talk to your management about the problem and get them involved.

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112
Q

You are writing an article about risk. In the middle of the article, you use a statistic from a well-known report that is the standard for explaining risk. Everyone writing in the area of risk knows the report. Because the report is so well known, you:

A

Cite the report.

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113
Q

Offering an estimate that you know will be changed shortly after the contract is signed is:

A

Bad practice, Unprofessional practice, Bad for both the buyer and seller

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114
Q

Estimates are:

A

Just that….. Estimates

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115
Q

Estimates should:

A

Be the closest to correct as you can get

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116
Q

You have just been assigned to a project that has been ongoing for more than three months. In looking over the project plan, you see deliverables that seem to be impossible to deliver to the client in the specified time frame. You should:

A

Talk to the sponsor and explain your concerns for the accuracy of the schedule

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117
Q

The final arbiter of any service scope change is the

A

Customer

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118
Q

When the project was begun, both the customer and the project manager understood that it was likely that some service scope changes would occur. A few weeks into the project, some services need to be added. Because you, as the project manager, and the customer already have talked over the possibility of this happening, you should follow standard scope change procedure that includes:

A

A written request for service scope change

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119
Q

The objectives of the project are agreed to in the ________ phase of the project.

A

Planning

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120
Q

If the objectives of the project are changed, these changes are accepted only with the consent of the

A

Customer

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121
Q

You are a project manager sitting in a meeting with executives of the company for which you work as a contract manager. These executives include the president of the company, who begins the meeting by specifically stating, “What is said in this room at this meeting stays in this room. There are no exceptions to this.” This is a clear statement from the president, so you do not report on some issues discussed in the meeting when you file your weekly report to your manager. The manager calls you, asking why you have not filed a complete report, and you reply that the president specifically said that no one outside of the people in the room should hear the information. Your manager replies that both parties have signed a confidentiality agreement, so it is OK for you to report. What do you do to keep both parties satisfied?

A

Get written permission from the president to give out the information.

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122
Q

You are a contracted PM and are working within an organization. The sponsor of the project comes to you and asks you for some extra work not within the agreed project plan. She makes it clear that she expects it to be done without a change in cost and that this is something that happens often in projects that she sponsors, even suggesting that your company will be removed from the project if you do not comply. Now what?

A

Check with your engagement manager before doing anything else.

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123
Q

The president of a major international firm had just arrived in our city. During our first meetings to go over project expectations, the conversation turned to his favorite sports, and the one that he followed was soccer (European football). It just so happened that the U.S. national team was playing a World Cup qualifying game in our city that evening. I bought tickets and drove him to the game, which he enjoyed immensely. He said it was good to see his home country’s sport and was gracious in his thanks. Was I right or wrong to do this?

A

Because nothing was gained except an enjoyable experience, it was acceptable.

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124
Q

The processes required to ensure that the various elements of the project are coordinated are called:

A

Project Integration Management

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125
Q

The document that begins the process of integrating the project with organizational goals is called the:

A

Charter

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126
Q

The first planning that occurs when doing the organizational process of choosing projects is:

A

Strategic planning

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127
Q

Assumptions are factors that, for planning purposes, are considered to be:

A

True, real, or certain

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128
Q

Assumptions in the project plan should be:

A

Written down

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129
Q

The final choices about how to execute the project are found in the:

A

Project Plan

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130
Q

The project plan helps to facilitate:

A

Communication

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131
Q

The project plan determines what you will communicate, when you will communicate, how much you will communicate, and:

A

With whom you will communicate

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132
Q

The ________ is a part of the project plan.

A

Baseline, Project Scope, Schedule

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133
Q

The methodology that is used to measure variance in projects is:

A

Earned Value Management (EVM)

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134
Q

EVM is generally not seen in:

A

General management

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135
Q

EVM is a methodology that deals with ________ management.

A

Variance

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136
Q

Past project plans should not be followed exactly because each project is:

A

Unique

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137
Q

Which of the following is useful in your current planning?

A

Contact with former project managers, Reviewing WBSs from other projects, Utilizing databases from past projects

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138
Q

Which of these is an example of an organizational policy?

A

Hiring and firing guidelines

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139
Q

A ________ is an example of a constraint.

A

Contract

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140
Q

Risk plans, quality plans, and procurement plans are all ________ to the project plan.

A

Inputs

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141
Q

Project management software is an example of a ________ tool for project management methodology.

A

Hard

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142
Q

Templates and forms are a part of an organization’s ________ for project plan development.

A

Methodology

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143
Q

An engineer on a project participates in the Planning phase and makes considerable contributions to the technical planning. What type of skill/knowledge is this?

A

Stakeholder

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144
Q

The PMIS has both ________ and ________ systems that are useful in project plan development.

A

Manual, automated

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145
Q

The supporting detail, which consists of requirements, designs, and specifications, is part of:

A

Technical documentation

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146
Q

Anything that reduces the probability of potential consequences of risk events is:

A

Preventive action

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147
Q

You are working on a project, and the status reports you are getting indicate that the project is slipping schedule. You bring the necessary parts of the project team together and map a course that you can use to bring the schedule back in line with the baseline of the project plan. This is an example of:

A

Corrective action

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148
Q

Risk management, quality management, and scope management are examples of ________ skills.

A

Project management

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149
Q

Communication, leadership, and negotiation are examples of ________ skills.

A

General management

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150
Q

Product skills and knowledge are brought to the project team by:

A

Finding resources that bring the necessary skills and knowledge to the project.

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151
Q

The value of a work authorization system should be balanced with the ________ of the work authorization system.

A

Cost

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152
Q

After you have written an agenda, the next step is to ________ it.

A

Time

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153
Q

“The outcomes of the activities performed to accomplish the project” are:

A

Work results

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154
Q

Part of Project Integration Management is making sure that only ________ changes are implemented.

A

Approved

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155
Q

Ensuring that changes to the project are agreed upon, determining that a change has occurred, and managing changes when they occur is the definition of:

A

Integrated Change Control

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156
Q

If you make changes in product scope, these changes should be reflected in your:

A

Project Scope

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157
Q

Changes should be reflected across other ________ areas.

A

Knowledge

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158
Q

The baseline for the project and the standard against which all changes will be measured is the:

A

Project Plan

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159
Q

“Legally mandated” and “optional” are types of:

A

Change requests

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160
Q

If a change can be approved only by the project manager, this is still part of the:

A

Change Control System

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161
Q

Which of the following identifies the functional and physical characteristics of a system used on the project?

A

Configuration management

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162
Q

Additional planning occurs when:

A

Any change request is approved

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163
Q

The features and functions of a product or service are considered ________, and the work that must be done to deliver a product or service as the output of the project is considered ________.

A

Product scope, project scope

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164
Q

Completion of the project scope is measured against the ________.

A

Project plan

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165
Q

Completion of the product scope is measured against ________.

A

Product requirements

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166
Q

Completion of the product scope is measured against ________, and completion of the project scope is measured against the ________.

A

Product requirements, project plan

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167
Q

The process of formally authorizing that an existing project should continue into its next phase is part of ________.

A

Initiation

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168
Q

Formal authorization of advancement to the next project phase is generally not found in:

A

Small projects

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169
Q

Some type of authorization is needed on ________ projects.

A

Big, Special, Small

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170
Q

A market demand, a technological advance, and a legal requirement are all examples of:

A

Reasons for authorizing a project

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171
Q

When should detail about the product of the project be given?

A

As soon as possible in the project planning

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172
Q

A connection between the product being created and the overall strategy of the organization is created by the ________.

A

Product description

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173
Q

The responsibility for a clear product description in a project where the project manager will be supplied by a vendor lies with the:

A

Buyer

174
Q

________ considerations are always important to the sponsoring organization.

A

Financial

175
Q

Contribution, scoring models, and economic models are all examples of:

A

Benefit measurement models

176
Q

The most complex type of project selection method is called the:

A

Constrained optimization methods

177
Q

Technical associations and consultants are two examples of:

A

Expert judgment

178
Q

The project manager is assigned in the ________ section of scope management.

A

Initiation

179
Q

The first document produced on a project should be the:

A

Project Charter

180
Q

The scope management plan lists ________.

A

Processes

181
Q

According to the PMBOK, which of the following is not a function of scope definition?

A

Improving the communication system between the project manager and the sponsor

182
Q

Each task must have ________ assigned responsibility to get it done.

A

One person

183
Q

Brainstorming different approaches to working on the project with the project team is an example of ________ alternatives identification.

A

Informal

184
Q

________ are a form of expert judgment.

A

Consultants

185
Q

The project justification is found in the project Charter, which is a part of the:

A

Scope Statement

186
Q

References to documents that give detail about the product of the project can be found in the:

A

Scope Statement

187
Q

ROI and payback period are examples of ________ project analysis.

A

Financial

188
Q

If you are asked to think “outside the box,” what type of identification are you being asked to do?

A

Alternatives

189
Q

Function analysis is best done by:

A

Professional engineers

190
Q

________ is the breaking down of the WBS.

A

Decomposition

191
Q

Generally, the largest unit that you can manage in the WBS is ________ hours.

A

40

192
Q

When you decompose a WBS, you should have ________ results to measure.

A

Verifiable, tangible

193
Q

The letters RBS stand for both Resource Breakdown Structure and the ________ Breakdown Structure.

A

Risk

194
Q

Detailed information about the tasks and components found in the WBS can be stored in a ________.

A

WBS dictionary

195
Q

Scope verification deals with the ________ of the scope, whereas quality control deals with the ________ of the scope.

A

Acceptance, correctness

196
Q

The project Scope Statement, the WBS dictionary, the project scope management plan, and the deliverables are all ________ of scope verification.

A

Inputs

197
Q

Specifications and technical documentation are part of ________.

A

Product documentation

198
Q

You can determine whether requirements have been met by using ________.

A

Inspection

199
Q

The tool that defines the procedures by which project scope may be changed is ________.

A

Scope change control

200
Q

Scope change control

A

Scope change control

201
Q

If you change the scope of a project to make the final output less than the original baseline, you have ________ the project.

A

Descoped

202
Q

The ________ is the document that starts the entire Project Time Management process.

A

Scope Statement

203
Q

Decomposition of the Scope Statement results in the ________.

A

WBS

204
Q

You break down the WBS into smaller ________ to get detail so that you can construct a schedule.

A

Work packages

205
Q

When using decomposition in activity definition, the final output is:

A

Activities or action steps

206
Q

Updates to the WBS during activity definition are often called:

A

Refinements

207
Q

A form of progressive planning is called:

A

Rolling wave

208
Q

The major output from activity definition is:

A

The activity list

209
Q

Other outputs from activity definition are:

A

Other outputs from activity definition are:

210
Q

Other outputs from activity definition are:

A

Significant events in the project life cycle

211
Q

Three types of dependencies are mandatory, discretionary, and ________.

A

External

212
Q

How long is the duration for a milestone?

A

0 days

213
Q

The type of dependency that is used by Microsoft Project is a ________ dependency.

A

Finish-to-start

214
Q

Starting a new computer system before turning the old one off is an example of a ________ dependency.

A

Start-to-finish

215
Q

Which network diagramming method uses dummy activities?

A

ADM

216
Q

PDM is also known as what?

A

Activities on nodes

217
Q

PDM stands for:

A

Precedence Diagramming Method

218
Q

Conditional branches can be found in:

A

GERT

219
Q

A schematic display of the project’s activities and the logical relationships among them is a(n) ________.

A

Project network diagram

220
Q

________ are a high-level compilation of the tasks below them.

A

Summary tasks

221
Q

The project plan is developed by:

A

The project team and manager

222
Q

The project schedule is developed in the ________ phase.

A

Planning

223
Q

Estimating databases and other historical data are examples of ________ that might be helpful in estimating duration’s.

A

Organizational assets

224
Q

Top-down estimating is also known as ________ estimating.

A

Analogous

225
Q

Which technique is the most common simulation technique?

A

Monte Carlo

226
Q

Rules of thumb are known as ________.

A

Leveling Heuristics

227
Q

Monte Carlo simulation is done using _______________ scenarios.

A

Multiple

228
Q

Doing more activities in parallel is called ________.

A

Fast Tracking

229
Q

Bar charts do not show ________.

A

Time Constraints, Dependencies, Partial Tasks

230
Q

The approved project schedule is called the:

A

Baseline schedule

231
Q

Anything done to bring expected future schedule performance in line with the project plan is known as ________.

A

Corrective actions

232
Q

If you update the schedule, the updates must be approved by the ________.

A

Sponsor

233
Q

Revisions are a special type of schedule updates that make changes to:

A

Start/Finish Dates

234
Q

Rebaselining should occur only if the current baselines ________.

A

Make no sense

235
Q

Cost, time, and quality are known as:

A

Triple constraints

236
Q

Looking at a broad overview of the project costs is known as:

A

Life cycle costing

237
Q

Value analysis and value management are other names for:

A

Value engineering

238
Q

ROI and discounted cash flow are two examples of:

A

General management cost evaluation

239
Q

Heating and electricity are examples of ________ costs.

A

Indirect

240
Q

The project manager can have control over ________ costs.

A

Direct

241
Q

Cost control is easiest to do ________ the project.

A

Early in

242
Q

The ________ gives the detail you need to correctly estimate costs for the project.

A

WBS

243
Q

In the WBS, ________ hours is the suggested longest task duration.

A

40

244
Q

Historical information is a ________, not a ________.

A

Guideline, blueprint

245
Q

Historical information can be used as a guide, not as a blueprint because each project is ________.

A

Unique

246
Q

Equipment, materials, and people are three types of choices in ________.

A

Resource pool description

247
Q

________ of resources play(s) an important part in how you choose people and materials for your project.

A

Descriptions

248
Q

Determining whether you should choose to do a task in house or to outsource it is an example of a(n) ________.

A

Organizational policy

249
Q

When you are choosing a certain level of skills or mechanical efficiency, you are trading ________ for time.

A

Cost

250
Q

To determine the final number of resources needed for a large task, you _______ the ________ levels in the WBS to get the next higher level.

A

Sum, lower

251
Q

An estimate that has the range of –25% to +75 is called a(n) ________ estimate.

A

Order of magnitude,estimate with the largest variance and is often the first estimate done.

252
Q

The estimate that has the range of –5% to +10% is called a(n) ________ estimate.

A

Definitive, final estimate that you will use when executing the project

253
Q

The estimate that has the range of –10% to +25% is called a(n) ________ estimate.

A

Budget, middle of the three estimates, and it gives a smaller range than the order of magnitude but a larger range than the definitive estimate

254
Q

Developing an approximation of the costs of the resources needed to complete project activity is ________.

A

Cost estimating

255
Q

Estimating cost by looking at previous projects is known as ________ estimating.

A

Analogous

256
Q

Analogous estimating is also known as ________ estimating.

A

Top-down

257
Q

Summing the total of WBS tasks to find the total cost is known as ________ estimating.

A

Bottom-up

258
Q

If you are using models that look at project characteristics to do cost estimating, you are doing ________.

A

Parametric estimating

259
Q

In general, ________ estimating gives the most accurate picture of costs for doing cost estimating.

A

Bottom-up

260
Q

The best way to get a good bid from the vendor is to write a good ________ document.

A

Request

261
Q

Costs that are expected to occur but the time when this will happen is not known are called:

A

Known unknowns

262
Q

It is likely that the ________ estimate is the one that people remember most.

A

First

263
Q

________ is a major part of keeping track of a string of estimates.

A

Version control

264
Q

The description of how cost variances are to be handled is found in the ________.

A

Cost management plan

265
Q

The cost management plan may be formal or informal, detailed or sparse, depending on the needs of the ________.

A

Stakeholders

266
Q

Detail of the WBS for doing your budgeting is found in the ________.

A

WBS dictionary

267
Q

The planned start and finish dates for the tasks in the project are shown in the:

A

Project schedule

268
Q

Risk events that occur that were totally unexpected are called:

A

Unknown unknowns

269
Q

When you allocate a budget to risk events that you expect to occur but are not sure when they will occur, you are dealing with:

A

Known unknowns

270
Q

The major output of cost budgeting is the ________.

A

Cost baseline

271
Q

The project manager’s job is to bring the project in ________ budget.

A

On

272
Q

When a cost change occurs, be sure to document ________ and ________ it occurs.

A

When and why

273
Q

Change requests should be noted ________ when they occur and become a part of the project record.

A

Permanently

274
Q

The abbreviation for the portion of the approved cost estimate that is to be spent on tasks during a given measured period is:

A

PV (Planned Value)

275
Q

The abbreviation for the amount that was budgeted for work to be performed is:

A

PV (Planned Value)

276
Q

The abbreviation for costs actually incurred is:

A

AC (Actual Cost)

277
Q

________ are costs that are not recoverable.

A

Sunk costs

278
Q

The amount of time it takes to recover the expenditure for the project before you begin to actually generate revenue is known as the ________.

A

Payback period

279
Q

You can go from ________ to accelerated depreciation from one year to the following year but not the reverse.

A

Straight line depreciation

280
Q

The organization that controls the standards for quality is the ________.

A

ISO

281
Q

Conformance to specifications is one description of ________.

A

Quality

282
Q

The food at Wendy’s and Spago’s are both high-quality but differ in ________.

A

Grade

283
Q

In which of the following sets does the first term denote measurements that show little variation from each other whereas the second term is the degree to which measurements approach the true value?

A

Precision, accuracy

284
Q

Prior to World War I, what was the focus of quality?

A

Inspection and identification of problems

285
Q

After World War I and continuing until after World War II, what quality concept was developed?

A

Quality Control

286
Q

After Quality Control, the succeeding process was:

A

Quality Assurance

287
Q

The first recognized expert in quality, who is considered by many to be the “Father of the Quality Movement,” was:

A

Dr. W. Edwards Deming

288
Q

What is the act of avoiding quality problems rather than inspecting for them?

A

Quality Assurance

289
Q

As a direct result of Deming’s work overseas, the Deming Prize is offered by:

A

Japan

290
Q

Philip Crosby asserted:

A

Quality is free.

291
Q

Ishikawa is best known for:

A

The Fishbone Diagram

292
Q

Deming gave us a revision to the Shewhart Cycle, which is:

A

Plan, Do, Check, Act

293
Q

When did the U.S. wake up to the benefits of Quality Assurance?

A

The 1980s

294
Q

The most sought-after quality award offered in the United States is:

A

The Malcolm Baldridge National Quality Award

295
Q

Which quality guru advocated conformance to requirements in his definition of quality?

A

Crosby

296
Q

The PMBOK definition of Project Quality Management does not include:

A

Confirmation

297
Q

Who defines quality according to the modern concept?

A

The customer

298
Q

An organization’s quality policy should come from:

A

Top management

299
Q

The project quality policy should be written by:

A

The project team for each project

300
Q

Organizational Process Assets do not include:

A

Federal regulations

301
Q

The Scope Statement for a project is written during Initiation as a part of:

A

Project Scope Planning

302
Q

The manner in which the inputs to quality are handled is referred to by the PMBOK as:

A

Tools and techniques

303
Q

The Quality Management Plan describes:

A

How quality policy will be implemented

304
Q

Another term for a Metric is:

A

Operational definition

305
Q

The Process Improvement Plan does not include which of the following:

A

The Project Management Plan

306
Q

The PMBOK treats Perform Quality Assurance with:

A

Inputs, Tools and Techniques, Outputs

307
Q

One of the inputs to Quality Assurance according to the PMBOK is:

A

Quality Management Plan

308
Q

Another term for Operational Definitions is:

A

Metrics

309
Q

Benchmarking is useful for:

A

Measuring your level of quality against a standard

310
Q

One of the tools used by a quality audit team is:

A

Checklists

311
Q

The idea for continuous improvement in quality is a theme of:

A

TQM, Deming, Crosby

312
Q

Quality Control is performed:

A

For the life of the project

313
Q

For the life of the project

A

Deliverables

314
Q

What should be the role of inspection in Quality Control?

A

To determine the level of performance against standards

315
Q

Another term for Cause and Effect Diagrams is:

A

Ishikawa Diagrams

316
Q

Recording of the causes for Rework could best be done by:

A

Pareto Charts

317
Q

Quality Checklists are used to:

A

Ensure that Quality Assurance steps were followed

318
Q

QC measurements play an important role in improving project quality if they are:

A

Part of a feedback system to improve quality

319
Q

Leading, communicating, and problem solving are examples of ________ management skills.

A

General

320
Q

According to the PMBOK, delegating, motivating, coaching, and mentoring are skills used to manage the ________.

A

Individual

321
Q

Recruitment, regulatory issues, performance appraisal, and labor relations are skills generally used more in the ________ area.

A

Administrative

322
Q

The ________ of the team may contract and expand depending on the phase of the project.

A

Size

323
Q

A(n) ________ does not generally have complete control over the team.

A

Internal project manager

324
Q

A reporting line to a manager is an example of a(n) ________ interface.

A

Formal

325
Q

The distances between people on the team are managed as a part of the _______ of the team.

A

Logistics

326
Q

The structure of the organization, collective bargaining agreements, and the overall economic conditions of the organization itself are examples of ________.

A

Constraints

327
Q

Templates and checklists are examples of ________.

A

Process assets

328
Q

The list of people needed for the project team is refined as part of ________.

A

Human resource planning

329
Q

The OBS, WBS, and RBS are all examples of ________.

A

Control Charts, Project Standards, Tactical Controls

330
Q

The breakdown structure that shows departments or units of the organization is the ________.

A

OBS: Organizational Breakdown Structure shows the organization’s units and departments as a top-down graph.

331
Q

The hierarchical chart that shows resources is the ________.

A

RBS: Resource Breakdown Structure details the various resources, both human and mechanical, that are needed to successfully execute the project.

332
Q

The breakdown structure that shows a hierarchical list of required project tasks is the ________.

A

WBS: Work Breakdown Structure is one of the principal documents that a project manager uses to manage the project.

333
Q

The ________ details tasks for people in the project.

A

RAM: Responsibility Assignment Matrix is used to give an overview of personnel responsibility for particular tasks.

334
Q

The right to apply project resources, sign approvals, and make decisions is known organizationally as ________.

A

Authority

335
Q

Skills to do the project activities and tasks are defined as ________.

A

Competencies

336
Q

Whether a staffing management plan is formal or informal may depend on the ________.

A

Size and complexity of the project

337
Q

The timing and method of letting team members go is known as ________.

A

Release criteria

338
Q

A major part of project team motivation is (are) ________.

A

Rewards and recognition

339
Q

Release criteria, safety policies, compliance, and training can all be found in the ________.

A

Staffing management plan

340
Q

Government regulations, union contracts, and legal requirements are all examples of the need for ________ when executing a project.

A

Compliance

341
Q

For many companies, ________ is the primary concern.

A

Safety

342
Q

The correct time to let team members go and determining how to do so is known as ________.

A

Release criteria

343
Q

Getting project team members assigned when there is no one in-house with the necessary skill sets is known as ________.

A

Acquisition

344
Q

A project team with members located in the U.S., India, and Germany would be called a ________.

A

Virtual team

345
Q

Working with a line manager to get a skilled person on the project team would be an example of ________.

A

Negotiation

346
Q

In order to provide rewards and recognition for the bettering of skill sets by the members of the project team, the expected outcome of skill training should be ________.

A

Written and measurable

347
Q

Having your project team meet in a single location where they can work in a face-to-face environment is known as ________.

A

Collocation

348
Q

Online, classroom, computer-based, and on-the-job are all examples of types of ________.

A

Training

349
Q

Ground rules may be ________ and ________.

A

Formal, informal

350
Q

The ________ skills of general management are often the ________ to do.

A

Soft, hardest

351
Q

The first way to solve a conflict is to let the ________ work it out.

A

Team members

352
Q

One way of resolving conflict that rarely works is a ________ style.

A

Compromising

353
Q

The issues log should be ________.

A

Written

354
Q

When doing a performance appraisal, it is helpful to set ________ for the upcoming period.

A

Objectives

355
Q

Conflict management will be easier if ________ ground rules are set before the project begins.

A

Formal

356
Q

A standard management practice that will help you observe and communicate with your project team is known as ________.

A

MBWA: Management By Walking Around

357
Q

The term “requested changes” as it refers to managing the project team deals with ________ changes.

A

Staffing

358
Q

Disciplinary actions should be done in accordance with ________ policy.

A

Organizational

359
Q

Organization charts, position, descriptions, ground rules, and useful recognition events are all examples of ________.

A

Lessons learned

360
Q

Actions that are taken to avoid problems in the future are called ________ actions.

A

Preventive

361
Q

Information is not useful to the receiver if it is not ________.

A

Timely

362
Q

Which type of channel is the best for good communication?

A

E-Mail, Phone, Fax

362
Q

The people who get specific types of information from the project manager are ________.

A

People in the communication plan

363
Q

How do you get the communications requirements for stakeholders?

A

Ask them

364
Q

In addition to stakeholder needs, who else’s needs should be considered when establishing communication requirements?

A

The project manager

365
Q

The ________ is the most important stakeholder to keep current on the project execution.

A

Sponsor

366
Q

It is important to control the ________ of the software just as much as the hardware technologies.

A

Version

367
Q

You need to know the volume and type of information that will be communicated when considering the best ________ for communication during the project.

A

Technology

368
Q

The three directions of communication listed in the PMBOK are upward, downward, and ________ communication.

A

Lateral

369
Q

Project records must be ________.

A

Permanent

370
Q

The part of performance reporting that is an estimate of the future is ________.

A

Forecasting

371
Q

If performance reporting shows a completion percentage, you are doing ____________.

A

Progress reporting

372
Q

The report that explains the current condition of the project is _____________.

A

Status reporting

373
Q

Performance reports usually discuss ________ between estimated and actual performance on the project.

A

Variances

374
Q

The best type of communication method for passing information to stakeholders is _____________.

A

Face-to-face

375
Q

The key factor in closing issues is the person to whom you will ________ the issue in order to resolve it.

A

Escalate

376
Q

________ acceptance of the product of the project is done during Administrative Closure.

A

Formal

377
Q

You should do Administrative Closure at the end of each ________ of the project.

A

Phase

378
Q

Project archives need to be ________ to be most useful.

A

Indexed

379
Q

Acceptance of the output of the project by the sponsor or customer should be ________.

A

Formal

380
Q

Project risk is the uncertainty that an event or condition that affects ________ will be realized.

A

At least one of the project objectives such as cost, scope, time, or quality

381
Q

Risk Management Planning should be completed ________ in the project planning phase.

A

Early

382
Q

What is a Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)?

A

List or diagram of risks by category

383
Q

Which of the following would be used to describe the significance of the negative impact of threats or the positive impact of opportunities?

A

Very Low, Low, Moderate, High

384
Q

________ usually follows the Risk Identification process, but sometimes ________ directly follows the Risk Identification process when an experienced risk manager is involved.

A

Qualitative Risk Analysis, Quantitative Risk Analysis

385
Q

The inputs to Risk Identification are similar to the inputs to the Risk Management Planning process with the addition of the ________.

A

Risk Management Plan

386
Q

The Risk Register consists of:

A

List of identified risks, potential responses, root causes, and updated risk categories

387
Q

Inputs to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process include:

A

Risk Register, Project Scope Statement, Risk Management Plan, Organizational Process Assets

388
Q

________ and ________ are assessed for each identified risk in the Qualitative Risk Analysis process.

A

Probability, impact

389
Q

The ________ section of the Risk Register can be used to ensure that some risk events are not overlooked during the project life cycle.

A

Watch List

390
Q

The Risk Register is updated periodically throughout the project life cycle. The Risk Register is initiated during ________ and further updated based on the information developed in the __________________.

A

Risk Identification, Qualitative Risk Analysis

391
Q

The inputs to the Quantitative Risk Analysis process are the Project Management Plan, Risk Register, Risk Management Plan, ________, and ________.

A

Organizational Process Assets, Project Scope Statement

392
Q

Name the two tools and techniques of the Quantitative Analysis that are most subjective, i.e., that are based on opinions.

A

Expert judgment, Interviewing

393
Q

What parts of the Risk Register are added during Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A

Probabilities of achieving project objectives and Estimates of cost and schedule outcomes

394
Q

Name the strategies for negative risks.

A

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, Contingency, Accept

395
Q

In a standard contract, ________ are bound.

A

Buyer and seller

396
Q

The seller agrees to furnish products/services, and the buyer agrees to provide ________.

A

Consideration

397
Q

For the examination, procurement is discussed using the ________ relationship.

A

Buyer/seller

398
Q

In PMBOK, the buyer is ________ to the project team, and the seller is ________ to the project team.

A

Internal, external

399
Q

Market conditions are a part of ________.

A

Enterprise environmental factors

400
Q

Formal or informal policies that pertain to procurement are part of the ________.

A

Organizational process assets

401
Q

Needed delivery dates and availability of resources can be found in the details of the ________.

A

WBS

402
Q

A Risk Register is a detailed part of the ________.

A

Project management plan

403
Q

When doing make-or-buy analysis, you should make sure that both ________ and ________ costs are included so that the comparisons are equal.

A

Direct, indirect

404
Q

Technical judgments made to assess inputs and outputs of the planning of purchases and acquisition are an example of using ________.

A

Expert judgment

405
Q

There are three general types of contracts: cost reimbursable, time and materials, and ________.

A

Fixed price

406
Q

Which type of contract has the highest risk for the buyer?

A

Time and materials

407
Q

In the cost plus contract with the initials CPFF, the FF stands for ________.

A

Fixed fee

408
Q

Which type of contract has the highest risk for the seller?

A

Fixed price

409
Q

The type of contract where the buyer and seller share in the savings is ________.

A

Cost reimbursable with incentive fee

410
Q

Which type of contract uses a percentage of cost as a part of the agreed upon contract?

A

CPPC: cost plus percentage of cost

411
Q

Definition of contract types to be used, how to handle lead times for procurement, and metrics used to manage contracts are all found in the ________.

A

Procurement management plan

412
Q

The document that gives detail to prospective sellers concerning item or items to be purchased is the ________.

A

CSOW: contract statement of work

413
Q

The document that contains information such as identified risks and risk owners is called a ________.

A

Risk Register

414
Q

The evaluation criteria are determined by the ________.

A

Buyer

415
Q

Procurement documents are documents seeking information from the ________.

A

Seller

416
Q

Meetings with prospective sellers to ensure they have a clear understanding of the requirements are known as ________.

A

Bidder conferences, Vendor conferences, Contract conferences

417
Q

The system that assigns a value to evaluation criteria is known as the ________.

A

Weighting system

418
Q

Risk control, quality control, and performance reporting are all used in ________.

A

Contract administration

419
Q

Contracts are administered by the ________.

A

Buyer and seller

420
Q

Contracts can be amended prior to contract closure in accordance with the ________ of the contract.

A

Change control terms

421
Q

The buyer will conduct performance reviews that show differences between the ________ of the project and the actual performance.

A

Baseline

422
Q

The ________ will offer performance reports concerning the work done on the project.

A

Seller

423
Q

The ________ will conduct performance reviews that show differences between the baseline of the project and the actual performance.

A

Buyer

424
Q

________ and ________ are both a type of buyer performance review.

A

Inspections, audits

425
Q

The payment system controls payments to the seller and may be controlled by the ________ function of the buyer.

A

Accounts payable

426
Q

________ involves verification that the work and deliverables of the project are acceptable.

A

Contract closure

427
Q

Contract closure usually involves ________ notice that the contract has been completed.

A

Formal written

428
Q

Early termination of a contract is a unique type of ________.

A

Contract closure

429
Q

TA ________ is done to review all procurement processes done during the project.

A

Procurement review