Definitions

Question 1

a Set of conditions that are met before deliverables are accepted by the customers

Answer 1

Acceptance Criteria

Question 2

A distinct, scheduled portion of work performed during the project. Usually stored on the activity list

Answer 2

Activity

Question 3

The actual cost incurred for the work performed on an activity during a specific time period

Answer 3

Actual Cost (AC)

Question 4

A technique for estimating the duration or cost of activity or a project using using historical data from a similar activity or project. Also know as top-down estimating.

Answer 4

Analogous Estimating

Question 5

A factor in the planning processes considered to be true or real without proof or demonstration

Answer 5

Assumption

Question 6

A critical path method technique for computing the late start and late finish dates by working backwards through the schedule model from the project end date

Answer 6

Backward Pass

Question 7

The accepted version of a work product that can be changed using formal change control processes and is used as the basis for comparison to actual results

Answer 7

Baseline

Question 8

A method of estimating project duration or cost by aggregating the estimates of the lower-level components of the work breakdown structure (WBS)

Answer 8

Bottom-Up Estimate

Question 9

The amount of all budgets established for the work to be performed

Answer 9

Budget at Completion (BAC)

Question 10

A process whereby changes to documents , deliverables, or baselines related with the project are identified, documented, approved, or rejected

Answer 10

Change Control

Question 11

A formally commissioned group responsible for reviewing, assessing, approving, deferring, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions

Answer 11

Change Control Board

Question 12

A set of procedures that defines how modifications to the project deliverables and documentation are managed and controlled

Answer 12

Change Control System

Question 13

A formal proposal to change any document, deliverable, or baseline in the project management plan

Answer 13

Change Request

Question 14

A component of the project management plan that describes how, when, and by whom information will be administered and distributed

Answer 14

Communications Management Plan

Question 15

A collection of procedures used to track project artifacts and monitor and control changes to these artifacts

Answer 15

Configuration Management System

Question 16

A restrictive feature that affects the execution of a project

Answer 16

Constraint

Question 17

Time or money assigned in the schedule or cost baseline for known risks with response strategies

Answer 17

Contingency Reserves

Question 18

A planned activity that restores the performance of the project work with the project management plan

Answer 18

Corrective Action

Question 19

The approved version of work package cost estimates and contingency reserve that can be changed using formal change control procedures

Answer 19

Cost Baseline

Question 20

A Component of a project management plan that defines how costs will be planned and controlled

Answer 20

Cost Management Plan

Question 21

A Measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as the ratio of earned value to actual cost

Answer 21

Cost Performance Index (CPI)

Question 22

The Amount of budget shortfall or surplus at a given point in time, expressed as the difference between earned value and the actual cost

Answer 22

Cost Variance

Question 23

A schedule compression technique used to shorten the schedule duration by adding resources. This will greatly increase project Cost

Answer 23

Crashing

Question 24

A schedule method that allows the project team to place buffers on a project schedule path to account for limited resources

Answer 24

Critical Chain Method

Question 25

The sequence of activities that represents the longest path through a project, which determines the shortest possible duration . Activities on this path of ZERO float

Answer 25

Critical Path

Question 26

Any activity on the critical path in a project schedule

Answer 26

Critical PAth Activity

Question 27

A method used to estimate the minimum project duration and determine the amount of scheduling flexibility on the logical network paths within the schedule

Answer 27

Critical Path Method

Question 28

A technique used for dividing and subdividing the project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts. Also used to subdivide the project activities.

Answer 28

Decmoposition

Question 29

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component

Answer 29

Defect Repair

Question 30

Part of the product that is presented to the customer or stakeholders for acceptance

Answer 30

Deliverable

Question 31

The total number of work periods required to complete an activity or work breakdown structure component, expressed in hours, days or weeks

Answer 31

Duration

Question 32

The earliest an activity can finish without delaying the project end date

Answer 32

Early Finish Date

Question 33

The earliest an activity can start without delaying the project end date

Answer 33

Early Start Date

Question 34

The amount of money worth of work actually accomplished on the project

Answer 34

Earned Value (EV)

Question 35

A methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance

Answer 35

Earned Value Management

Question 36

Conditions, not under the immediate control of the team, that influence, constrain, or direct the project

Answer 36

Enterprise Environmental Factors

Question 37

The forecast of the total cost of the project at the end based on the current spending rate of the project

Answer 37

Estimate at Completion (EAC)

Question 38

The amount of money that will be needed to complete the current project based on the current performance

Answer 38

Estimate to Complete (ETC)

Question 39

A schedule compression technique in which activities or phases are done in parallel for at least a portion or the entire duration. This can increase the risk on the project

Answer 39

Fast Tracking

Question 40

A relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has finished

Answer 40

Finish-to-Finish

Question 41

A relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished

Answer 41

Finish-to-Start

Question 42

A critical path method technique for calculating the early start and early finish dates by working forward through the schedule

Answer 42

Forward Pass

Question 43

An organizational structure in which staff is grouped by areas of specialization and the project manager has limited authority

Answer 43

Functional Organization

Question 44

A bar chart of schedule information where activities are listed. Generally part of the project schedule

Answer 44

Gantt Chart

Question 45

The amount of time whereby a successor activity will be delayed to a predecessor activity

Answer 45

Lag

Question 46

The latest an activity can finish without delaying the project end date

Answer 46

Late Finish Date

Question 47

The Latest an activity can start without delaying the project end date

Answer 47

Late Start Date

Question 48

The amount of time where a successor activity can be started before the predecessor activity finishes

Answer 48

Lead

Question 49

The data gained during a project which shows how project events were addressed or should be addressed in the future for the purpose of improving future performance

Answer 49

Lessons Learned

Question 50

A dependency between two activities

Answer 50

Logical Relationship

Question 51

Time or money that management puts aside in addition to schedule or cost baseline and issues for unforeseen work that is within the scope of the project. This is not under the control of the project manager and will need an approved change request to access it.

Answer 51

Management Reserve

Question 52

An organizational structure in which the project manager shares authority with the functional manager

Answer 52

Matrix Organization

Question 53

A significant point or event in a project

Answer 53

Milestone

Question 54

a type of schedule that presents milestones with planned dates

Answer 54

Milestone Schedule

Question 55

An estimate of the most probable activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables

Answer 55

Most Likely Duration

Question 56

A sequence of activities linked by logical relationships in a project schedule network diagram

Answer 56

Network Path

Question 57

A risk that would have a positive effect on one or more project objectives

Answer 57

Opportunity

Question 58

An estimate of the shortest activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables

Answer 58

Optimistic Duration

Question 59

Plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases specific to and used by the performing organization

Answer 59

Organizational Process Assets

Question 60

An estimating technique in which an algorithm is used to calculate cost or duration based on historical data and project parameters

Answer 60

Parametric Estimating

Question 61

A relationship in which a schedule activity has more than one predecessor

Answer 61

Path convergence

Question 62

An estimate expressed as a percent of hte amount of work that has been completed on an activity

Answer 62

Percent Complete

Question 63

An enterprise whose personnel are the most directly involved in doing the work of the project or program

Answer 63

Performing Organization

Question 64

An estimate of the longest activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables that could affect performance

Answer 64

Pessimistic Duration

Question 65

The authorized budget assigned to the scheduled work

Answer 65

Planned Value (PV)

Question 66

Projects and programs, that are grouped together to achieve a strategic business goal

Answer 66

Portfolio

Question 67

The person or group assigned by the performing organization to establish, balance, monitor, and control portfolio components in order to achieve strategic business goals.

Answer 67

Portfolio Manager

Question 68

A technique used for building a schedule in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one or more logical relationships to display the sequence in which the activities are to be performed

Answer 68

Precedence Diagramming Method

Question 69

An activity that comes before the dependent activity in a schedule

Answer 69

Predecessor Activity

Question 70

An intentional activity that ensures the future performance of the project work is aligned with the project management plan

Answer 70

Preventive Action

Question 71

A table for diagramming the probability of occurrence of each of the risk and its impact on project objectives if that risk occurs

Answer 71

Probability and Impact Matrix

Question 72

A component of the project Management plan that describes how a team will acquire goods and services from an outside of the performing organization

Answer 72

Procurement Management Plan

Question 73

The series of phases that represent the evolution of a product, from concept through delivery to retirement

Answer 73

Product Life Cycle

Question 74

A group of related projects that are managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually

Answer 74

Program

Question 75

A technique used to estimate project duration through a weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely activity duration

Answer 75

Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)

Question 76

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to a program to meet the program requirements and to obtain benefits and control not available by managing projects individually

Answer 76

Program Management

Question 77

The Person authorized by the performing organization to lead the team or teams responsible for achieving program objectives

Answer 77

Program Manager

Question 78

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information and more accurate estimates become available

Answer 78

Progressive Elaboration

Question 79

A temporary effort undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

Answer 79

Project

Question 80

A calendar that identifies working days and shifts that are available for scheduled activities

Answer 80

Project calendar

Question 81

A document issued by the project sponsor that formally authorizes the project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities

Answer 81

Project charter

Question 82

The series of phases that a project goes through from its initiation to its closure

Answer 82

Project Life Cycle

Question 83

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

Answer 83

Project Management

Question 84

A management structure that regulates the project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools and techniques

Answer 84

Project Management Office

Question 85

The document that defines how the project will be executed, monitored and controlled and cloaed

Answer 85

Project Management Plan

Question 86

The person assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project goals

Answer 86

Project Manager

Question 87

A collection of logically related project activities that culminates in the completion of one or more deliverables

Answer 87

Project Phase

Question 88

A graphical representation of the logical relationships around the schedule activities

Answer 88

Project Schedule Network Diagram

Question 89

The work achieved to deliver a product, service, or result with the specified features and functions

Answer 89

Project Scope

Question 90

The explanation of the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints

Answer 90

Project Scope Statement

Question 91

An organizational structure in which the project manager has a full authority to assign work and resources

Answer 91

Projectized Organization

Question 92

A component of the project management plan that describes how an organizations quality policies will be implemented

Answer 92

Quality Management Plan

Question 93

A component of the project management plan that describes how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed

Answer 93

Requirements Management Plan

Question 94

A table that links requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them

Answer 94

Requirements Traceability Matrix

Question 95

The risk that is leftover after risk responses have been implemented

Answer 95

Residual Risk

Question 96

A ranked representation of resources by category type.

Answer 96

Resource Breakdown Structure

Question 97

A calendar that identifies the working days and shifts upon which each specific resource is available

Answer 97

Resource Calendar

Question 98

A component of the project management plan that describes the roles and responsibilities of the project team and management of the physical resources on the project.

Answer 98

Resource Management Plan

Question 99

a reource optimization technique in which changes are made to the project schedule to optimize the allocation of resources and which may affect critical path

Answer 99

Resource Leveling

Question 100

A technique in which activity start and finish dates are adjusted to balance demand for resources

Answer 100

Resource Optimization Technique

Question 101

A resource optimization technique in which total float are used without affecting the critical path

Answer 101

Resource Smoothing

Question 102

A grid that shows the project resources assigned to each work package

Answer 102

Responsibility Assignment Matrix

Question 103

An uncertain event that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives

Answer 103

Risk

Question 104

A risk response strategy where the project team decides to acknowledge the risk and not take any action unless the risk occurs

Answer 104

Risk Acceptance

Question 105

The degree of uncertainty an organization or individual is willing to accept in hope of reward

Answer 105

Risk Appetite

Question 106

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to eradicate the threat or protect the project from its impact

Answer 106

Risk Avoidance

Question 107

A ranked representation of the risks that organized according to risk categories

Answer 107

Risk Breakdown Structure

Question 108

A group of potential causes risk

Answer 108

Risk Category

Question 109

A Risk response strategy where the project team acts to increase the probability of occurrence or impact of an opportunity

Answer 109

Risk Enhancement

Question 110

A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to ensure that an opportunity occurs

Answer 110

Risk Exploitation

Question 111

A measure of the potential impact of all risks at any given point in time in a project

Answer 111

Risk Exposure

Question 112

A component of the project management plan that describes how risk management activities will be planned and performed

Answer 112

Risk Management Plan

Question 113

A Risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a threat

Answer 113

Risk Mitigation

Question 114

A register in which outputs of risk management processes are recorded

Answer 114

Risk Register

Question 115

A risk responses strategy where the project team allocates ownership of an opportunity to at third party who is best able to capture the benefit for the project

Answer 115

Risk Sharing

Question 116

The level of risk exposure above which risks are addressed and under which risks may be accepted

Answer 116

Risk Threshhold

Question 117

The degree of uncertainty that an organization or individual is willing to endure

Answer 117

Risk Tollerance

Question 118

An iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while the work in the future is planned at a higher level

Answer 118

Rolling Wave Planning

Question 119

The approved version of a schedule that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as the basis for comparison to actual results. It is part of the Project Management Plan

Answer 119

Schedule Baseline

Question 120

A method used to shorten the schedule duration without reducing project scope

Answer 120

Schedule Compression

Question 121

A component of the project management plan that establishes the criteria and the activities for developing , monitoring, and controlling the schedule

Answer 121

Schedule Management Plan

Question 122

A technique to identify early and late start dates, as well as early and late finish dates, for the unfinished portions of project activities

Answer 122

Schedule Network Analysis

Question 123

A measure of schedule efficiency expressed as the difference between the earned value and the planned value

Answer 123

Schedule Performance Index (SPI)

Question 124

The approved version of a scope statement, Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), and its associated WBS dictionary that can be changed using formal change control procedures and is used as the basis for comparison to actual results. It is part of the project Management Plan

Answer 124

Scope Baseline

Question 125

a degree of schedule performance expressed as the difference between the earned value to planned value

Answer 125

Schedule Variance (SV)

Question 126

The uncontrolled growth to project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources

Answer 126

Scope Creep

Question 127

A component of the project management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated

Answer 127

Scope Management Plan

Question 128

A technique used to indicate performance trends by using a graph that displays cumulative costs over a specific time period

Answer 128

S-Curve Analysis

Question 129

An individual or a group that provides resources and support for the project and is accountable for enabling success

Answer 129

Sponsor

Question 130

An individual, group, or organization that may effect, be effected by, or perceive itself to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project

Answer 130

Stakeholder

Question 131

A component of the project management plan that defines how stakeholders will be engaged in a project decision making and execution

Answer 131

Stakeholder Management Plan

Question 132

A relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has started

Answer 132

Start-to-Finish

Question 133

A relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has started

Answer 133

Start-to-Start

Question 134

A dependent activity that logically comes after another activity in a schedule

Answer 134

Successor Activity

Question 135

A risk that would have a negative effect on one or more project objectives

Answer 135

Threat

Question 136

A technique used to estimate cost or duration by applying an average or weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates when there is uncertainty with the individual activity estimates

Answer 136

Three-Point Estimating

Question 137

A measure of the cost performance that is achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal, expressed as the ratio of the cost to finish outstanding work to the remaining budget

Answer 137

To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI)

Question 138

The amount of time that a schedule activity can be late or extended from its early start date without delaying the project finish date or violating a schedule constraint

Answer 138

Total Float

Question 139

An event or situation that indicates that a risk is about to occur

Answer 139

Trigger Condition

Question 140

A technique for determining the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance

Answer 140

Variance Analysis

Question 141

A document that provides detailed deliverable, activity, and scheduling data about each component in the work breakdown schedule

Answer 141

WBS Dictionary

Question 142

The process of evaluating scenarios in order to predict their effect on project objectives

Answer 142

What-If Scenarios Analysis

Question 143

A hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the deliverables

Answer 143

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

Question 144

The work defined at the lowest level of the work breakdown structure for which cost and duration can be estimated and managed

Answer 144

Work Package

Question 145

An immediate and temporary response to an issue, for which a prior response had not been planned or was not effective

Answer 145

Workaround

Question 146

An effective tool for root cause analysis in which the question “Why?” is asked of a problem in succession until the root cause is found. Developed by Sakichi Toyoda, a Japanese inventor and industrialist, the 5 Whys method is an integral part of the Lean philosophy.

Answer 146

5 Whys Method

Question 147

A general guideline with many applications; in terms of controlling processes, it contends that a relatively large number of problems or defects, typically 80%, are commonly due to a relatively small number of causes, typically 20%

Answer 147

80/20 Rule

Question 148

A marketing approach used to determine user preferences by showing different sets of users’ similar services—an ‘Alpha’ and a ‘Beta’ version—with one independent variable.

Answer 148

A/B Testing

Question 149

A communication technique that involves acknowledging the speaker’s message and the recipient clarifying the message to confirm that what was heard matches the message that the sender intended

Answer 149

Active Listening

Question 150

A distinct portion of work, scheduled with a beginning and an end, that must be performed to complete work on the project.

Answer 150

Activity

Question 151

Multiple attributes associated with each activity that can be included within the activity list

Answer 151

Activity Attributes

Question 152

Each task is assigned a budget, and the aggregate of these estimates results in the project budget. Activity cost estimates include labor, materials, equipment, and fixed cost items like contractors, services, facilities, financing costs, etc. This information can be presented in a detailed or summarized form.

Answer 152

Activity Cost Estimates

Question 153

A logical relationship that exists between two project activities. The relationship indicates whether the start of an activity is contingent upon an event or input from outside the activity.

Answer 153

Activity Dependency

Question 154

The quantitative assessments of the likely number of time periods that are required to complete an activity.

Answer 154

Activity Duration Estimates

Question 155

A documented tabulation of schedule activities that shows the activity description, activity identifier, and a sufficiently detailed scope-of-work description so project team members understand what work is to be performed.

Answer 155

Activity List

Question 156

A graphical diagram on which schedule activities are represented by nodes (rectangle boxes) and their dependencies are depicted by arrows.

Answer 156

Activity on Arrow or Activity on Node

Question 157

Material and human resources that are needed to complete an activity; often expressed by a probability or range.

Answer 157

Activity Resource Estimates

Question 158

The resources (physical, human, and organizational) required to complete the activities in the activity list.

Answer 158

Activity Resource Requirements

Question 159

A type of project life cycle or methodology that values responding to change over following a set plan. Adaptive methodologies seek solutions that deliver maximum value to the customer

Answer 159

Adaptive

Question 160

Involves verifying and documenting project results to formalize project or phase completion.

Answer 160

Administrative Closure

Question 161

A technique that allows large numbers of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis.

Answer 161

Affinity Diagram

Question 162

Technique designed to rapidly estimate large stories (epics or features) in the backlog. For example: T-Shirt sizing, coffee cup sizes, or Fibonacci sequence.

Answer 162

Affinity Estimating

Question 163

A term used to describe a mindset of values and principles as set forth in the Agile Manifesto.

Answer 163

Agile

Question 164

A process role on a project team that helps organizations achieve true agility by coaching teams across the enterprise on how to apply agile practices and choose their best way of working. See also “scrum master.”

Answer 164

Agile Coach

Question 165

An approach that assists with planning a project appropriately from the beginning to ensure the team can focus on the quality of each deliverable.

Answer 165

Agile Estimating

Question 166

An approach that is both iterative and incremental to refine work items and deliver frequently.

Answer 166

Agile Life Cycle

Question 167

A representation of the workflow of a process or system that the team can review before it is implemented in code.

Answer 167

Agile Modeling

Question 168

A person embracing the agile mindset who collaborates with like-minded colleagues in cross- functional teams. Also referred to as an agilist.

Answer 168

Agile Practitioner

Question 169

A process in which a team determines the number of iterations or Sprints that are needed to complete each release, the features that each iteration will contain, and the target dates of each release

Answer 169

Agile Release Planning

Question 170

Team space that encourages colocation, collaboration, communication, transparency, and visibility

Answer 170

Agile Space

Question 171

Any documents or communication that defines the initial intentions of a project. Examples include contracts, memorandums of understanding (MOUs), service-level agreements (SLAs), letters of agreement, letters of intent, verbal agreements, email, or other written agreements.

Answer 171

Agreements

Question 172

Costs that are allowed under the terms of the contract. Typically, allowable costs become relevant under certain types of cost-reimbursable contracts in which the buyer reimburses the seller’s allowable costs

Answer 172

Allowable Costs

Question 173

Logical approach that looks at the relationship between outcomes and the factors that can influence them.

Answer 173

Analytical Techniques

Question 174

Change requests that have been reviewed and approved by the change control board (CCB) and are ready to be scheduled for implementation.

Answer 174

Approved Change Requests

Question 175

Any project management processes, inputs, tools, techniques, outputs, EEFs, and OPAs that the project management team uses on their specific project. They are subject to configuration management and are maintained and archived by the team.

Answer 175

Artifact

Question 176

A process that explores the validity of the project assumptions within the constraints and identifies risks from any incompleteness or inaccuracy of these project assumptions.

Answer 176

Assumption and Constraint Analysis

Question 177

A list of all uncertainties that are treated as true for the purpose of planning.

Answer 177

Assumption Log

Question 178

Data that is counted such as the number of product defects or customer complaints

Answer 178

Attribute Sampling Data

Question 179

An examination of a project’s goals and achievements, including adequacy, accuracy, efficiency, effectiveness, and the project’s compliance with applicable methodologies and regulations. It tends to be a formal, one-sided process that can be extremely demoralizing to team members.

Answer 179

Audit

Question 180

A group decision-making method in which one member of the group makes the decision. In most cases, this person will consider the larger group’s ideas and decisions and will then make a decision based on that input.

Answer 180

Autocratic

Question 181

A strategy for managing negative risks or threats that involves changing the project management plan to remove the risk entirely by extending the schedule, changing the strategy, increasing the funding, or reducing the scope.

Answer 181

Avoid

Question 182

The prioritized list of all the work, presented in story form, for a project team

Answer 182

Backlog

Question 183

The progressive elaboration of project requirements and/or the ongoing activity in which the team collaboratively reviews, updates, and writes requirements to satisfy the need of the customer request.

Answer 183

Backlog Refinement

Question 184

A graphic display of schedule-related information. In the typical bar chart, schedule activities or WBS components are listed down the left side of the chart, dates are shown across the top, and activity duration’s are shown as date-placed horizontal bars.

Answer 184

Bar Chart

Question 185

The comparison of actual or planned products, processes, and practices to those of comparable organizations to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for measuring performance.

Answer 185

Benchmarking

Question 186

The ratio of the expected benefits and the anticipated costs.

Answer 186

Benefit Cost Ratio (BCR)

Question 187

The documented explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing, and sustaining the benefits provided by a project or program. It also describes how and when the benefits of a project will be derived and measured.

Answer 187

Benefits Management Plan

Question 188

The meetings with prospective sellers prior to the preparation of a bid or proposal to ensure all prospective vendors have a clear and common understanding of the procurement

Answer 188

Bidder Conferences

Question 189

A simple technique used to generate a list of ideas. It should be led by a facilitator with a group consisting of stakeholders, team members, and subject matter experts.

Answer 189

Brainstorming

Question 190

The failure to meet some or all the obligations of a contract.

Answer 190

Breach of Contract

Question 191

A time-phased plan for when funds will be disbursed on a project. It helps the organization anticipate when money will be coming in and/or going out, for the duration of the project.

Answer 191

Budget

Question 192

A planning term related to contingency.

Answer 192

Buffer

Question 193

A tool that is used to track the progress of the project by plotting the number of days of sprint against the number of hours of work remaining. It is used to communicate progress during and at the end of an iteration/sprint/ increment, showing the number of stores that have been completed and the ones that remain

Answer 193

Burn Chart

Question 194

The rate at which the project consumes financial resources, representing negative cash
flow.

Answer 194

Burn Rate

Question 195

A graphical representation of the work remaining versus the time left in a timebox.

Answer 195

Burndown Chart

Question 196

A graphical representation of the work completed toward the release of a product.

Answer 196

Burnup Chart

Question 197

A documented economic feasibility study used to establish the validity of the benefits of a selected component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project management activities.

Answer 197

Business Case

Question 198

An artifact developed prior to the project, used as part of the business case, and which is reviewed periodically by a project professional to verify benefit delivery.

Answer 198

Business Document

Question 199

Listing of all requirements for a specific project.

Answer 199

Business Requirement Documents (BRD)

Question 200

The inherent risk in any business endeavor that carries the potential for either profit or loss. Types of business risks are competitive, legislative, monetary, and operational.

Answer 200

Business Risk

Question 201

The net quantifiable benefit derived from a business endeavor. The benefit may be tangible, intangible, or both.

Answer 201

Business Value

Question 202

The CMMI provides a framework for the integration of process improvement for multiple process areas. Associated with quality management

Answer 202

Capability Maturity Model Information (CMMI)

Question 203

This diagram shows the relationship between causes and effects. Primarily used in root cause analysis (risk and quality) to uncover the causes of risks, problems, or issues

Answer 203

Cause and Effect Diagram

Question 204

A legal document sent to an individual or a business with the direct intention of stopping specific activities and preventing their occurrence or recurrence.

Answer 204

Cease and Desist Letter

Question 205

A document used to request a project change. They can also be recommendations for taking corrective or preventive actions

Answer 205

Change Control Form

Question 206

A living list of all project change requests (CR). This log is used to track and provide accurate status of each CR (requester, owner, details, impact analysis, decision, etc.)

Answer 206

Change Log

Question 207

A comprehensive, cyclic, and structured approach for transitioning individuals, groups, and organizations from a current state to a future state in which they realize desired benefits

Answer 207

Change Management

Question 208

A component of the project management plan that establishes the Change Control Board, documents the extent of its authority, and describes how the change control system will be implemented.

Answer 208

Change Management Plan

Question 209

A shortened name for the project charter. A formal document that starts the project. Typically used by the project sponsor and the project manager, this document provides the reason for the project (based on business case) and may include high-level requirements, assumptions, constraints, milestone(s), and preliminary budget.

Answer 209

Charter

Question 210

A set of procedural instructions used to ensure that a product or component quality is achieved.

Answer 210

Checklist

Question 211

A technique for systematically reviewing materials using a list for accuracy and completeness.

Answer 211

Checklist Analysis

Question 212

An issue with the contract brought by one party against another. Claims must be resolved before the contract can be properly closed out.

Answer 212

Claim

Question 213

The process of finalizing all activities for the project, phase, or contract.

Answer 213

Close Project or Phase Process

Question 214

Sessions held at the end of a project or phase during which teams discuss work and capture lessons learned

Answer 214

Close-Out Meetings

Question 215

One of the five Project Management Process Groups. It consists of those processes performed to formally complete or close the project, phase, or contract.

Answer 215

Closing Process Group

Question 216

An agile servant leader role that exists to help the team and identify and remove any impediments (obstacles).

Answer 216

Coach

Question 217

The act of giving guidance and direction to another person to facilitate personal and/or professional growth and development.

Answer 217

Coaching

Question 218

A numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the WBS.

Answer 218

Code of Accounts

Question 219

The act of working together and sharing information to create deliverables, work products or results.

Answer 219

Collaboration

Question 220

The process in which requirements documentation is developed. Precedes the Define Scope process.

Answer 220

Collect Requirements Process

Question 221

An organizational placement strategy in which the project team members are physically located close to one another to improve communication, working relationships, and productivity

Answer 221

Colocation

Question 222

A reason contributing to a quality problem that is usually considered acceptable. Common causes are considered unpreventable or if they are preventable, the cost of prevention would not justify the benefit.

Answer 222

Common Cause

Question 223

Act of accurately encoding, sending, receiving, decoding, and verifying messages. Communication between sender and receiver may be oral or written, formal or informal.

Answer 223

Communication

Question 224

The number of possible communication paths on a project. The formula for calculating communication channels is: [n(n-1)]/2; n=number of people on the project.

Answer 224

Communication Channels

Question 225

A systematic procedure, technique, or process used to transfer information among project stakeholders

Answer 225

Communication Method

Question 226

A description, analogy, or schematic used to represent how the communication process will be performed for the project.

Answer 226

Communication Models

Question 227

An analytical technique to determine the information needs of the project stakeholders through interviews, workshops, or study of lessons learned from previous projects, etc.

Answer 227

Communication Requirements Analysis

Question 228

A technique to identify the preferred communication method, format, and content for stakeholders for planned communication activities.

Answer 228

Communication Styles Assessment

Question 229

Specific tools, automated systems, computer programs, etc., used to transfer information among project stakeholders.

Answer 229

Communication Technology

Question 230

A type of contract that is completed when the vendor delivers the product to the buyer and the buyer accepts the product.

Answer 230

Completion Contract

Question 231

A characteristic of a program, project, or its environment, which is difficult to manage due to human behavior, system behavior, or ambiguity.

Answer 231

Complexity

Question 232

The state of meeting—or being in accord with—organizational, legal, certification or other relevant regulations.

Answer 232

Compliance

Question 233

An option in conflict management in which both parties give up something to reach an agreement.

Answer 233

Compromise

Question 234

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract.

Answer 234

Conduct Procurement Process

Question 235

Agile term describing the difficulty of estimating early due to unknowns and how that should improve over time.

Answer 235

Cone of Uncertainty

Question 236

Any component or project element that needs to be managed to ensure the successful delivery of the project, services, or result.

Answer 236

Configuration Item

Question 237

A tool used to manage changes to a product or service being produced as well as changes to any of the project documents—for example, schedule updates

Answer 237

Configuration Management

Question 238

A collection of procedures used to track project artifacts and monitor and control changes to these artifacts

Answer 238

Configuration Management System

Question 239

Difference of opinion or agenda on a project amongst team members, stakeholders, or customers.

Answer 239

Conflict

Question 240

The application of one or more strategies for dealing with disagreements that may be detrimental to team performance.

Answer 240

Conflict Management

Question 241

The process of working to reach an agreement after a conflict situation arises.

Answer 241

Conflict Resolution

Question 242

Group decision technique in which the group agrees to support an outcome even if the individuals do not agree with the decision.

Answer 242

Consensus

Question 243

A visual depiction of the product scope showing a business system (process, equipment, computer system, etc.), and how people and other systems (actors) interact with it.

Answer 243

Context Diagram

Question 244

A risk response strategy developed in advance, before risks occur; it is meant to be used if and when identified risks become reality

Answer 244

Contingency Plan

Question 245

A theory credited to Fred. E. Fielder which states that the set of skills and attributes that helped a project manager in one environment may work against them in another environment.

Answer 245

Contingency Theory

Question 246

The ongoing effort to improve products, services, or processes.

Answer 246

Continuous Improvement (CI)

Question 247

The practice of regularly merging all software code into a shared environment, several times a day, to check code quality and functionality.

Answer 247

Continuous Integration

Question 248

The systematic, ongoing effort to improve products, services, or processes in an organization.

Answer 248

Continuous Process Improvement

Question 249

A mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide the specified project or service or result and obligates the buyer to pay for it

Answer 249

Contract

Question 250

The system used to collect, track, adjudicate, and communicate changes to a contract.

Answer 250

Contract Change Control System

Question 251

A management control point at which scope, budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement.

Answer 251

Control Account

Question 252

A graphic display of process data over time and against established control limits, which has a center-line that assists in detecting a trend of plotted values toward either control limit.

Answer 252

Control Charts

Question 253

Monitor and control project costs to ensure they align with the cost baseline/budget.

Answer 253

Control Costs Process

Question 254

The process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, making changes and corrections as appropriate, and closing out contracts

Answer 254

Control Procurements Process

Question 255

Part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, this process is performed by the buyer to ensure compliance by the seller and the other party; it compares the terms in the agreement/contract.

Answer 255

Control Procurement’s Process

Question 256

Part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, this process focuses on the quality of deliverables

Answer 256

Control Quality Process

Question 257

Part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, this process ensures that the flow and usage of physical resources line up with the plan.

Answer 257

Control Resources Process

Question 258

Part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, this process compares the planned work to the actual work.

Answer 258

Control Schedule Process

Question 259

Part of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group, this process ensures that changes to scope are properly controlled

Answer 259

Control Scope Process

Question 260

A type of PMO that provides support and requires compliance through various means

Answer 260

Controlling PMO

Question 261

Steps (action) to bring future results in line with the plan; this can change the plan or the way the plan is being executed

Answer 261

Corrective Action

Question 262

Summing the lower-level cost estimates associated with the various work packages for a given level within the project’s WBS or for a given cost control account.

Answer 262

Cost Aggregation

Question 263

The approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management reserves, which can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

Answer 263

Cost Baseline

Question 264

A financial analysis method used to determine the benefits provided by a project against its costs.

Answer 264

Cost-Benefit Analysis

Question 265

Cost estimates adjusted based on performance—i.e., Estimate at complete, budget at completion, estimate to complete, etc

Answer 265

Cost Forecast

Question 266

A component of a project or program management plan that describes how costs will be planned, structured, and controlled.

Answer 266

Cost Management Plan

Question 267

The money spent during a project to avoid failures. This includes prevention costs that build a quality product and appraisal costs that assess the quality

Answer 267

Cost of Conformance

Question 268

The money spent after a project is complete because of failures. This includes internal and external failure costs

Answer 268

Cost of Non-Conformance

Question 269

All costs incurred over the life of the product by investment in preventing non-conformance to requirements, appraisal of the product or service for conformance to requirements, and failure to meet requirements

Answer 269

Cost of Quality (CoQ)

Question 270

A measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as the ratio of earned value to actual cost.

Answer 270

Cost Performance Index (CPI)

Question 271

A category of contract that involves payments to the seller for all legitimate actual costs incurred for completed work, plus an award fee representing seller profit.

Answer 271

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF) contract

Question 272

A type of cost-reimbursable contract in which the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller’s allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract) plus a fixed amount of profit (fee).

Answer 272

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) contract

Question 273

A type of cost-reimbursable contract in which the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller’s allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract), and the seller earns its profit if it meets defined performance criteria.

Answer 273

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) contract

Question 274

The amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time, expressed as the difference between the earned value and the actual cost

Answer 274

Cost Variance (CV)

Question 275

A cost-benefit analysis allows project managers to compare if the benefits of an action outweigh the costs or, conversely, if the costs outweigh the benefits.

Answer 275

Cost-Benefit Analysis

Question 276

A type of contract involving payment to the seller for the seller’s actual costs, plus a fee typically representing the seller’s profit.

Answer 276

Cost-Reimbursable Contract

Question 277

Applying additional resources to one or more tasks/activities to complete the work more quickly. Crashing usually increases costs more than risks.

Answer 277

Crashing

Question 278

The sequence of activities that represents the longest path through a project, which determines the shortest possible duration

Answer 278

Critical Path

Question 279

Teams that have all the capabilities to deliver the work they’ve been assigned. Team members can specialize in certain skills, but the team can deliver what they’ve been called on to build.

Answer 279

Cross-Functional Team

Question 280

Understanding the cultural differences of the individuals, groups, and organizations in the project stakeholder community to adapt communication strategies to avoid or reduce miscommunication and misunderstandings.

Answer 280

Cultural Awareness

Question 281

The individual or organization that will accept the deliverable(s) or product.

Answer 281

Customer

Question 282

Refers to the period from the time a team starts a task until the time it is completed.

Answer 282

Cycle Time

Question 283

A short, 15-minute meeting in which the complete team gets together for a quick status update while standing in a circle.

Answer 283

Daily Standup

Question 284

Refers to gathered empirical information, especially facts and numbers.

Answer 284

Data

Question 285

The act of scrutinizing facts and numbers for typical purposes of decision-making, verification, validation, or assessment.

Answer 285

Data Analysis

Question 286

Techniques used to solicit and document ideas—i.e., brainstorming, interviews, focus groups, questionnaires, surveys, and so on.

Answer 286

Data Gathering

Question 287

A way of depicting data visually to aid in its communication/comprehension to various audiences

Answer 287

Data Representation

Question 288

Regulations that are widely accepted and adopted through use.

Answer 288

De Facto Regulations

Question 289

Regulations that are mandated by law or have been approved by a recognized body of experts

Answer 289

De Jure Regulations

Question 290

An informal, collaborative means of discussing the positives and the negatives of a project, what worked, and what will be done differently next time.

Answer 290

Debriefing

Question 291

The process of selecting a course of action from among multiple options.

Answer 291

Decision Making

Question 292

A diagramming and calculation technique for evaluating the implications of a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty.

Answer 292

Decision Tree Analysis

Question 293

A technique used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts.

Answer 293

Decomposition

Question 294

Part of the Planning Process Group, this process defines the activities (tasks) necessary to complete work packages/stories.

Answer 294

Define Activities Process

Question 295

Part of the Planning Process Group, this process produces the scope statement that depicts a detailed and complete understanding of the project’s vision.

Answer 295

Define Scope Process

Question 296

A team’s checklist of all the criteria required to be met so that a deliverable can be considered ready for customer use.

Answer 296

Definition of Done (DoD)

Question 297

A team’s checklist for a user-centric requirement that has all the information the team needs to be able to begin working on it.

Answer 297

Definition of Ready (DoR)

Question 298

Any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability used to perform a service and that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or projects.

Answer 298

Deliverable

Question 299

A form of gathering expert opinions in which members of a group are asked or polled anonymously.

Answer 299

Delphi Technique

Question 300

A review at the end of each iteration with the product owner and other customer stakeholders to review the progress of the product, get early feedback, and review an acceptance from the product owner of the stories delivered in the iteration

Answer 300

Demo

Question 301

A relationship between one or more tasks/activities. A dependency may be mandatory or discretionary, internal or external.

Answer 301

Dependency

Question 302

A set of technical guidelines that may be applied during the design of a product for the optimization of a specific aspect of the design.

Answer 302

Design for X (DfX)

Question 303

A data analysis technique to determine the optimal condition; typically used with multiple variables.

Answer 303

Design of Experiments (DoE)

Question 304

Part of the Planning Process Group, this process produces the cost baseline/project budget.

Answer 304

Determine Budget Process

Question 305

A collection of practices for creating a smooth flow of delivery by improving collaboration between development and operations staff.

Answer 305

DevOps

Question 306

Part of the Initiating Process Group, this process produces the project charter, which officially starts the project.

Answer 306

Develop Project Charter

Question 307

A planning process which is a guide on how the project will be managed. It is composed of 19 components

Answer 307

Develop Project Management Plan Process

Question 308

Part of the Planning Process Group, this process arranges activities to create the schedule baseline.

Answer 308

Develop Schedule Process

Question 309

Part of the Executing Process Group, this process enhances and empowers the team to improve teamwork and individual skills.

Answer 309

Develop Team Process

Question 310

Various means of depicting a system or virtual concept such as a business or process flow that indicate entities, relationships, and interactions

Answer 310

Diagramming Techniques

Question 311

A group decision technique in which one person makes the decision for the entire group.

Answer 311

Dictatorship

Question 312

Costs that are reported against the project, which may include salaries for resources, materials, and other expenses. It does not include shared expenses or overhead expenses.

Answer 312

Direct Cost

Question 313

A classification model that groups stakeholders based on how they influence the project and/or the project team: upwards (senior management); downwards (team or specialists); outwards (external); sidewards (project manager’s peers)

Answer 313

Directions of Influence

Question 314

A type of PMO that takes control of projects by directly managing the projects.

Answer 314

Directive PMO

Question 315

Breaking down epics or large stories into smaller stories. This is similar to decomposition on predictive projects.

Answer 315

Disaggregation

Question 316

A relationship that is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or an aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired.

Answer 316

Discretionary Dependency

Question 317

A technique used to gain project requirements from current document valuation.

Answer 317

Document Analysis

Question 318

Amount of time needed to complete an activity/task or work package.

Answer 318

Duration

Question 319

Used in a networking diagram, this represents the earliest date that the activity can finish

Answer 319

Early Finish

Question 320

Used in a networking diagram, this represents the earliest date that the activity can start.

Answer 320

Early Start

Question 321

A measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work.

Answer 321

Earned Value (EV)

Question 322

A methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress

Answer 322

Earned Value Management (EVM)

Question 323

Any or all environmental factors either internal or external to the project that can influence the project’s success to include culture, weather conditions, government regulations, political situation, market conditions, and so on.

Answer 323

EEF

Question 324

A way of analyzing the major risks inherent to a project that could have an impact on its success. These major risks include time, cost, quality, and scope.

Answer 324

Effect-Based Risk Classification

Question 325

The number of labor units required to complete a scheduled activity or WBS component, often expressed in hours, days, or weeks.

Answer 325

Effort

Question 326

The actual calendar time required for an activity from start to finish.

Answer 326

Elapsed Time

Question 327

The ability to identify, assess, and manage the personal emotions of oneself and other people, as well as the collective emotions of groups of people.

Answer 327

Emotional Intelligence (EI)

Question 328

Part of emotional intelligence (EQ or EI). The ability to understand others’ viewpoints and be a team player

Answer 328

Empathy

Question 329

An essential attribute of agile teams to enable localized decision-making capabilities. The quality of granting or being granted, nurturing, or motivating a team member or team to exercise one’s own knowledge, skill, and ability—or that of a team.

Answer 329

Empowerment

Question 330

Another name for “stakeholder engagement roadmap” - a guideline based on the stakeholder analysis that sets forth processes for engaging with stakeholders at current and all future states of the project.

Answer 330

Engagement Roadmap

Question 331

A strategy for managing positive risks or opportunities that involves increasing the probability that the opportunity will happen, or the impact it will have by identifying and maximizing enablers of these opportunities.

Answer 331

Enhance

Question 332

A block of work with one common objective, such as a feature, customer request or business requirement. A helpful way to organize work and create a hierarchy, epic helps teams break their work down, while continuing to work towards a bigger goal.

Answer 332

Epic

Question 333

The act of seeking helpful intervention in response to a threat that is outside the scope of the project or beyond the project manager’s authority.

Answer 333

Escalate

Question 334

A number, figure, or representation that denotes cost or time.

Answer 334

Estimate

Question 335

The expected total cost of completing all work expressed as the sum of the actual cost to date and the estimate to complete

Answer 335

Estimate at Completion (EAC)

Question 336

Part of the Planning Process Group, this process determines the financial estimate for each work package and/or activity.

Answer 336

Estimate Costs Process

Question 337

The expected cost of finishing all the remaining project work.

Answer 337

Estimate to Complete (ETC)

Question 338

Motivational theory which proposes that the team makes choices based on the expected outcome

Answer 338

Expectancy Theory

Question 339

Judgment provided based upon expertise in an application area, knowledge area, discipline, industry, etc., as appropriate for the activity being performed.

Answer 339

Expert Judgment

Question 340

Knowledge that can be codified using symbols such as words, numbers, and pictures. This type of knowledge can be easily documented and shared with others.

Answer 340

Explicit Knowledge

Question 341

A strategy for managing positive risks or opportunities that involves attempting to make sure that the opportunity happens.

Answer 341

Exploit

Question 342

Types of activity dependencies that exist between project activities and non-project activities and can be out of the project’s control

Answer 342

External Dependency

Question 343

Agile methodology in which iterations last for one week and programmers work in pairs.

Answer 343

Extreme Programming (XP)

Question 344

Organized working sessions held by project managers to determine a project’s requirements and to get all stakeholders together to agree on the project’s outcomes.

Answer 344

Facilitated Workshops

Question 345

A skill used to lead or guide an assembled group toward a successful conclusion such as making a decision or finding a solution.

Answer 345

Facilitation

Question 346

A schedule compression technique in which activities or phases normally done in sequence are performed in parallel for at least a portion of their duration.

Answer 346

Fast Tracking

Question 347

A group of stories that delivers value to the customer

Answer 347

Feature

Question 348

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has finished.

Answer 348

Finish-to-Finish (FF)

Question 349

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished.

Answer 349

Finish-to-Start (FS)

Question 350

A type of fixed price contract in which the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract), regardless of the seller’s costs.

Answer 350

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

Question 351

An agreement that sets the fee that will be paid for a defined scope of work regardless of the cost or effort to deliver it.

Answer 351

Fixed Price Contract

Question 352

A type of contract in which the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract), and the seller can earn an additional amount if the seller meets defined performance criteria

Answer 352

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF) contract

Question 353

A fixed-price contract, but with a special provision allowing for pre-defined final adjustments to the contract price due to changed conditions, such as inflation changes, or cost increases (or decreases) for specific commodities

Answer 353

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FPEPA) contract

Question 354

An elicitation technique that brings together pre-qualified stakeholders and subject matter experts to learn about their expectations and attitudes about a proposed product, service, or result.

Answer 354

Focus Groups

Question 355

Technique for calculating the early start and early finish dates of the schedule activities. This is part of the critical path method and is paired with backward pass to determine activity and schedule float along with the critical path.

Answer 355

Forward Pass

Question 356

Supervisory organizational role in a specialized area or department.

Answer 356

Functional Manager

Question 357

An organizational structure in which staff is grouped by areas of specialization and the project manager has limited authority to assign work and apply resources.

Answer 357

Functional Organization

Question 358

In an agile context, an action that the system performs that adds value to the customer/user

Answer 358

Functionality

Question 359

Adding more scope than the customer requested and/or that the team planned for.

Answer 359

Gold Plating

Question 360

Expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.

Answer 360

Ground Rules

Question 361

A bar or column chart that graphically represents numerical data—for example, the number of defects per deliverable, a ranking of the cause of defects, the number of times each process is noncompliant, or other representations of project or product defects

Answer 361

Histogram

Question 362

Archived information from previous projects that can be used for a multitude of reasons, including estimating cost, schedule, resources, and lessons learned.

Answer 362

Historical Information

Question 363

An estimation technique that refers to the time it would take to complete a given task assuming neither interruptions nor unplanned problems arise

Answer 363

Ideal Time

Question 364

An obstacle that prevents the team from achieving its objectives

Answer 364

Impediment

Question 365

A functional, tested, and accepted deliverable that is a subset of the overall project utcome.

Answer 365

Increment

Question 366

Agile concept that the functionality should be delivered in small pieces or stages rather than as a complete solution

Answer 366

Incremental Delivery

Question 367

An adaptive project life cycle in which the deliverable is produced through a series of iterations that successively add functionality within a predetermined time frame.

Answer 367

Incremental Life Cycle

Question 368

A cost usually tracked as part of a contract, that is not expended directly for the project’s benefit.

Answer 368

Indirect Costs

Question 369

Used in quality management decisions. A graphical representation of situations showing causal influences, time ordering of events, and other relationships among variables and outcomes.

Answer 369

Influence Diagram

Question 370

Used in stakeholder management. A classification model that groups stakeholders on the basis of their involvement in and impact on the project.

Answer 370

Influence/Impact Grid

Question 371

The act of presenting a good case to explain why an idea, decision, or problem should be handled a certain way, without resistance from other individuals

Answer 371

Influencing

Question 372

Data that has been analyzed, organized, and processed to make it more meaningful.

Answer 372

Information

Question 373

A system to allow the team to collaborate, share, and capture project work.

Answer 373

Information Management

Question 374

A way to collect, manage, and distribute project information

Answer 374

Information Management System

Question 375

A risk that has only the potential for loss and no potential for profit or gain

Answer 375

Insurable Risk

Question 376

In an agile context, this generally refers to face-to-face conversations between members, customers and stakeholders

Answer 376

Interactions

Question 377

An exchange of information between two or more individuals that ensures common understanding for everyone participating in that exchange

Answer 377

Interactive Communication

Question 378

A type of activity dependency that exists between project activities and is usually under the project’s control

Answer 378

Internal Dependency

Question 379

The interest rate that makes the net present value of all cash flow equal to zero. This rate is a function of the cost of capital for project implementation

Answer 379

Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

Question 380

Skills used to establish and maintain relationships with other people or stakeholders.

Answer 380

Interpersonal Skills

Question 381

A type of procurement document most commonly used when deliverables are commodities for which there are clear specifications and when quantities are very large. The invitation is usually advertised, and any seller may submit a bid.

Answer 381

Invitation for Bid (IFB)

Question 382

A current condition or situation that may have an impact on the project objectives.

Answer 382

Issue

Question 383

An issue is a current condition or situation that may have an impact on the project objectives. An issue log is used to record and monitor information on active issues. Issues are assigned to a responsible party for follow up and resolution.

Answer 383

Issue Log

Question 384

A timeboxed cycle of development on a product or deliverable in which all the work needed to deliver value is performed.

Answer 384

Iteration

Question 385

The work that is committed to be performed during a given iteration and is expected to burn down the duration. The work does not carry over to the next iteration.

Answer 385

Iteration Backlog

Question 386

A project life cycle in which the project scope is generally determined early in the project life cycle, but time and cost estimates are routinely modified as the project team’s understanding of the product/service increases. . Iterations progressively develop the product/service through a series of repeated cycles, while increments successively add
to the functionality of the product/service

Answer 386

Iterative Life Cycle