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Finals > Pass med questions > Flashcards

Pass med questions Flashcards

1
Q

Common side effects of amlodipine?

A

Headache and oedema

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2
Q

Who should you not use HRT in?

A

Established heart disease

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3
Q

First line med management for angina?

A

Usually beta blocker

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4
Q

Angina not controlled on beta blocker what can you add?

A

Calcium channel blocker

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5
Q

When to consider nitrate in angina?

A

If mono therapy does not control and other option contraindicated or if cab and bb used and has symptoms but is waiting for revacularisation.

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6
Q

p450 inducers?

A

Phenytoin, carbamazepine , rifamp, st johns alcohol phenobarbitone griseofulvin

CRAP GPS

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7
Q

Holmes adie pupil?

A

Unilateral sluggish often absent ankle reflexes

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8
Q

Causes of hypoglycaemia? (EXPLAIN)

A 
E- exogenous drugs
P- pituitary insufficiency
L- liver failure
A- Addison’s
I-islet cell tumours
N- non pancreatic neoplasms
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9
Q

Rapid correction of hyponatraemia?

A

Osmotic demyelination

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10
Q

What is osmium second?

A

ASD most common 70% ECG RBBB and RAD

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11
Q

Diabetic nephropathy investigation?

A

Albumin:creatinine ratio early morning sample. high ratio bad

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12
Q

SGLT2 inhibitor may cause what infection?

A

Thrush

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13
Q

Persistent ST elevation after MI suggestive of?

A

Left ventricle aneurysm

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14
Q

Acute management of renal colic meds?

A

IM Diclofenac

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15
Q

Brown sequared syndrome symptoms?

A

Paralysis and proprio loss one side pain and temp loss another. Hemisection on side of paralysis

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16
Q

Recent ERCP presents with pain?

A

Pancreatitis

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17
Q

Abdo pain and distension, vomiting recent cholecystitis?

A

Gallstone Ileus

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18
Q

Churg Strauss (eosinophilic polyangitis) related to which autoantibody?

A

pANCA

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19
Q

Pioglitazone contraindicated in patients with what?

A

HF and also bladder cancer

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20
Q

morning stiffens in proximal limb muscles, polyarthralgia, lethargy, low grad
fever, night sweats and? Blood results?

A

CK normal ESR >40 PMR diagnosis

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21
Q

cloudy low glucose, high protein polymorphs in CSF?

A

Bacterial

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22
Q

Viral CSF?

A

Clear or cloudy, 60-80% glucose plasma

normal or raised protein, lymphocytes

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23
Q

TB CSF?

A

Cloudy fibrin, Low glucose, high protein, lymphocytes

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24
Q

Lambert eaton syndrome? Which cancer?

A

Weakness in proximal arms and legs-worse often neoplastic problems precipitated
Small cell

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25
Q

Muscle weakness increased strength after use?

A

Lambert eaton

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26
Q

Muscle fatigue in myasthenia gravis?

A

Muscle tires after use becomes weaker.

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27
Q

Fatty stool and unwell?

A

Giardia

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28
Q

Metformin may treat which female condition?

A

PCOS

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29
Q

Aortic stenosis SAD?

A

Syncope, angina, exertion

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30
Q

Narrow pulse pressure, absent s2 ?

A

Aortic stenosis

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31
Q

Parkinson’s may cause which skin condition?

A

Seborrhoeic dermatitis

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32
Q

Female <30 non tender fully mobile breast lump?

A

Fibroadenoma

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33
Q

Elevated JVP but persistent hypotension despite fluids?

A

Cardiac tamponade

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34
Q

Post menopausal women oestrogen positive cancer use what?

A

Anastrozole

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35
Q

Haemochromatosis bloods?

A

Raised transferrin, and ferritin with low iron binding capacity

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36
Q

Male bronze, impotent?

A

Haemochromatosis

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37
Q

Aplastic crisis may happen following what in what disease?

A

Parvo infection in sickle cell

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38
Q

Eosinophillic cast sign of what ?

A

Tubulointerstitial nephritis

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39
Q

Muscle tone sustained may affect vocal chords FHx?

A

Essential tremor

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40
Q

Hashimotos thyroiditis symptoms and bloods?

A

Painless goitre and anti thyroid peroxidase

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41
Q

First line treatment of HTN in diabetes?

A

Ace inhibitors

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42
Q

Hypokalaemia ecg features?

A

U waves, small t waves

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43
Q

Bloods in upper GI bleed?

A

low HB and rise in urea due to breakdown of blood

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44
Q

Phaeocromocytoma HTN treatment?

A

Phenoxybenzamine

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45
Q

Kidney transplant increased risk which cancer?

A

SCC

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46
Q

Extradural haematoma features?

A

Lucid interval often hit to side of head Extra-lentis (lentiform)

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47
Q

Treatment of idiopathic intracranial HTN?

A

Acetazolomide

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48
Q

Apical fibrosis typical in?

A

Anklylosing spondylitits

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49
Q

Schobers

A

<5cm

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50
Q

TNF alpha may activate?

A

TB

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51
Q

Venous ulceration where?

A

Above medial malleolus

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52
Q

Mydriatic drops can precipitate?

A

angle closure glaucoma

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53
Q

Diverticula found where?

A

Sigmoid usually

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54
Q

Angioedema drug induced cause?

A

ACEi

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55
Q

Mcmurrays test for what?

A

meniscal tear

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56
Q

Xray finding on RA?

A

Loss of joint space, soft tissue, articular osteoporosis, sparing of DIPS

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57
Q

Grossly elevated APTT?

A

Haemophillia B

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58
Q

Transient elastography uses?

A

Cirrhosis screening

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59
Q

Night blindness and tunnel vision progressive?

A

retinitis pigmentosa

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60
Q

True love and witts ?

A

UC

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61
Q

Diagnose and to treat BPPV?

A

Dix-hallpike diag

epley to treat

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62
Q

Exerting arm and dizziness and vertigo?

A

Subclavian steal

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63
Q

Dermatomyositis can cause what lungs which antibody?

A

Anti jo fibrosis

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64
Q

Compression of optic chasm by what can cause what?

A

Bitemporal upper hemianopia

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65
Q

AF and which endocrine problem?

A

Hyperthyroid

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66
Q

ABX for meningitis prophylaxis?

A

Cipro

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67
Q

Peripheral arterial disease which antiplatelet?

A

Clopidogrel

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68
Q

Rest pain in foot for >2 weeks or ulceration or gangrene?

A

Critical ischaemia

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69
Q

Facial rash, raised calcium and lymphadenopathy?

A

Sarcoid

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70
Q

Antidepressant that may cause retention?

A

Amitriptyline

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71
Q

Acute flare of crohns treatment?

A

IV Hydrocortisone for 5 days if not working consider infliximab

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72
Q

02 target in CO poisoning?

A

100%

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73
Q

Seizure drug causing aplastic anaemia?

A

Phenytoin

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74
Q

IVDU with back pain?

A

Consider psoas abscess

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75
Q

Most common type of hodgkins?

A

Nodular sclerosing

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76
Q

Nail fungal severe?

A

Terbinafine

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77
Q

When to give LTOT ion COPD?

A

pa02 <7.3 twice 3 weeks apart or <8 with functional problems polycythaemia or heart failure

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78
Q

urinary antigen for ?

A

Legionella

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79
Q

Pneumonia with weird signs and rashes?

A

Mycoplasma

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80
Q

Leptospirosis in who what symptoms?

A

farmers, vets, sewage workers. Fever flu like symptoms, renal failure, jaundice, - doxy and ben pen

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81
Q

Treat torsades de pointes?

A

Magnesium for wide polymorphic complex

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82
Q

First line migraine prophylaxis for asthmatic?

A

Topirimate

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83
Q

Hypothermia can cause…

A

pancreatitis

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84
Q

Lung cancer most associated with smoking?

A

SCC

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85
Q

Anti cardioliptin?

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome

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86
Q

Schistosomiasis associated with?

A

SCC bladder

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87
Q

Restless legs treatment?

A

Ropinirole

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88
Q

Tricep reflex?

A

C7-8

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89
Q

L3 L4 reflex?

A

Knee 3 4 kick door

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90
Q

Ankle reflex?

A

S1 S2 buckle shoe?

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91
Q

Gliclazide side effects?

A

Hypoglycaemia and weight gain

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92
Q

Long term steroid use myopathy?

A

Proximal

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93
Q

Beta blockers, adenosine and said contra in this disease?

A

Asthma

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94
Q

Psoriasis exacerbated by?

A

trauma, alcohol, beta blockers, lithium and ACEi

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95
Q

Pain relief for kidney diseased individuals?

A

Fentanyl good

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96
Q

Empyema values?

A

Turbid, pH<7.2 low glucose and raised LDH

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97
Q

Guttate psoriasis may be precipitated by?

A

Strep throat

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98
Q

Metabolic acidosis, high bicarb and abdo pain?

A

Mesenteric ischaemia

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99
Q

Malignant otitis externa organism?

A

Pseudomonas

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100
Q

Organism most likely in bronchiectasis?

A

Pseudomonas

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101
Q

VSD will cause murmur and where?

A

Pansystolic loudest left sternal edge

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102
Q

Low platelets, Prolonged bleeding, and APTT plus PT and degradation products?

A

DIC

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103
Q

When to offer carotid edarterectomy?

A

> 70% occlusion

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104
Q

Chronic alcoholism can cause which electrolyte disturbance?

A

Hypomagnesaemia

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105
Q

Stable chest pain angina first line investigation?

A

CT angiogram

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106
Q

When would you consider NIV in COPD patient?

A

pH 7.25-7.35 also medical management has failed for 60mins but if severe offer anyway

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107
Q

What should FRAX score be greater than to offer a DEXA?

A

10%

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108
Q

What improvement in post bronchodilator indicates asthma?

A

> 12%

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109
Q

Diurnal peak flow variations % difference asthma?

A

20%

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110
Q

Signs and symptoms of optic neuritis?

A

Unilateral decrease in visual acuity over hours or days, red desaturated, pain worse on eye movement, central scotoma

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111
Q

Dilated cardiomyopathy common which group of patients?

A

Alcoholic

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112
Q

Low sodium and rasied urea points to what cause of AKI?

A

Pre-renal

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113
Q

Blood tests in primary biliary cholangitis? Treatment?

A

↑ALP and ↑GGT use cholestyramine

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114
Q

SSRI use and pregnancy?

A

Avoid

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115
Q

Galactocele?

A

women who have recently stopped breastfeeding, build up of milk creates a cyst— no systemic
signs and painless

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116
Q

What leaking causes subdural haemorrhage?

A

Bridging veins

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117
Q

Extradural haematoma what has ruptured?

A

Middle meningeal

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118
Q

Severe hyperglycaemia, dehydration and renal failure and mild/absent
ketonuria?

A

HHS

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119
Q

Otitis media organism?

A

Haemophillus

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120
Q

Causes of spider naeviua (3)

A

Liver, Preg, COCP

121
Q

Most common side for varicocele and problem if on other side?

A

usually left right can indicate renal tumour

122
Q

What to check before starting amiodarone?

A

TFT and LFT

123
Q

Bloods before methotrexate?

A

FBC U+E and LFT

124
Q

Supracondylar fractures of humerus which nerve damaged? Signs?

A

Ulnar ring and little finger altered sensation

125
Q

Mid shaft humerus damage which nerve and which sign?

A

Radial wrist drop

126
Q

Investigation of haematuria?

A

Usually cystoscopy

127
Q

Azathioprine bloods?

A

thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency

128
Q

DAS 28?

A

RA severity

129
Q

What is the anterior draw test also known as and what does it test?

A

Lachman tests anterior cruciate

130
Q

Question mentions indian ink staining ?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

131
Q

Post thyroid stridor?

A

Remove clips

132
Q

Pulmonary fibrosis signs?

A

Clubbing and fine end expiratory crackles

133
Q

Three resp causes of clubbing?

A

Fibrosis, CF/Bronchiectasis, malignancy

134
Q

Solitary hot nodule on thyroid?

A

Toxic adenoma

135
Q

ABX when for otitis media?

A

symptoms >4 days, immunocompromised, younger than 2 with bilateral or with
perforation

136
Q

Endocrine and vitiligo?

A

Addisons

137
Q

Causes of lambert eaton mysathenic?

A

Small cell lung cancer

138
Q

Strongest indication for thrombolysis in PE?

A

Hypotension

139
Q

Knee arthroplasty can cause damage to what and what symptoms?

A

Common peroneal - dorsiflexion affected

140
Q

URTI and haematuria?

A

Usually IgA nepohropathy

141
Q

Heart failure antiemetic caution?

A

Cyclizine

142
Q

Cypropterone acetate prescribed with goserelin why?

A

Prevent tumour flare as testosterone can ↑ at first

143
Q

Raindrop skull xray?

A

Multiple myeloma

144
Q

When to stop PPI before endoscopy?

A

2 weeks

145
Q

What may CLL transform to?

A

Non Hodgkins

146
Q

Intracapsular mobile treatment?

A

Total

147
Q

Intracapsular not mobile?

A

Hemiarthro

148
Q

Trochanteric fracture?

A

Hip screw

149
Q

Subtreochanteric fracture?

A

Intramedullary

150
Q

Acute glaucoma treatment?

A

carbonic anhydrsse and betablockers or pilocarpine

151
Q

Weakness improving after exercise?

A

Lambert eaton

152
Q

What can be seen on dry macular degeneration?

A

Drusen

153
Q

Sarcoid may cause which skin change?

A

Erythema nodosum

154
Q

Reactive arthritis symptoms?

A

Conjunctivitis
Nongonococcal urethritis
Asymmetric oligoarthritis

Keratoderma blennorrhagicum (less common)

155
Q

Reactive arthritis usually follows what? Common in who?

A

HLA-B27 genotype and preceding chlamydial or GI infection.

more males

156
Q

Vitiligo common in what types of disease?

A

Autoimmune

157
Q

Fever in well patient post op (24hrs)?

A

Physiological usually

158
Q

How to feed post oesophagectomy?

A

Jejunostomy

159
Q

Signs of gastic volvulus?

A

vomiting, pain and failed attempts to pass an NG

160
Q

Shortened internally rotated leg?

A

Posterior dislocation of hip

161
Q

What do you see in acute tubular necrosis, microscope?

A

Muddy casts

162
Q

Alternating days fever?

A

Malaria

163
Q

Adult maintenance fluids ml/kg?

A

30ml

164
Q

Test for addisons?

A

Short synacthen

165
Q

Prolactinoma drug treatment?

A

Bromocriptine

166
Q

Malignancy associated with acanthosis nigrans?

A

GI/ gastric

167
Q

Struvite/staghorn associated with which bacteria?

A

Proteus

168
Q

Duct ectasia discharge?

A

Green

169
Q

Periductal mastitis in who?

A

Smokers indurated area

170
Q

Stage IV retinopathy?

A

Pappiloedema

171
Q

Stage III retinopathy?

A

Cotton woll and flame and blot

172
Q

Just had influenza and get pneumonia organism?

A

Staph Aureus

173
Q

What blood results may suggest myeloma?

A

Renal failure, anaemia and hypercalcaemia

174
Q

pH <7.25 COPD?

A

Invasive vent

175
Q

Rifampicin side effects?

A

orange fluids, hepatotoxic

176
Q

TB drugs causing peripheral neuropathy?

A

Isoniazid

177
Q

Pyrazinamide may cause ?

A

Gout and arthralgia

178
Q

Optic neuritis TB drug?

A

Ethambutol

179
Q

Which drugs stopped after 2 months in TB?

A

Ethambutol and pyrizinamide

180
Q

Which drugs continued throughout TB treatment?

A

Rifampicin and isoniazid

181
Q

HyPOnatraemic, HyPErkalaemic metabolic acidosis?

A

Addisons

182
Q

First line investigation in addisonian crisis?

A

Look at blood and if K high need ECG

183
Q

Grey skin drug?

A

Amiodarone

184
Q

Open angle glaucoma treatment?

A

prostaglandin analogue (latanoprost) then beta blocker (timolol)

185
Q

Optic fisc cupping and loss of vision?

A

Open angle glaucoma

186
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome prophylaxis?

A

Allopurinol

187
Q

Lymphoma and these bloods high potassium and phosphate with a low calcium ?

A

Tumour lysis

188
Q

Haemolytic anaemia provoked by malaria prophylaxis in?

A

g6pd

189
Q

Renal transplant and infection?

A

CMV

190
Q

Multi system atrophy?

A

Parkinsonism with autonomic dysfunction often told parkinsons first

191
Q

CCF drugs imnproving mortality?

A

Spiro, ACEi and BB

192
Q

Horners syndrome eye signs

A

Ptosis and MIosis (Mini constricted)

193
Q

Ptosis and Mydriasis?

A

CNIII palsy

194
Q

Role of loop diuretic in heart failure?

A

Symptomatic only

195
Q

BP target in diabetes?

A

End organ damage 130/80 otherwise 140/80

196
Q

Burkitt lympoma on histology?

A

Starry night

197
Q

Most common cause of hirsutism?

A

PCOS

198
Q

Muscarinic agonist example?

A

Pilocarpine

199
Q

Which diuretic in ascites?

A

Spiro

200
Q

Most common lymphoma?

A

Diffuse large B cell

201
Q

PSC which cancer?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

202
Q

Pityriasis rosacea follows/

A

Viral disease

203
Q

Renal AKI cause?

A

Acute tubular necrosis

204
Q

Genital warts which viruses/

A

6 and 11

205
Q

Painkiller causing serotonin syndrome?

A

Tramadol

206
Q

Amouris fugax with headache?

A

GCA

207
Q

Mitral regurg murmur type?

A

Pansystolic

208
Q

Long term steroid use issue?

A

Avascular necrosis

209
Q

Complication of femoral hernia?

A

↑risk strangulation

210
Q

ECG cor pulmonale?

A

R axis deviation

211
Q

Aortic stenosis pulse finding?

A

Narrow pressure slow rising

212
Q

PSA delayed how long after prostatitis?

A

4 weeks

213
Q

INR 5-8 no bleeding?

A

Withhold 2 doses

214
Q

ECG hypothermia?

A

J waves

215
Q

SIADH and lung?

A

Paraneoplastic feature of small cell

216
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism bloods?

A

PTH ↑
Ca2+↑
PO4↓

217
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism bloods?

A

PTH↑
Ca2+↓
PO4↑

218
Q

Causes of secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

CKD usually

219
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism causes?

A

Adenoma usually

220
Q

CRAB for myeloma?

A

Hypercalc, renal insufficiency, anaemia, bone pain, buttock pain

221
Q

IHD and migraines?

A

No triptans

222
Q

Gout and IHD ?

A

Colchicine

223
Q

Acoustic neuroma symptoms?

A

Unilateral progressive hearing loss

224
Q

Hypercalcaemia ecg problem?

A

Short QT

225
Q

What replacement can cause lack of levothyroxine absorption?

A

Iron

226
Q

Prolonged APTT, low platelets and miscarriages?

A

Antiphospholipid

227
Q

Worst melanoma?

A

Nodular

228
Q

LAck of dorsiflexion and foot eversion?

A

Common peroneal

229
Q

Strongest risk for bells palsy?

A

Pregnancy

230
Q

Old man bone pain and raised ALP normal calcium?

A

Pagets

231
Q

Anti centromere elevated?

A

Limited scleroderma

232
Q

What back pain is red flag?

A

Thoracic

233
Q

Autosomal dominant cause of deafness affecting young adults?

A

Otosclerosis

234
Q

Falsely high Hba1c?

A

Splenectomy

235
Q

Trigger of liver decompensation?

A

Constipation

236
Q

Prophylaxis of SBP?

A

Cipro

237
Q

Diabetic patient and operating list?

A

Put first

238
Q

Classify rapidly enlarging AAA and when to repair at any time?

A

> 1.2cm repair at >5.5 unless symptoms

239
Q

↓Na after TURP?

A

TURP syndrome

240
Q

SAH can cause which fluid disturbance?

A

SIADH

241
Q

When to shower after operation?

A

Usually 48hrs

242
Q

Post h.pylori test?

A

Urea breath test

243
Q

Which diabetic drugs stopped in MI?

A

Metformin due to lactic acidosis (start sliding scale)

244
Q

Sings of acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

Red sclera, dilated pupil hazy cornea

245
Q

Antiemetic in parkinsons?

A

Domperidone

246
Q

Upper lobe cavitating which organism?

A

Klebsiella

247
Q

Wernickes triad?

A

Confusion, ataxia and nystagmus

248
Q

Modifiable factor for thyroid eye disease?

A

Smoking

249
Q

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis which investigation?

A

High res CT

250
Q

Posterior dislocation of hipo which nerve?

A

Sciatic

251
Q

Acromegaly associated with?

A

Cardiomyopathy

252
Q

Coughing up what in klebsiella?

A

Red currant jelly

253
Q

Metformin guidelines egfr?

A

<30 stop 30-45 caution and do not start only keep if already on

254
Q

Schobers test

A

<5cm

255
Q

Bone protection in long term steroids?

A

immediately bisphos and vitD and calc

256
Q

Steroids safe in breast feeding?

A

Yes

257
Q

Classification for NOF?

A

Garden

258
Q

Describe lichen planus?

A

itchy papular rash most commonly on palms, soles and flexor surfaces (polygonal flat topped
papular lesions

259
Q

1st line anti HTN diabetic?

A

ACEi

260
Q

Which ABX idiopathic intracranial HTN?

A

Tetracyclines

261
Q

True vs pseudo seizure test?

A

Prolactin

262
Q

Most common lung cancer non smoker?

A

Adeno

263
Q

Pigmented gallstones?

A

Sickle cell

264
Q

Being a smoker classifies as what ASA?

A

II

265
Q

Anal fistula imaging?

A

MRI

266
Q

BP target clinic <80 years?

A

140/90

267
Q

Lead or drainpipe colon?

A

UC

268
Q

Synthetic function of liver deranged?

A

PT time and albumin

269
Q

How long after EBV to resume contact sports?

A

8 weeks

270
Q

Antiplatelets in stroke?

A

300mg first 14 days then clopidogrel 75mg therafter

271
Q

Cervical myelopathy gold standard?

A

MRI

272
Q

Weakly positive bifringent rhomboid crystals?

A

Pseudogout

273
Q

Negatively bifringent needles?

A

Gout

274
Q

Symptoms implying negative prognosis in lymphoma?

A

B symptoms

275
Q

Increased goblet cells?

A

Crohns

276
Q

MS brain MRI?

A

Areas of demyelination

277
Q

Anti CCP?

A

RA

278
Q

Ra can cause which nerve problem?

A

Carpal tunnel

279
Q

> 90% of ↑Ca2+ is?

A

HPT or malignancy

280
Q

Causative organism lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

281
Q

Central retinal artery occlusion symptoms?

A

Red spot pale opaque retina

282
Q

Gastroenteritis >3 weeks?

A

Giardia?

283
Q

Hypokalaemia can lead to ?

A

Long QT and U waves

284
Q

ABX for animla and human bites/

A

Co-amox

285
Q

Suspect phaeochromocytoma?

A

24hr metanephrines

286
Q

Roughened patches over lumbar spine?

A

Tuberous sclerosis

287
Q

High risk wound eg: soil in what to do?

A

Give tetanus immunoglobulin regardless of immunisation status

288
Q

Parallel line shadows Xray?

A

Bronchiectasis

289
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism bloods?

A

High TSH normal T4

290
Q

Scleroderma antibody?

A

Anti centromere

291
Q

Hep A treatment?

A

Supportive no ↑risk of liver cancer

292
Q

Hairy black tongue?

A

Tetracyclines

293
Q

PSC associated with?

A

UC

294
Q

Immunocompromised patients pneumonia other than PCP?

A

Aspergillosis CXR shows small round mass soft tissue like but with air level

295
Q

When to start allopurinol?

A

2-3 weeks after acute attack

296
Q

Occult hip fracture imaging gold standard ?

A

MRI

297
Q

Where is lesion for autonomic dysreflexia?

A

Above T6

298
Q

Superficial thrombophlebitis treatment?

A

Naproxen

299
Q

Anticoagulation with mechanical heart valve?

A

Warfarin

Finals (16 decks)

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