Pass MED difficult Flashcards

1
Q

Where does Ivabradine act on the heart?

A

Acts on the funny current (If) ion in the SA node.

Anti anginal drug

Used in heart failure to reduce the heart rate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What effect can cortixosteroids have on diabetes

A

Use of corticosteroids can worsen diabetic contorl due to their anti insulin effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

WHta is the point of attachment of the thyroglossa duct to the tongu

A

Foramen cecum (remant of thyrodi diverticulum lying at base of tonue during embryonic development)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

WHy does the lung not reinflate with a pneumothorax

A

Increase in intrapleural pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What layers of the aoerta are affected in an aortic dissection

A

Taer in tunica intima - blood pools between intima and media,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

WHta usually sitmulates platelet production

A

Thrombopoetin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What antibiotics ar strongly linked to C.Difficle

A

Cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is cortisol predominately produced by

A

Zona fasiculata of adrenal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mechanism pernicious anaemia

A

Autoimmuen disease, female predominace. Leads to impaired absorption B12 due to lack of intrinsic factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does Giardia Lmablia causes

A

Fat malabsroption, so greasy stool can occur and reisstance to chlorination, hence why it can trasnfer in swimming pools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

WHat is Atomoextine

A

NA reuptake inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pulmonary embolism signs on ECG

A
  • Sinus tachycardia
  • Signs right heart strain
  • T wave inversion in anterior leads
  • S1Q3T3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Sideroblatic anaemia on bloods

A
  • Hypochromic microcytic anaemia
  • Hihg ferritin ion ans transferring saturation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is th eprimary ketone body involved in DKA

A

Acetoacetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the pathophysioogy of DKA

A

Uncontrolled lipolysis which results in excess of FFA that are ultimately conerted to ketone bodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Young perosn with syncope and chets symptos and storng family hsitory shoud raise suspicioun for…

A

Asymmetric septal hypertrophy. Genetic defect is in the beta myoinsin hevay chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the inheritance of lynch syndrome and what does it lead to

A

Autosomal dominant fashion with micrsatellite instability in DNA mismatch repair genes. 80% affecte d individuals will get colonic/and or endometrial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Differntiating between small and large bowel obstruction

A

SMall bowel obstruction - vomitign is ealrier on, before constipation. Large bowel obstruction is more likely de to the longer hsitory of constipaiton and a later onset of vomiting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

3 phases of gastric acid secretion

A
  1. cephalic phase (smell/taste of food) - 30% acid producted, vagal cholinergic stimualtion causing secretion HCL and gastrin release from G cells
  2. Gastric phase (distention stomach) - 60% acid produced, atomach distention/low H+/peptides causes gastrin release
  3. intestinal phase (food in duodenum) - 10% acid prduced, high acididty/distention/hypertonic solutions in duodenum inhibits agstric acid secretion via enterogastrones (CCK, secretin) and neural reflexes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is an atrial myxoma

A

Most common primary cardiac tumour, most occur in left atrium. You get systemic fetures likes syncope, fatigue, weight loss, pyrexi aunknown origin, clubbing. Get emboli, Atrial fibrillation, mid-diastolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When foreign bodies are lodged in the piriform recess- what nerves is most likley damaged

A

intenal laryngeal nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What conversion is essential in steroid producing tissue

A

Conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone as pregnenolone is a precursor for all steroid hormones and its formaiton represents the rate limiting step of steroid synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What happens in hemolytic crisis with patients with sickle cell disease

A

Haemoglobin drops and haptoglobin binds to this so haptoglobin reduces too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

in ascites - what gradient indicated portal hypertension

A

high Serum ascites albumin gradient (>11g/L) indicate dportal hypertension. This is becaise increas ein hydrostatic pressure in portal system so water pushed into peritoneal cavity while leaving proteins behind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Dipryidamole - MOA

A

Non specific phosphodiesterase inhibitor and decreases cellular uptake of adenosine. Anti-platelet med alongside aspiri following ischaemic stroke or TIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

WHta is Kallmann syndrome

A

Combo of hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism and anosmia, occuring due to neuron migration failure. SO lacks secondayr sexual characteristics. Genetic disorder form deficiency GnRH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Firts sign of male puberty

A

Testicular grwoth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Omeprazole MOA

A

Gastric parietal cell H+/K_-ATPase inhibition

29
Q

Where can a kidney infeciton spread

A

Retropertionesl so another structure within that space like psoas muscle.

30
Q

Where does the porral vein begin

A

Tanspyloric plane

31
Q

Commonets cause of addisons disease in UK

A

Autoimmunity (antoibodies targeting 21=hydroxylase)

32
Q

What causes right shift of the oxygen diasociation curve

A

CADET FACE RIGHT

  • CO2
  • Acidosis
  • 2,3-DPG
  • Exercise
  • Temp
33
Q

Describe the features on bloods of sideroblastic anaemia

A
  • Hypochromic microcytic anaemia
  • Hight ferritin iron and transferrin saturation
  • Can be inherited or caused by alcohol, lead posoning, vitamin B6 def, myelodysplastic ysndromes o rvariety of drugs. Standard TB treatment includes isoniazid which is causative agent of sideroblastci anaemia.
  • (Uroin ddef has low ferritin)
34
Q

What are the main causes of haematuria

A
  • Trauma - Injury to renal tract, ureter or bladder
  • Infection - TB
  • Mlaignancy - renal cell carcinoma, urothelial malginancies, squamous cell carcinoma, prostate cancer, penile cancer
  • Renal disease - glomerulonephritis
  • Stones- microscopic haematuria common
  • Structural abnormlaities - BPH, cyctisc renal lesions, vascular malformations, renal veint hrombosis
  • Goagulopathy - cause sbleeding of underlyign lesions
  • Drugs
  • Beign - exercise
  • Gynae - endometriosis
  • Iatrogenic - catheter
  • Psedohaematuria
35
Q

how do you relieve chest pain in pericarditis

A

Sitting/leanign forward

36
Q

What is COurvoisier’s sign?

A

A palpable gallbladder in the presence of painless jaundice. Unlikely to be gallstones, so more likely a malignancy, Most common are cholangiocarcinoma (bile duct cancer) and adenocarcinom of the pancreatic head.

37
Q

WHta is acromegaly and the the treatment

A
  • ACromegaly is a caused by excessive growth hormone Somatostatin directly inhibits the release of growth hormone, and hence somatostatin analoigues ar eused to treat acromegaly like octreotide.
  • Trans-spenoidal surgery is the first line treatment for acromegaly in most patients. Then if inoperable or unsuccessful then medications: somatostain anlogue, pegvisomant, dopamine agonists.
  • Common complicaitons of acromegaly are carpal tunel syndrome an dsleep apnoea.
38
Q

What is the most commo site of duodenal ulcers that can cause bleeding

A

Gastroduodenal artery. Pain relieved by food in duodenal ulcer

39
Q

What are the major drivers of growth in infancy, childhood, puberty

A
  • Infancy (birth-2years) = nutrition + insulun
  • Childhood (3-11) = growht hormone ans thryoine
  • Puberty (12-18) = growth hormone + sex steroid
40
Q

During preganncy what pattern of ABGs would you expect (normal for pregnancy)

A

COmpensated respiratory alkalosis: increased tidal vol means decreased CO2 and hence alkalosis. EVentually the kidneys adapt by reducing bicaebonate in body.

41
Q

0-24hour postMI histology findings

A
  • Early coagualtive necrosis, neutrophils, wavy fibres, hypercontraction of myofibriils.
  • High risk of ventricular arrhythmia, HF and cardiogenic shock.

(Granulationt issue and macrophages - 3-14days after and eventually then scar tissue).

42
Q

What are the branches of the vagus nerve in the neck?

A

Superior and ifnerior cervical cardiac branches

Right recurrent laryngeal nerve - hence if vagus damaged,t hen hoarse voice

43
Q

Branches of the subclavian artery

A

VIT C &D

  • Vertebral artery
  • Internal throacic
  • Thyrocervixal trunk
  • Costocervical trunk
  • Dorsal scapular
44
Q

Descriebt he 4 phases fo the cardiac action potential

A
  • Phase 0 = rapid depolarisation - rapid soidum influx
  • 1 = Early repolarisation = K+ efflux
  • 2 = plaeau = slow influx of calcium
  • 3 = Final repolarisation = efflux of potassium
  • 4 = Restoration of ionic concentration = Resting potential restored by Na+/K+/ATPase
45
Q

What are the 8 branches of the external carotdi artery

A
  • 3 from anteriro surface = thyroid, lingual, facial
  • Medial branch = pharyngeal artery
  • Posterior branches = Posterior aurociular and occipital
46
Q

What is Bucks fascia?

A

Layer of deep fascia that covers the penis in its continuous with the external sermatic fascia and penile suspensesory lgiament. The psongiose part of urethra is contained wholly in Bucks fasvi.

47
Q

WHat nerve is at risk of damage if thre is a foregin body lodged in the piriform recess?

A

Internal laryngeal nerve - supplues sensory innervate to piriform recess.

48
Q

What is polycythaemia and what can cause it?

A
  • High concentration of RBCs in blood so blooc thicker
  • Dehydration, stress. Also secondayr causes liek COPD, altitude, obstructive sleep apnea. Pirmayr causes tlike polycythaemia rubra vera.
49
Q

What is BNP and how is it used in bloods?

A

BNP released by ventricles of heart in response to excessive stretchign of cardiomyocytes.

50
Q

What nerves are responsible for theafferent an efferent limb of the corneal pathway

A
  • Opthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve acts as afferent limb in corneal reflex
  • The facial nerve acts as the efferent limb
51
Q

Mcburneys point

A

2/3 of the way alogn an imaginary line that runs from the umbilicus to the ASIS.

52
Q

What nerve is responsible for pincer grip

A

Anterior interosseous nerve

53
Q

What causes an oxygen dissociation cruve to shift to elft vs right

A
  • Shfits to left = Hbf, low pCO2, Low temp, Low 2,3,DPG, low alklai… (Lower o2 delivery)
  • Shifts to right = raised H+ (acidic), raised pCO2, aised 2,3-DPG, Raised temp
54
Q

What antibiotics are storngly linked to clostirdium difficile

A

Cephalosporines - eg, ceftriaxone, clindamycin

55
Q

What will you find on CT for Alzheimers disease

A

Widespread cerebral atrophy mainly involving cortex and hippocampus

56
Q

WHat allows CSF to flow from fourth ventricle into cisternal magna

A

Median aperture (foramen of Magendie)

57
Q

What amino acid is catecholamine hormones deirved from

A

Tyrosine

58
Q

Posterior cord of brachial olexus - what nerves

A

STAR

  • Subscapular (upper na dlower)
  • Thoracodorsa
  • Axillary
  • Radial
59
Q

WHta is th emechanism o pernicious anaemia

A

Impaired absorption of B12 due to lack of intrinsic factor

60
Q

What is anterior uveitis

A
  • Inflammaiton of the anterior portion of the uvea - iris and ciliary body
  • Important differential of a red eye
  • Associated with hLA-B27
  • Acute onsent, ocular discomfort an dpain, pupil may be small, photphobia, blurred vision, red eye, lcrimaion
61
Q

How does sideroblastic anaemia present on bloods

A

Hypchromic microcytic anaemi a

high rettin iron and transferring saturation

Basophilic stippling of RBC

62
Q

Empty sella syndrome

A

Regression of the pituitary gland causing headaches, hypertension and rhinorrhoea.

63
Q

What nerves is responsible for taste of posteriro 1/3 of tongue

A

Glosospharyngeal

64
Q

Taste of anteiror 2/3 tongue

A

Facial nerve

65
Q

What innervates muscle of tongue

A
66
Q

Hyperkalaemia on an ECG

A

Tall tented T waves and Flattened P waves

67
Q

Hypokalaemia on ECG

A

T wave depression

Tall P waves

U waves

68
Q

What do you see on ECG for wolfe- parkinson - white?

A

Delta waves