Part 2 CVS drugs Flashcards

1
Q

angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors

  • popular antihypertensive agents today
  • _____ is released from its storage in _____ and _____ vessels with _____ stimulation
  • renin combines with angiotensininogen = _____
  • angiotensin 1 goes to the _____ and is acted upon by _____ (_____) to convert to _____
  • angiotensin II is a potent _____
  • it also stimulates release of _____ from _____
  • aldosterone results in _____ reabsorption
  • used in _____, _____, and post _____ (_____)
A
renin
afferent
efferent
adrenergic
angiotensin I
lungs
angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
angiotensin II
vasoconstrictor
aldosterone
adrenal cortex
sodium
hypertension
heart failure
myocardial infarction (MI)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ACE- inhibitors

  • widely used, important class of antihypertensive drugs
  • all generic names of this drug class end in _____
  • _____ (vasotec)
  • _____ (altace)
  • _____ (prinivil)
  • used alone or in combination with other antihypertensives
A

‘-pril’
enalapril
ramipril
lisinopril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

renin angiotensin system

  • regulates:
  • -_____
  • -blood _____ and _____
  • -_____ balance
  • pathology:
  • -_____
  • -_____ failure
  • -
A
blood pressure
volume
fluid
electrolyte
hypertension
heart
myocardial infarction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

renin angiotensin system
renin secretion:
-1. _____ activation (_____-adrenergic receptors)
-2. reduction in _____ tension in _____ arterioles
-3. reduction in _____ reabsorption by renal ______

angiotensin I; II and III:

  • angiotensin I:
  • -precursor of II, little or no _____ activity
  • angiotensin II:
  • -potent _____ degraded to angiotensin III
  • angiotensin III:
  • -has some biological activity but significantly less than angiotensin II
A
sympathetic
B1
wall
renal afferent
NaCl
renal macula densa
biological
vasoconstrictor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

angiotensin II receptors

  • two types: _____ and _____
  • -AT: activation results in the
  • -increase in _____ (_____) leading to an increase in _____
  • -increase in _____ metabolites
  • decrease in _____
  • -_____ (activation)
  • –synthesis and release of _____
  • pharmacological actions
  • -_____ (arterioles)
  • -release of _____
  • -alteration of _____ and _____ structure
A
AT1
AT2
inositol phosphate (IP3)
intracellular calcium
arachidonic acid metabolites
cAMP
adrenal cortex
aldosterone
vasoconstriction
aldosterone
cardiac
vascular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ACE-inhibitors

  • _____, _____, _____, _____, _____
  • clinical uses:
  • -_____; cardiac _____, diabetic _____, _____
  • -mechanism: inhibition of _____, inhibits the production of _____
  • pharmacological effects
  • -vasodilation:
  • –blocks _____
  • –mainly arterioles, less on _____
  • –decrease _____ - decrease in _____
  • -both arterial and venous pressure _____
  • –what happens to preload and afterload? _____
A
catopril
enalapril
fosinopril
lisinopril
ramipril
hypertension
failure
nephropathy
MI
ACE
angiotensin II
vasoconstriction
veins
PR
BP
DECREASES
BOTH DECREASE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

drug interactions of ACE inhibitors
_____ & ______ diuretics:
-augmented _____ and _____ insufficiency
-caution when used in combinations

_________
–combined hypotension

  • drugs that increases _____ levels
  • -_____ supplements
  • -_____-sparing _____

-_____: increase levels of Li+

A
loop & thiazide
hypotension
renal
antihypertensives
potassium
K
potassium
diuretics
lithium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

side effects of ACE inhibitors

  • rash 5-10%
  • _____ 5% with _____ (from bradykinin)
  • contraindicated in _____, causes severe fetal injury
  • -_____ failure
  • –in patients with _____
  • –patient is dependent on _____ to maintain renal blood flow and glomerular filtration
A
dry cough
lisinipril
pregnancy
renal
bilateral renal artery stenosis
angiotensin II
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

angiotensin II receptor blockers

  • angiotensin II has a strong _____ effect due to activation of _____ receptors present on _____
  • ARBs compete for these receptors and _____ them
  • _____ (cozaar) is the first ARB
  • _____ + _____ (Hyzaar) is a combination available
A
vasoconstrictor
angiotensin II
blood vessels
block
losartan
losartan
hydrochlorothiazide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
angiotensin II receptors blockers (ARBs)
MOA
-blocks activation of \_\_\_\_\_ receptors
--vascular smooth muscle: \_\_\_\_\_ of \_\_\_\_\_
--adrenal glands:
---\_\_\_\_\_ and decrease \_\_\_\_\_ secretion
----increase \_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_ excretion
----no significant effect on \_\_\_ levels and do not cause dyspnea, \_\_\_\_\_ or angioedema
--the net effect is similar to \_\_\_\_\_\_
A
angiotensin
dilation
arterioles
vasodilation
aldosterone
Na+
water
K+
cough
ACE inhibitors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

angiotensin II receptors blockers (ARBs)

  • ARBs: Losartan
  • -adverse effects:
  • –no major adverse effects
  • –low incidence of _____
  • –DO NOT increase serum _____; _____, or alter _____ levels
  • -contraindicated in:
  • –_____ - 2nd and 3rd trimester
  • –_____ diseases: renal artery stenosis
A
dizziness
glucose
uric acid
serum lipid
pregnancy
renal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

beta blockers

  • sympathetic antagonists at the beta receptors in _____ and _____
  • inexpensive agents used with _____ for hypertension
  • decrease _____ rate and _____ demand of heart muscle
  • block beta 1 receptors and beta 2 or only beta 1
  • block the _____ and _____ effect
  • decrease rate of spontaneous _____, slow _____ conduction
  • end in “_____”: _____, _____, _____
A
heart
blood vessels
diuretics
pulse
oxygen
positive inotropic
chronotropic
depolarization
AV
lol
propranolol
metoprolol
atenolol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

beta blockers

  • non-selective beta blockers may block the beta 2 receptors in _____ airways
  • results in _____ / life threatening!
  • beta blockers may also blunt the _____ that occurs with _____
  • recovery from_______ may be delayed
  • may block the sympathetic symptoms of _____
A
bronchial
bronchoconstriction
glycogenolysis
catecholamines
hypoglycemia
hypoglycemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

uses of beta blockers

  • management of _____: acute and chronic
  • _____ is cardio-selective: Mx of angina pectoris
  • _____: blocks beta receptors on ciliary blood vessels
  • decreases production of _____ (IOP)
  • _____: Mx of hypertension, angina, SVTs migraine prophylaxis, tremors, social phobia, GAD
  • _____ (ultra short acting): critically ill patients
  • _____ has intrinsic beta agonist activity, used for chronic hypertension
  • _____ is a non selective beta blocker. airway stimulation in a patient may cause bronchoconstriction
A
hypertension
atenolol
timolol
aqueous humor
propranolol
esmolol
pindolol
nadolol
bronchoconstriction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

propranolol

  • _____ to _____ hypertension
  • severe hypertension: combine with _____
  • blocks _____ and _____ adrenoceptors (non-selective)
  • -decreases BP by decreasing _____
  • inhibit the stimulation of _____ production
  • -(which is via B1 stimulation by _____)
  • –depress (partly) the _____ system
  • –propranolol is contraindicated in first degree _____, _____, cardiogenic shock COPD and bronchial asthma
  • –given _____ for hypertension/ _____ for arrhythmias
A
mild
moderate
vasodilators
B1
B2
cardiac output
renin
catecholamines
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone
heart block
CHF
orally
IV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

metoprolol (Lopressor/Toprol XL)
cardioselective
-blocks _____, sparing _____ receptors (except at high doses)
-effects similar to _____: reduces _____ levels too
-advantage for hypertensive patients with history of _____, _____ or peripheral vascular disease
-given _____, onset of action is 5 mins, peaking in 1 hour
-used for _____, _____, _____, _____
-it enhances the effects of _____ (CNS depression)
-if used with _____ to reverse NM blockade, marked _____ has been observed in patients
-it masks signs of _____ and _____

A
B1
B2
propranalol
renin
asthma
diabetes
IV
hypertension
angina
MI
congestive heart failure
benzodiazepines
neostigmine
bradycardia
hypoglycemia
hyperthyroidism
17
Q

labetalol

  • normodyne/trandate
  • _____ + _____ and _____ blocker
  • alpha: _____, decreased _____, _____ hypotension
  • beta: _____ node, _____ node, _____ muscle: _____
  • used _____ intra-op
  • attenuates hypertension and tachycardia post _____
  • used for _____ and _____ withdrawal
  • specifically used for _____, _____, general and _____ surgical procedures
A
alpha 1
beta 1
2
vasodilation
PR
orthostatic
SA
AV
ventricular
bradycardia
IV
surgery
pheochromocytoma
clonidine
cardiac
vascular
intracranial
18
Q

calcium channel blockers

  • calcium entry into the cell is essential for _____ to _____
  • calcium is a trigger for _____ contraction
  • blocking calcium channels inhibits smooth muscle contraction leading to _____ of _____ and _____ and _____ effects on heart
  • _____ is used for peri-operative hypertension
  • _____ slows SA and AV conduction transmurally
A
smooth muscles
contract
cardiac smooth muscle
vasodilation
arterioles
negataive inotropic and chronotropic
nifedepine
verapamil
19
Q

calcium channel blockers

  • _____: amlodipine, nifedipine
  • _____, _____
  • very _____ agents
  • act directly on smooth muscle in _____ and cause _____
  • also decrease _____ and force of _____
  • _____ (adalat) is used in acute situations
  • minimal effect on cardiac contractility by _____
  • decrease _____
A
dihydropyridines
diltiazem
verapamil
potent
arterioles
relaxation
heart rate
contraction
nifedipine
dihydropyridines
peripheral resistance
20
Q

clinical considerations of CCBs

  • _____, _____, _____, _____
  • drug induced _____ overgrowth (hypertrophy)
  • adequate hydration of the patient reduces the risk of _____ peri-operatively
  • increased cardiovascular depressant effects of _____
  • _____ increases the sedative effects of benzodiazepines
  • increased chances of _____ and _____ with concomitant use of diltiazem and beta blockers
A
dizziness
headache
syncope
tachycardia
gingival
hypotension
general anesthetics
general anesthetics
diltiazem
hypotension
bradyarrhythmias
21
Q

anti-anginal drugs

  • angina: latin/ pain in _____ syndrome
  • _____ of the heart muscle
  • _____ pain radiating to _____ arm/ chest/ jaw
  • deficit in myocardial oxygen supply in relation to demand resulting in _____ depression in EKG
  • the ischemia may result from _____ of the coronary artery, _____, increased cardiac_____ or usually a combination of the above
  • drug induced: cocaine as well as drugs containing _____ (such as _____)
A
chest
ischemia
retrosternal
left
ST
atherosclerosis
vasospasm
cardiac workload
sympathomimetics
epinephrine
22
Q

pathophysiology of angina

  • _____ diet/ obesity
  • family history of _____
  • _____
  • age/ race/ gender
  • co-existing _____ disease
  • _____
  • _____
  • substances of abuse
  • _____ (_____)
A
high cholesterol
MI
hypertension
cardiac
smoking
alcohol
vasospasm
prinzmetal's
23
Q

symptoms of angina

  • classically… _____ pain described as squeezing, constricting, burning
  • radiation to _____, _____, _____, _____
  • may be associated with _____, vomiting, dizziness, fear of doom
  • can a patient be symptom free?
A
substernal
jaw
neck
shoulder
left arm
nausea
yes
24
Q

pharmacological management
6 classes of drugs used for management of angina
-1. _____: nitroglycerin
-2. _____ blockers: nifedipine, verapamil
-3. _____ blockers: propranolol, atenolol
-4. _____ and _____: aspirin
-5. _____: approved by FDA in 2006 for chronic angina patients who fail traditional therapy
-6. _____: metabolic agent which decreases oxidation of free fatty acids. used for _____ term control
-all these drugs relieve anginal pain either by reducing _____ demand or increasing _____ supply to myocardium

A
organic nitrates
calcium channel
beta
antiplatelets
anticoagulants
ranolazine
trimetazidine
long
oxygen
blood
25
Q

non-pharmacological Mx

  • control of _____/ _____
  • _____ change
  • stop _____
  • reduce _____
  • develop an _____ program
  • surgical ‘revascularization’ - _____
  • _____ and _____ therapy
A
weight
diet
lifestyle
smoking
blood pressure
exercise
CABG
stents
laser
26
Q

nitrates

  • _____ (nitrostat, nitro-dur patch)
  • _____ which converts in the smooth muscle intracellular space
  • converted to _____ (NO) which causes _____ of cardiac blood vessels
  • dilates both _____ and _____ vasculature
  • used _____ in acute angina attacks
  • -onset is 1-3 minutes
  • -use up to _____ doses
  • -_____ are common (use _____)
  • -cant be stored in _____ (special IV sets)
A
nitroglycerin
prodrug
nitric oxide
vasodilation
coronary
pulmonary
sublingually
3
headaches
Tylenol
plastic
27
Q
nitrates
nitro patches
-used prophylactically for \_\_\_\_\_
-given in 0.2, 0.4, 0.6mg/hr patches
-applied for 12 hours- off for 12 hours
-nitrate free period of 10-12 hours is required or the patient may become \_\_\_\_\_ to the nitrate therapy
  • side effects:
  • -_____
  • -_____, lightheadedness
  • -_____
  • -_____ can greatly increase the effect of nitrates
A
angina
tolerant
headache
dizziness
hypotension
alcohol