GI Flashcards

1
Q
  • Lower the dose of _____, _____, _____ or _____ as H2 blockers may decrease their metabolism and enhance duration of action (slower recovery)
  • _____ is a weak anti-androgenic: may produce _____ and _____ in males
  • Contraindicated in _____ and _____
A
Diazepam
Midazolam
Lidocaine
TCAs
Cimetidine
impotence
gynecomastia
pregnancy
lactation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

NSAIDs

  • NSAIDs are the most common cause of _____ in patients without _____ infection
  • topical effects of NDAIDs cause submucosal _____. in addition, by inhibiting _____, NSAIDs inhibit the formation of _____ (PGE2) and their protective _____-2-mediated effects (i.e., enhancing gastric mucosal protection by stimulating _____ and _____ secretion and _____ proliferation and increasing mucosal _____)
  • coexisting _____ infection increases the likelihood and intensity of NSAID- induced damage
  • NSAID use is responsible for approximately one half of _____, which occur most commonly in older patients who are taking _____ or other _____ for _____ or _____
A
PUD
H. Pylori
submucosal erosions
cyclooxygenase
prostaglandins
cyclooxygenase
mucus
bicarbonate
epithelial cell
blood flow
H. Pylori
perforated ulcers
aspirin
NSAIDs
cardiovascular disease
arthropathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

STEROID SPARING: Decrease the long-term need for steroids for recurring flares

  • takes _____ months (slow onset of action) for improvement in symptoms, steroids are started at the same time to produce a faster response and are withdrawn rapidly
  • oral: _____ (Azasan, Imuran )and _____ (Purinethol)
  • used to maintain _____
  • Other examples : _____ (weekly injections), _____ and _____ (Topical- for Pyoderma Gangrenosum)
A
3-6
Azathioprine
6-Mercaptopurine
remission
Methotrexate
Cyclosporine A
Tacrolimus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ERADICATION OF H.PYLORI-DRUG COMBINATION THERAPY
-OAC – _____, _____, and _____ for _____ days;
BMT – _____, _____, and _____ for _____ days;
LAC – _____, _____, and _____ (LAC), for either _____ days or _____ days;

A
Omeprazole
Amoxicillin
Clarithromycin
10
Bismuth subsalicylate
Metronidazole
Tetracycline
14
lansoprazole
Amoxicillin
Clarithromycin
10
14
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

SE of PPI

  • Increased risk of _____ and _____
  • A risk factor for _____ infection via alteration of the colonic flora
  • Combination therapy: _____ + _____ + _____
  • PPIs may reduce absorption of some _____ and _____ (require _____ environment for absorption)
  • Decrease efficacy of _____ (PPIs inhibit CYP2C19 enzyme, thus interfering with the conversion of Clopidogrel into its active metabolite)
A
pneumonia
bone fracture
C. difficile
Antacids
H2 blockers
PPIs
antibiotics
antifungals
acidic
Clopidogrel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

bulk forming

  • _____
  • _____

stimulants

  • _____
  • _____

osmotic

  • _____
  • _____
  • _____ (_____)
  • _____

wetting agents

  • _____
  • _____
A

Psyllium, Methylcellulose

Bisacodyl Senna, Castor oil

Mag hydroxide Lactulose, Glycerin Polyethylene glycol (PEG)
Milk of Magnesia

Docusate
Mineral oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CELIAC DISEASE (GLUTEN SENSITIVE ENTEROPATHY)

  • Autoimmune disorder of _____ intestine in genetically predisposed (HLA DQ2, DQ8, or both)
  • An inflammatory reaction to dietary gluten resulting in production of _____ that may produce _____ of the _____ (villous atrophy)
  • Intestinal manifestations- _____, flatulance and weight loss.
  • _____- iron deficiency anemia(palor), decreased bone mineral density, dermatitis herpetiformis, neuropathy and muscle wasting
  • Left untreated- low _____ (vitamin D def) and risk for _____
  • Women- risk of _____, spontaneous abortions, preterm deliveries, and LBW
A
small
autoantibodies
shortening
villi
diarrhea
Extraintestinal
BMD
fractures
infertility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

2: 5HT3 RECEPTOR ANTAGONISTS FOR IBS-D
- _____ (Zofran) – has excellent safety record
- _____ is present in the entero-chromaffin cells (EC cells)
- These patients have higher mucosal _____ concentrations in the colon
- Improve QOL by slowing transit, reducing bowel frequency, normalizing _____, and reducing _____
- Blocks _____ signals that transmit _____ information (painful and non painful) from the gut to the brain and helps to reduce _____ and abdominal pain.
- SE: _____ (25%) and _____

A
Ondansetron
Serotonin
5-HT
stool consistency
urgency
serotonin
sensory
diarrhea
Constipation
Ischemic colitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

antacids: _____ + _____ = _____ + _____

  • act as buffers to neutralize _____ (act within _____)
  • therapeutic effect is by _____ or _____ properties
  • salts of _____, _____, or _____
  • available as chewable/dissolving tablets, liquid and gums
  • examples: _____, _____, _____
  • inhibit _____ activity by raising pH to _____
  • side effects- _____ (_____ salts) and _____ (_____ salts)
  • mixture of these two can preserve normal _____ function
  • antacids impair the absorption of _____, oral _____, _____, _____, _____, _____ and _____
A
acid
alkali
salt
water
H+ ions
mins
physical
chemical
aluminum
magnesium
calcium
alka-seltzer
gelusil
tums
peptic
5
diarrhea
Mg
constipation
Al
bowel
tetracycline
iron
fluoride
ciprofloxacin
erythromycin
metronidazole
thyroxine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

H2 blockers- inhibit _____ and _____ stimulated _____ secretion

  • ________ ________ inhibitors of _____ at all H2- receptors
  • highly selective for _____
  • inhibit _____, _____, and _____ stimulated _____ secretion
  • _____ secretion also falls with reduction in acid volume
  • available both by OTC and prescription:
  • _____ (Tazac, Axid)
  • _____ (Pepcid)
  • _____ (Zantac)
  • _____ (Tagamet)
  • _____ are likely to follow when treatment is stopped
  • all agents are rapidly absorbed from _____
A
basal
food
gastric acid
reversible competitive 
histamine
H2 receptors
histamine
gastrin
Ach
acid
pepsin
Nizatidine
Famotidine
Ranitidine
Cimetidine
relapses
intestine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

H. Pylori

  • Gram _____, spiral bact, in _____ and _____
  • Infection occurs by _____ route
  • _____ cavity may be the permanent reservoir (found in dental plaque and saliva) and a _____ route is the most probable mode of transmission
  • Several virulence factors are produced:
  • _____
  • this converts urea into _____ which buffers _____ and creates an _____ (allows to survive for years)
  • Results in
  • High levels of _____ and _____ and reduced levels of _____
  • Impaired _____ secretion
A
–ve
gastric antrum
pyloric sphincter
oral
person-to-person
Urease
ammonia
H+ ions
ALKALINE CLOUD
gastrin
pepsinogen
somatostatin
duodenal bicarbonate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

treatment

  • _____-free diet (Dietary education should focus on identifying hidden sources of gluten, planning balanced meals, reading labels, food shopping, dining out, and dining during travel)
  • 5% of patients are refractory to a gluten-free diet
  • Refractory patients –
  • -_____
  • -_____
  • -Remission may be induced by the _____ and maintained with _____ and _____.
  • Dermatitis herpetiformis – _____ skin ointment, _____ or potent topical Steroids (_____ or _____) or very potent (_____)
A
Gluten
Corticosteroids
Immuno-modulators
anti-TNF alpha antibody Infliximab
Prednisolone
Azathioprine
Dapsone
Salfasalazine
Betamethasone valerate
dipropionate
Clobetasol propionate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

GERD: a digestive disorder of the _____ (_____)

  • symptoms: chronic _____, _____, _____, _____ pain and early _____
  • Reflux – Excess _____ production, weakness of _____ at LES or _____
  • > 9 million primary care visits annually in US
  • Most common cause of _____
  • If left untreated, esophagitis can cause _____, _____, and chronic _____
  • Scarring narrows the esophagus and interferes with _____
  • Long standing GERD symptoms may cause _____ (10-15%) increasing the likelihood of _____
A
lower esophageal sphincter (LES)
heartburn
dyspepsia
regurgitation
epigastric
satiety
acid
muscular ring
hiatal hernia
esophagitis
bleeding
ulcers
scarring
swallowing
Barrett's esophagus
cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

STEP III-IMMUNOMODULATORS (Steroid-Sparing drugs)

  • MOA: inhibit _____ mediated and _____ mediated immune reactions- _____
  • inhibit _____, _____ and _____ of cells
  • used if:
  • -No-response or intolerance to _____, _____ or _____
  • -_____ disease or frequent need for steroids
  • -Perianal disease that does not respond to _____
  • -_____
  • -To bolster the effect of a _____ drug and prevent the development of resistance to biologic drugs
  • -Prevent recurrence after surgery
A
cell
antibody
immunosuppressants
production
differentiation
proliferation
Amino-salicylates
antibiotics
corticosteroids
Steroid-dependent
Antibiotics
fistulas
biologic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CD- oral manifestations

  • Seen on _____, _____ mucosa and _____
  • _____ ulcerations
  • Angular _____
  • _____ with or without edema of lips
  • Mucosal _____ in the gingiva
  • Buccal mucosa _____
A
lips
buccal
gingiva
Aphthous
cheilitis
Cobblestoning
tags
abscesses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
CLINICIAN’S CONCERNS
drug induced:
-\_\_\_\_\_
-\_\_\_\_\_ disturbance
-\_\_\_\_\_

-may decrease _____ effect of the anticoagulants like _____ and _____

A
agranulocytosis
taste
parotitis
anticoagulant
heparin
warfarin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

OPIOID RECEPTOR ANTAGONISTS – µ (peripheral)

  • _____
  • Used in short term tt of opioid _______ without affecting analgesia and withdrawals
A

Methynaltrexone

induced constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

antiemetics
-_____ – Benzodiazepines like lorazepam
-_____ – Antipsychotics like _____, Prochlorperazine
-D2 antagonists in CTZ and peripheral pro-kinetic action – _____ and _____
-_____ – Ondansetron, Granisetron
_____ is highly selective, high-affinity, non cardiotoxic and safe in children
-_____ – Meclizine, Cinnarizine, Cyclizine, Dimenhydrinate, Promethazine and Diphenhydramine
-Muscarinic antagonists– _____( Scopolamine as a transdermal patch)
-Corticosteroid combination and neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor antagonist – Aprepitant
-Partial CB1 agonist – _____ and _____

A
GABA agonist
DA antagonists
Promethazine
Metoclopramide
Domperidone
5HT3 antagonist
Granisetron
H1 antagonists
Hyoscine
nabilone, dronabinol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ALARM FEATURES” that warrant prompt gastroenterology referral

  • _____
  • _____
  • early _____
  • unexplained _____
  • progressive _____ or _____
  • recurrent vomiting and family history of _____

-patients with perforated PUD usually present with a sudden onset of severe, sharp _____ pain: _____!

A
bleeding
anemia
satiety
weight loss
dysphagia
odynophagia
GI cancer
abdominal
medical emergency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ANALGESIC OF CHOICE IN PUD AND IBD PATIENTS

  • Avoid prescribing _____ and _____
  • Use _____ or _____ (selective COX-2inhibitor) in combination with _____ or _____
  • IBD pt – avoid long term use of _____, especially in elderly and debilitated to minimize risk of _____
  • Monitor for signs and symptoms of _____
  • Selection of antibiotics for oral infections may be influenced by recent use of antibiotics for _____
A
Aspirin
NSAIDs
Acetaminophen
Celecoxib
PPI
Misoprostal
antibiotics
pseudomembranous colitis
diarrhea
PUD
21
Q

MANAGEMENT1: OPIOIDS FOR IBS-D

  • _____ (Imodium) - binds to the _____ receptor in the gut wallConsequently, inhibiting the release of _____ and _____, thereby reducing _____, and increasing intestinal transit time.
  • Improves QOL as it allows planning of trips and socializing- anxious IBS-D patients
  • Maximum daily dose is 8mg for adults as OTC use and 16mg as prescription use.
  • Much higher doses can cause _____ and even death.
A
Loperamide
opiate
Ach
PGs
peristalsis
cardiotoxicity
22
Q

COLLOIDAL BISMUTH COMPOUNDS-Indirectly inhibit acid secretion

  • Suppress _____ infection and reduce the hypersecretion of _____
  • Form an _____ over the ulcer base preventing further damage by acid and pepsin- _____ drug mechanism
  • Adverse effects: _____ of the _____ and darkening of the _____
  • No significant drug interactions
  • Available as _____, _____
A
H. pylori
acid
insoluble protective layer
Physical
blackening
stool
tongue
Pepto-Bismol
Kaopectate
23
Q

GASTRITIS: inflammation, irritation or erosion of _____

  • acute/chronic
  • causes:
  • -excessive _____ use
  • -chronic _____
  • -_____
  • -medications such as _____, other _____ and _____
  • ______
  • _____ reflux
  • infections caused by _____ and _____
  • if left untreated- severe loss of _____ and increased risk of developing _____
A
stomach lining
alcohol
vomiting
stress
aspirin
NSAIDs
bisphosphonates
H. pylori
bile
bacteria
viruses
blood
stomach cancer
24
Q

3: SECRETAGOGUES FOR IBS-C
-Guanylate cyclase-C receptor agonist: Stimulates _____ secretion by activation of type 2 _____ via _____ (an intracellular second messenger) which in turn promotes _____
–_____ (Amitiza)- does not alter pain thresholds during rectal distension, acts on ____ receptors stimulating chloride receptors, _____ take care of pain
–_____ (Linzess) - improves pain as well by blocking pain signals, works on _____ channels, stimulating chloride receptors, takes care of pain
SE: _____

A
chloride
Cl- ion channels
cGMP
peristalsis
Lubiprostone
GCC
does not
Linaclotide
chloride 2
Diarrhea
25
Q

COMMON SIDE EFFECTS WITH IMMUNOSUPPRESSANT DRUGS

  • _____ and _____: Canker sores, bone marrow suppression (increase the risk of infection or serious ______) and increased risk of ____________
  • _____ and _____: increased risk of infections, high blood pressure, swollen _____, tingling of the fingers and feet, increased _____
  • _____: Severe mouth sores and low ___ count. Addition of ______ may reduce some side effects.
A
Azathioprine
6MP
bleeding
non-hodgkins lymphoma
Cyclosporine
tacrolimus
gums
facial hair
Methotrexate
WBC
folic acid
26
Q

SUCRALFATE

  • A salt of sucrose complexed to sulfated _______
  • MOA: Similar to ______ compounds
  • SE: _____
  • Contraindicated in _____ because of the risk of _____ absorption and toxicity
  • Drug interactions: Can reduce the absorption of drugs such as _____ and _____
  • Available as _____
A
Aluminum hydroxide
bismuth
Constipation
chronic renal failure
Aluminum
Phenytoin
Tetracycline
Carafate
27
Q

laxative abuse

  • Eating disorders – _____ (binge eating followed by purging)
  • Quick weight control – _____ (boxing, wrestling)
  • _____ – something is wrong if they don’t move their bowels every day
A

Bulimia
Combat sports
Older adults

28
Q

STEP IV: BIOLOGIC THERAPY WITH MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES

  • _____: If not responded or intolerant to Corticosteroid and/or an Immunosuppressant
  • -_____ (IV) – Remicade
  • -_____ (SC) – Humira
  • -_____ – Cimzia
  • TNF is a _____ agent in the body’s immune response and is _____ in IBD
  • Watch-out for reactivation of latent _____ and other opportunistic infections, _____
  • Cautious use in pts with _____
A
Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) inhibitors
Infliximab
Adalimumab
Certolizumab pegol
cytokine
upregulated
TB
Hepatitis B
heart failure
29
Q

treatment of oral lesions

  • Local _____ injections to the lesion
  • _____ 2% in severe cases
  • Topical _____ at low concentrations of 0.5 mg/kg
  • 1% _____ ointment three times daily
  • Steroid _____ (Dexamethasone elixir)
  • Topical _____ ointment for refractory aphthous ulcers
A
Corticosteroid
Lidocaine
Tacrolimus
Hydrocortisone
mouthwashes
Dexamethasone
30
Q

MISOPROSTOL – A synthetic PGE1 analog

  • Has _____ inhibitory and _____ protective properties
  • Simulates _____ and _____ secretion and enhance mucosal blood flow
  • Binds to a _____ receptor on parietal cells, reducing _____ mediated ____production
  • Is an _____ drug (stimulates uterine contraction), so not to be used during pregnancy
  • No significant drug interactions are reported
  • Available as _____, _____
A
acid inhibitory
mucosal
mucus
bicarbonate
prostaglandin
histamine, c-AMP
abortifacient
Cytotec
Misodel
31
Q

management

  • Bulk forming – Absorb _____ and _____ to increase _____ pressure (increase in peristalsis)
  • Stimulants – Stimulate _____ in intestinal smooth muscle, increase mucosal permeability (moves fluids into lumen)
  • Osmotics – Increase _____ (stimulate peristalsis by increasing intraluminal pressure)
  • Wetting agents – _____ to ease passage (act like detergents and soften stools by reducing _____, thus allowing intestinal fluids, fatty substances to penetrate fecal mass)
A
water
expand
intraluminal
enteric nerves
fluid volume
Moisten
surface tension
32
Q

STEP II- CORTICOSTEROIDS(ANTI-INFLAMMATORY)

  • For _____ disease flares only
  • Decrease inflammation by reversing increased capillary _____ and suppressing _____ activity
  • Not effective in preventing complications or progression of disease
  • ___-term use is discouraged due to side effects
  • _____ and _____ Prep (Suppositories, enemas and rectal foams)
  • -_____ (O)
  • -_____ (O, Top)
  • -_____ (O, Inj)
  • -_____ (O, Top) an enteric-coated controlled-release capsule delivers active _____ to the distal _____ and _____
A
acute
increased capillary permeability
PMN
Oral
rectal
Prednisone
hydrocortisone
methylprednisone
budesonide
glucocorticoid
distal small intestine
colon
33
Q

constipation

  • 74% nursing home residents
  • _____, lack of _____, or use of certain medications (_____, _____, _____, _____, _____ and Supplements like _____/_____)
  • Underlying ds- Stroke, Parkinson’s disease, Diabetes, Spinal cord injury, Multiple sclerosis, Hypothyroidism etc
  • Most pts use OTC remedies and don’t report
  • Discomfort, bloating, hemorrhoids or fecal impaction
  • Mistaken belief: everyone should move their bowels each day, can lead to dangerous _____ overuse
  • Bowel movements _____/wk may be normal and healthy for some
A
Diet
physical activity
Opioids
CCBs
diuretics
antidepressants
antacids
iron/calcium
laxative
3
34
Q

PUD: peptic ulcer disease (gastric/duodenal)

-_____ that develops on the _____ lining of the stomach and or the _____ portion of _____ (extends through _____ mucosa)

A
open sore
inside
upper
SI
muscularis
35
Q
  • _____: inflammation of superficial gastric mucosa
  • _____: destruction of multiple small zones of superficial mucosa
  • _____: destruction of full thickness of mucosa
A

superficial gastritis
erosive gastritis
gastric ulceration

36
Q

TRAVELLER’S DIARRHEA

  • Acute diarrhea in those who travel to developing countries and have adventuresome _____ behavior
  • Main source of infection: Food and water contaminated with _____ matter
  • Bacteria: _____, Campylobacter, _____, and Shigella
  • Luxury resorts & cruise ships (_____ virus)
  • Seafood ingestion syndromes : _____ numbness and reversal of _____ sensation
  • More susceptible: Immunocompromised or lowered _____ (e.g., on _____ or _____)
A
eating
fecal
E coli
Salmonella
Noro
Perioral
temperature
gastric acidity
H2blockers
PPIs
37
Q

MANAGEMENT- Stepwise approach (step-up)

  • Step I – 5-ASA (_____) _____ daily basis (life long maintenance)
  • -_____-Pentasa, Rowasa, Asacol
  • -_____ – Azulfidine
  • -_____ – Giazo
  • MOA: exert topical _____ effect by reduction in synthesis of inflammatory _____ (inhibition of _____ production, blocking of _____)
  • Side effects: _____, Vomiting and GI upset (poor compliance), _____ discoloration of secretions, decrease in _____ absorption (supplements, megaloblastic anemia)
  • Used during flares and for maintaining _____
  • Overall: safe, well-tolerated but drug _____ is very imp
  • Caution: Patients prescribed anti-inflammatory drugs may have an _____ effect
A
Aminosalicylic acid
twice
Mesalazine
Sulphasalazine
Balsalaside
anti-inflammatory
inflammatory cytokines
arachidonic acid metabolite
PG synthesis
Nausea
yellow-orange
folate
remission
compliance
additive
38
Q

inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

  • idiopathic disease
  • dysfunction of the _____ and _____ immune system
  • two major types:
  • -ulcerative colitis (US): limited to the _____ mucosa
  • -crohns disease (CD): affects any segment of GIT from _____ to _____, involves _____ lesions and is _____

-there is a genetic predisposition for IBD, and patients are more prone to development of _____

A
innate
adaptive
colonic
mouth
anus
skip
transmural
malignancy
39
Q

h2 blockers pharmacokinetics

  • undergo _____ metabolism resulting in bioavailability of _____ (except _____)
  • action starts within an _____ and DOA is _____ hours based on the dose administered
  • ADRs: _____, _____, _____, _____, _____ and _____
  • these drugs are cleared by combination of _____ metabolism, _____ filtration, and _____ secretion
  • dose reduction is required in patients with moderate to severe _____ and _____ insufficiency
  • in the elderly, a decrease in _____ and _____ decline in drug clearance occurs
A
first pass hepatic
50%
Nizatidine
hour
8-12
xerostomia
diarrhea
myalgia
headache
constipation
fatigue
hepatic
glomerular
renal tubular
renal
hepatic
volume of distribution
50%
40
Q

PUD treatment

  • Address the underlying cause
  • Lifestyle changes:
  • Reduction in _____ and _____ foods
  • _____ loss
  • Head of bed _____ & avoidance of meals _____ before _____
  • Eradication of _____ infection
  • Withdraw _____
  • Anti-secretory therapy
    1: _____
    2: _____ blockers
    3: _____ inhibitors (PPIs)
A
fatty
spicy
weight
elevation
2-3 hours
bedtime
H pylori
NSAIDs
Antacids
H2
proton pump
41
Q

symptoms of IBD

  • Abdominal cramping and pain- Commonly in _____ in CD and in _____ or _____ in UC
  • Irregular bowel habits, passage of _____ with/without blood or pus, _____
  • Weight loss, _____ (during flare-up)
  • _____, _____, _____
  • _____ (50%)
  • Perianal disease (_____, _____): 50% patients with CD
  • _____ and delayed or failed _____ maturation in children
  • Malabsorption of _____, _____ and other nutrients leading to _____ and _____ lesions
A
RLQ
periumbilical
LLQ
mucus
tenesmus
Fever
Malaise
Arthralgia
Uveitis
Pyoderma gangrenosum
fistulas
abscesses
Growth retardation
sexual
iron
B12
anemia
oral
42
Q

proton pump inhibitors- most potent
-Given orally: _____ (Prilosec), _____ (Prevacid), _____ (Protonix)
-Are _____ that require gastric acid secretion to be converted to the active _____ or _____.
-_____ bioavailability is high (77% to 90%) and show equivalent efficacy
-Bind to the _____ irreversibly
-Half-life is about _____ hour (9 hours for Tenatoprazole, but the duration of acid inhibition is _____ hours (pumps take around 50 hours to resynthesize)
-Most PPIs are metabolized by CYP2C19 and CYP3A4.
__________ and ______ reduce clearance of the PPIs, as do mutations in CYP2C19.

A
Omeprazole
Lansoprazole
Pantoprazole
prodrugs
Sulfenamide
Sulfenic acid
Oral
H,K-ATPase
1
48
hepatic impairment, old age
43
Q

irritable bowel syndrome

  • abdominal pain or discomfort accompanied by a change in _____ habit and an abnormal _____ frequency:
  • -_____ is a>3 bowel movement/day
  • -_____ is <3 movements/week
  • prevalence is 10-15%
  • more common in _____ 2:1
  • often coexists with other GI disorders, both functional (_____, chronic _____) and organic (_____ disease, _____, _____)
A
bowel
stool
diarrhea
constipation
women
dyspepsia
constipation
celiac
GERD
IBD
44
Q

STEP 1A- ANTIBIOTICS

  • Used more often for _____ disease, _____, _____ masses in CD
  • Most commonly used antibiotics are :
  • -_____
  • -_____
A
perianal
fistulas
intra-abdominal inflammatory
Ciprofloxacin
Metronidazole
45
Q

GERD and extra-esophageal symptoms

  • Refluxed gastric contents can go into the throat, airways and lungs causing irritation or damage:
  • -Chronic _____
  • -Chronic _____
  • -_____
  • -_____
  • Progressive breathing problems
  • Pulmonary diseases (adult-onset _____ or pulmonary _____)

-Distinguish _____ from _____ chest pain before diagnosing GERD

A
cough
laryngitis
aspiration
pneumonia
asthma
fibrosis
cardiac
non-cardiac
46
Q

h2 blockers clinical relevance

  • use of H2 blockers before treatment ( _____ premedication/surgeries) is beneficial in _____ patients
  • _____ and _____ may occasionally cause thrombocytopenia
  • GI pH is _____, concurrent use causes marked reduction in absorption of _____. advise patients to take at a different time.
  • _____ alters the blood flow to the liver and is an enzyme inhibitor: can enhance DOA of other medications, especially _____
  • cimetidine inhibits the metabolism of _____ and _____
A
anesthetic
GERD
cimetidine
ranitidine
increased
antifungals
cimetidine
analgesics
phenytoin
warfarin
47
Q

symptoms of PUD

  • _____ stomach pain
  • feeling of _____
  • _____ or _____
  • _____ food intolerance
  • _____
  • _____
  • gastric ulcer- pain is _____ after _____
  • duodenal ulcer- _____ after meals
  • etiology is similar to _____
  • _____ alone do not increase the risk for PUD, can potentiate _____ risk in patients who use _____ concurrently
A
burning
fullness
bloating
belching
fatty
heartburn
nausea
shortly
meals
2-3 hours
meals
gastritis
corticosteroids
ulcer
NSAIDs
48
Q

traveller’s diarrhea

  • DD: _____ (e.g., Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus)
  • _____ prohylaxis : Not recommended
  • Avoid high-risk _____ (street vendors) and eating behaviors (cold sauces, salsas)
  • Empiric treatment:
  • -_____ solutions (sometimes change in H20 and electrolyte imbalance is the cause of diarrhea)
  • -_____ agonists – Increase colonic transit time (anti-_____) and Increase fecal water absorption (anti-______)
  • _____ (does not cross BBB so no addiction potential), has _____ effects
  • _____ + _____ (Lomotil), CNS effects at higher doses
  • _____ - Rifaximin (Salix), also used in IBS as has anti-inflammatory and antibacterial properties
A
Gastroenteritis
Antibiotic
foods
Oral rehydration solutions
Opioid agonists
motility, secratory
Loperamide
anticholinergic
Diphenoxylate
atropine
Antibiotics
49
Q

GI diseases
Esophagus –_____ (_____)
Stomach – _____, _____ (PUD)

Intestines –
-Acute: _____ (Bacteria, Viruses and Protozoa) / Traveler’s _____
Chronic: _____ (duodenum), _____ diseases (IBD- UC/Crohn’s), _____ (_____), and _____ disease
-_____

Rectum and Anus – Anal fissures, _____

A
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
gastritis
peptic ulcer disease
Gasteroenteritis
diarrhea
Peptic ulcer disease
Inflammatory bowel
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) Coeliac
constipation
Hemorrhoids