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Massage Practice Tests > Part 2 > Flashcards

Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

The basic functional unit of bones is the:

a) compact bones
b) periosteum
c) spongy bones
d) osteons

A

d) osteons

contain a mineral matrix and living osteocytes cells connected by canaliculi, which transport blood

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2
Q

Which cranial nerve controls the shoulder?

a) vagus
b) trigeminal
c) accessory
d) abucens

A

c) accessory

cranial nerve that supplies the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. It is considered as the eleventh of twelve pairs of cranial nerves

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3
Q

Your client is lying in the supine position and complains of lower back pain. What do you do first?

a) stop the massage
b) turn him on his side
c) ask him to relax
d) place a pillow under his knee

A

d) place a pillow under his knee

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4
Q

Which nerve controls the heart and lungs?

a) trochlear
b) cranial cardiac
c) vagus
d) cardio-pulmonary

A

c) vagus (aka pneumogastric nerve)

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5
Q

If your client has HIV, under what circumstances can you refuse treatment?

a) when your client thinks he is infected
b) when you are afraid of being infected
c) only when your client admits he is infected
d) none of the above

A

d) none of the above

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6
Q

Which body cavity contains the heart and lungs?

a) thoracic
b) pleural
c) chest
d) dorsal

A

a) thoracic

pleural cavity = there are actually two (surrounding each lung), contains only the lungs, not the heart

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7
Q

What term means the blood?

a) hemostasis
b) hemoiasiss
c) hematoma
d) emia

A

d) emia

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8
Q

The suffix “ase” normally indicates a:

a) sugar
b) enzyme
c) carbohydrate
d) abnormal conition

A

b) enzyme

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9
Q

Which of the following may lead to the revocation of your license?

a) opening 24 hours without approval
b) not closing the premises for repairs
c) abandoning the premises
d) having too many therapists on duty

A

c) abandoning the premises

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10
Q

Which term indicates the use of ice?

a) cyanosis
b) sub-thermosis
c) hyposome
d) cry

A

d) cry

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11
Q

Which bone connects the tibia, fibula, and the navicular?

a) phalanges
b) digitals
c) talus
d) calcaneus

A

c) talus (aka ankle bone)

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12
Q

The origin of the sartorius muscle is:

a) femur
b) ilium
c) ischium
d) pubis

A

b) ilium

uppermost and largest part of the hip bone

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13
Q

Which muscle is involved in the plantarflexion of the foot?

a) pectineus
b) gastrocnemius
c) gracilis
d) tibialis anterior

A

b) gastrocnemius

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14
Q

Which are two muscles of the leg?

a) pectineus
b) sartorius
c) gracilis
d) peroneus brevis

A

d) peroneus brevis = lower leg
b) sartorius = hip to knee
pectineus = hip
gracilis = groin

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15
Q

What do you do if your client does not comprehend what you are saying?

a) massage slowly and carefully
b) have him/her sign a consent form
c) do not massage
d) ask his/her friend for consent

A

c) do not massage

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16
Q

What is the main physiological benefit of massage?

a) it breaks up fibrosis
b) increases blood circulation
c) it warms the skin
d) it sedates the client

A

b) increases blood circulation

general massage outcomes:
relaxation, stress management, pain management, functional mobility

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17
Q

In which direction do you massage the abdomen?

a) with the peristalsis
b) counter-clockwise
c) toward the venous flow
d) from distal to proximal

A

a) with the peristalsis

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18
Q

Spongy bone tissue is found:

a) in the nose
b) in the hyoid bone
c) between hard bones
d) end of long bones

A

d) end of long bones

Spongy bone has a lower density and allows the ends of long bones to compress as the result of stresses applied to the bone.
ends of long bones, as well as in the pelvic bones, ribs, skull, and the vertebrae in the spinal column

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19
Q

What is melanin?

a) a cancer
b) a pigment
c) a protein
d) a membrane

A

b) a pigment

produced by melanocytes; Everyone has the same number of melanocytes, but some people make more melanin than others. The more melanin, the darker your skin/eyes/hair

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20
Q

The mediastinum is located in the:

a) throat
b) abdominal cavity
c) thorax
d) umbilical region

A

c) thorax (between the two pleural sacs)

a membranous partition between two body cavities or two parts of an organ, especially that between the lungs

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21
Q

What is exudate?

a) an inflammatory mediator
b) a waste product of metabolism
c) fluid that accumulates in inflamed tissue
d) excretion of the alimentary canal

A

c) fluid that accumulates in inflamed tissue

An exudate is any fluid that filters from the circulatory system into lesions or areas of inflammation; normal part of healing process; prevents wound from drying out and helps tissue-repairing cells to migrate and provides essential nutrients and growth factors

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22
Q

Which quadrant is the stomach located in?

a) right upper
b) right lower
c) left lower
d) left upper

A

d) left upper

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23
Q

What is phagocytosis?

a) eating microbes
b) inflammation of the phalanges
c) bad breath
d) excess gas in the large inestines

A

a) eating microbes

process by which certain living cells called phagocytes ingest or engulf other cells or particles

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24
Q

What is the function of pacinian corpuscles?

a) defend the body
b) detect vibration and pressure
c) detect light touch
d) transport gases

A

b) detect vibration and pressure (aka lamellar)

one of the four major types of mechanoreceptor cells; others types are tactile corpuscles (Meissner’s corpuscles), Merkel nerve endings, and bulbous corpuscles (Ruffini corpuscle)

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25
Q

What is the function of Meisner’s corpuscles?

a) defend the body
b) detect vibration and pressure
c) detect light touch
d) transport gases

A

c) detect light touch (aka tactile corpuscle)

one of the four major types of mechanoreceptor cells; others types are Merkel nerve endings, lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscles, and bulbous corpuscles (Ruffini)

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26
Q

What is the function of red corpuscles?

a) defend the body
b) detect vibration and pressure
c) detect light touch
d) transport gases

A

d) transport gases
red corpuscles = red blood cells = erythrocytes
corpuscle basically just means “tiny piece”

carry oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues and carbon dioxide, as a waste product, away from the tissues and back to the lungs

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27
Q

What is the function of white corpuscles?

a) defend the body
b) detect vibration and pressure
c) detect light touch
d) transport gases

A

a) defend the body against infection and disease

white corpuscles = white blood cells = leukocytes

White blood cells originate in the bone marrow but circulate throughout the bloodstream; there are several types

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28
Q

What muscle elevates and depresses the scapula?

a) rhomboids
b) teres major
c) trapezius
d) subscapicularis

A

c) trapezius

used to tilt and turn the head and neck, shrug, steady the shoulders, and twist the arms; The trapezius elevates, depresses, rotates, and retracts the scapula, or shoulder blade. Innervation of the trapezius is derived from the spinal accessory nerve.

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29
Q

The ulna is what to the radius?

a) medial
b) proximal
c) lateral
d) distral

A

a) medial

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30
Q

How many segments are in the spinal cord?

a) 24
b) 26
c) 31
d) 36

A

c) 31
remember: vertebral column refers to bones; spinal cord is part of the central nervous system; The spinal cord is shorter than the length of the bony spinal column; the vertebral column encloses and protects the spinal cord

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31
Q

What is metastasis?

a) increased metabolism
b) ability of cells to mutate
c) change in equilibrium
d) migration of cancer cells

A

d) migration of cancer cells

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32
Q

Which is a highly contagious staphylococcal infection in young children?

a) pedococcal syndrome
b) impetigo
c) infectious cocci
d) staphantiasis

A

b) impetigo

Impetigo usually appears as red sores on the face, especially around a child’s nose and mouth, and on hands and feet. The sores burst and develop honey-colored crusts

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33
Q

2nd degree burns are characterized by:

a) sunburn
b) destruction of the dermis
c) peeling of the skin
d) blisters

A

d) blisters

pain, redness, swelling, and blistering
affect the epidermis and the dermis

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34
Q

The lowest area of the abdomen is the:

a) hypogastric
b) umbilicus
c) inguinal
d) subabdominal

A

c) inguinal (groin)

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35
Q

Which muscle reaches from the thorax to the pubis?

a) rectus abdominus
b) external abdominal obliques
c) vastus abdominus
d) transverse abdominus

A

a) rectus abdominus (6 pack muscle)

Rectus abdominis flexes the trunk anteriorly (bending over)

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36
Q

At what structure in the lungs does gas exchange occur?

a) bronchioles
b) pulmonary arteriole
c) endothelial membrane
d) alveolus

A

d) alveolis

exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide molecules to and from the bloodstream

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37
Q

What movement of the mandible is parallel to the ground?

a) extension
b) protraction
c) abduction
d) adduction

A

b) protraction (aka protrusion, forward movement)

mandibular depression = opening mouth
elevation = closing mouth
retraction aka retrusion = moving backwards
lateral movement

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38
Q

The frontal bone is located in what part of the body?

a) thorax
b) neck
c) head
d) hands

A

c) head (forehead)

39
Q

The origin of the semimembranosus and the semitendinosus is the:

a) ilium
b) pubis
c) coxal
d) ischial tuberosity

A

d) ischial tuberosity (sit bones)

Tuberosity - A moderate prominence where muscles and connective tissues attach
four posterior thigh muscles that are responsible for extending the hip: semimembranosus, semitendinosus, biceps femoris and gluteus maximus

40
Q

The origin of the sartorius is the:

a) ischium
b) coxal
c) ilium
d) sacrum

A

c) ilium

sartorius longest muscle of body. long, thin, band-like muscle in anterior region of thigh. functions as an important flexor and rotator of the thigh at the hip joint.

41
Q

If only one side of the sternocleidomastoid (SCM) is flexed, this will produce a movement called:

a) adduction
b) contralateral rotation
c) abduction
d) circumduction

A

b) contralateral rotation

primary actions of the SCM are rotation of the head to the opposite side and flexion of the neck
contralateral rotation: motion created by a muscle that rotates the neck to the opposite side from where it is located—in other words, a left-sided muscle that rotates the neck to the right side

42
Q

The muscle which draws the arms backwards is the:

a) trapezius
b) rhomboids
c) deltoids
d) latissimus dorsi

A

d) latissimus dorsi

The latissimus dorsi is the largest muscle in the upper body. The latissimus dorsi is responsible for extension, adduction, transverse extension also known as horizontal abduction, flexion from an extended position, and (medial) internal rotation of the shoulder joint.

43
Q

What is hemoglobin?

a) a protein
b) whole blood
c) round blood cells
d) red bone marrow

A

a) a protein

iron-containing protein that enables red blood cells to carry high concentrations of oxygen to the tissues; it is found in red blood cells
The pigment in hemoglobin is responsible for the red color of blood

44
Q

What is a motor unit?

a) motor an sensory nerves
b) a neuron and the attached axom
c) motor, sensory and interneuron
d) a motor neuron and the muscle cells it innervates

A

d) a motor neuron and the muscle cells it innervates

45
Q

Which muscle bends the little finger?

a) flexor digitorum
b) flexor pollicis brevis
c) flexor digiti minimi
d) flexor quinti profundus

A

c) flexor digiti minimi

46
Q

Which is the major artery of the body?

a) aorta
b) jugular
c) carotid
d) cardiac

A

a) aorta

the main artery of the body, supplying oxygenated blood to the circulatory system. In humans it passes over the heart from the left ventricle and runs down in front of the backbone

47
Q

What is reciprocal inhibition?

a) When a muscle shortens but produces minimal movement
b) when a muscle pulls forcefully against a load but does not shorten
c) when a muscle contracts, its agonist must relax
d) none of the above

A

c) when a muscle contracts, its agonist must relax

muscles on one side of a joint relax to accommodate contraction on the other side of that joint

48
Q

The exaggerated curve of the lumbar spine is called:

a) spinal spifida
b) lordosis
c) amphiarthrosis
d) none of the above

A

b) lordosis (or Hohlkreuz)

excessive inward curvature of the spine.

49
Q

What is necrosis?

a) blood disease
b) chronic kidney condition
c) paralyzed nerve
d) tissue death

A

d) tissue death

50
Q

The artery which supplies the knee joint is:

a) popliteal
b) femoral
c) patella
d) external iliac

A

a) popliteal

continuation of the femoral artery; runs across the popliteal fossa, posterior to the knee joint

51
Q

The gland which is called the master gland is:

a) thyroid
b) adrenals
c) pituitary
d) pineal

A

c) pituitary

regulating vital body functions and general wellbeing; controls the activity of most other hormone-secreting glands; located in the brain, just behind the bridge of the nose

52
Q

The fixed end of a muscle is the:

a) insertion
b) muscle fixator
c) epiphysis
d) origin

A

d) origin

53
Q

Synovial fluid is located in the:

a) blood
b) joints
c) lymph fluid
d) brain

A

b) joints

Only synovial (movable) joints contain synovial fluid; synovial joints are called such because of the fluid they contain, not the other way around

54
Q

What is the imaginary line which divides the body into equal right and left halves?

a) coronal
b) transverse
c) sagittal
d) mid-sagittal

A

d) mid-sagittal

55
Q

What is the action of the quadratus lumborum?

a) trunk extension
b) lateral flexion of the trunk
c) hip flexion
d) hip extension

A

b) lateral flexion of the trunk

deepest abdominal muscle; supports good posture and helps stabilize your spine when you bend to the side or extend your lower back

56
Q

How many bones are in the vertebral column?

a) 26
b) 36
c) 31
d) 24

A

a) 26

24 of those bones are vertebrae; the other two are the sacrum and the coccyx; a series of openings between the vertebrae are the intervertebral foramina; nerves pass from spinal cord through these foramina

57
Q

A small discolored patch on the skin like a freckle is a:

a) papule
b) tubercule
c) tumor
d) macule

A

d) macule

58
Q

A small elevated pimple in the skin containing fluid which may develop pus is a:

a) papule
b) tubercule
c) tumor
d) macule

A

a) papule

59
Q

An abrasion of the skin caused by scratching or scraping is called a:

a) scar
b) fissure
c) excuriation
d) dermatitis

A

c) excuriation

60
Q

A cancer of the skin characterized by dark patches of brown or black is a:

a) tumor
b) malignant melanoma
c) basal cell carcinoma
d) steatoma

A

b) malignant melanoma

61
Q

Inflammation of a vein is called:

a) thrombosis
b) osteoporosus
c) hematosis
d) phlebitis

A

d) phlebitis

62
Q

The autonomic nervous system controls:

a) voluntary muscles
b) involuntary functions
c) sensory organs
d) feeds sensory information

A

b) involuntary functions

as opposed to the somatic nervous system which controls voluntary functions

63
Q

What nerve supplies the neck muscles to control movements?

a) spinal accessory
b) trigeminal
c) brachial plexus
d) trochlear

A

a) spinal accessory

innervates sternocleidomastoid and trapezius
trigeminal = responsible for sensation in the face and motor functions such as biting and chewing
brachial plexus is a system of nerves that conduct signals to the shoulder, arm and hand
trochlear nerve innervates only a single muscle: the superior oblique muscle of the eye

64
Q

Which nerve supplies the deep muscles of the foot and toes?

a) peroneal
b) plantar
c) cutaneous
d) tibia

A

b) plantar

65
Q

What nerve supplies the shoulder joint?

a) radial
b) cervical
c) circumflex
d) brachial plexus

A

d) brachial plexus

66
Q

The thyroid supplies the hormone called:

a) parathyroid
b) thyroxine
c) insulin
d) bile

A

b) thyroxine

vital roles in digestion, heart and muscle function, brain development and maintenance of bones

67
Q

How many members are on the Board of Massage Therapy?

a) 4
b) 6
c) 5
d) 7

A

c) 5

68
Q

Members of the Board of Massage Therapy are appointed by the:

a) board chairman
b) governor
c) mayor
d) legislature

A

b) governor

69
Q

The ratio of apprentices for each sponsor is:

a) 3 to 1
b) 7 to 1
c) 5 to 1
d) 10 to 1

A

d) 10 to 1

70
Q

The sponsoring massage therapist must be licensed in Hawaii at least:

a) 5 years
b) 3 years
c) 7 years
d) 9 years

A

b) 3 years

71
Q

How many hours of theory and demonstration of massage must an apprentice complete?

a) 70 hours
b) 80 hours
c) 90 hours
d) 100 hours

A

d) 100 hours

72
Q

The massage therapist, establishment, and outcall service licenses expire on ___ of even numbered years:

a) 4/30
b) 5/31
c) 6/30
d) 7/31

A

c) 6/30

73
Q

If a massage therapist causes injury to a patron by carelessness or negligence, what action can the board take?

a) file a misdemeanor charge
b) assess a $1,000 fine
c) revoke license
d) asses a $100 fine

A

c) revoke license

74
Q

With what part of the thumb is shiatsu performed?

a) digital ball of the thumb
b) tip of distal phalanx
c) interphalangeal joint
d) proximal end of thumb

A

a) digital ball of the thumb

75
Q

When vibration is applied over a prolonged period of time, the client could experience:

a) relaxation
b) invigoration
c) numbing
d) shaking

A

c) numbing

76
Q

The state’s definition of massage is:

a) manipulations or adjustments of muscles and joints
b) performing effleurage, petrissage, tapotement with or without compensation
c) any method of treatment of the superficial soft parts of the body
d) none of the above

A

c) any method of treatment of the superficial soft parts of the body

77
Q

What technique is used on scar tissue at old injury sites?

a) petrissage
b) friction
c) compression
d) pincement

A

b) friction

78
Q

What is the best movement to reduce adhesions or fibrosis?

a) friction
b) tapotement
c) compression
d) vibration

A

a) friction

79
Q

What is osteoporosis?

a) an inflammation
b) pores of the skin
c) brittle bones
d) a hemorrhage

A

c) brittle bones

80
Q

If the draping on a client falls off and exposes his/her private parts:

a) report the incident to the PMT
b) leave the room
c) continue to massage
d) excuse, redrape, continue

A

d) excuse, redrape, continue

ALSO report the incident to the PMT

81
Q

Percussion should never be applied on:

a) boney areas
b) fleshy parts
c) on muscles
d) the buttocks

A

a) boney parts

also spinous processes, over kidney area

82
Q

What is the most important hygiene protocol?

a) disinfect doorknobs
b) wash your hands before and after a massage
c) change sheets after massage
d) cut your fingernails short

A

b) wash your hands before and after a massage

a) and c) are too obviously false; research and modify answers

83
Q

A conveniently located restroom should be:

a) on the premises
b) within 50 feet
c) within 200 feet
d) within 150 feet

A

c) within 200 feet

84
Q

The muscular movement in which the muscle shortens is called:

a) isotonic
b) agonist
c) tetanic
d) isometric

A

a) isotonic

Isotonic contractions generate force by changing the length of the muscle
Isometric contractions generate force without changing the length of the muscle.
Tetanic contraction is a sustained muscle contraction evoked when the motor nerve that innervates a skeletal muscle emits action potentials at a very high rate

85
Q

Within how many days must an establishment notify the board of a change in PMT?

a) 2 days
b) 4 days
c) 3 days
d) 5 days

A

d) 5 days

5 days to notify when a PMT leaves; 10 days to find appoint a new PMT

86
Q

What technique uses the palm of the hand perpendicular to the body part?

a) friction
b) percussion
c) compression
d) vibration

A

c) compression

87
Q

What condition is characterized by a swelling and accumulation of blood in the tissue?

a) hernia
b) hematoma
c) contusion
d) hyperemia

A

b) hematoma

contusion is a type of hematoma, maybe, or at least they’re similar; tried forever to figure it out

88
Q

What is the purpose of deep transverse friction?

a) break up fibrosis
b) stop the pain sensation
c) stretch the tendon
d) stretch the ligaments

A

a) break up fibrosis

fibrosis describes the development of fibrous connective tissue as a reparative response to injury or damage; can lead to considerable tissue remodelling and the formation of permanent scar tissue

89
Q

What is assistive joint movement used for?

a) increase muscle strength
b) Decrease pain
c) Improve and maintain joint integrity
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

90
Q

Inflammation is characterized by:

a) pain, heat, tenderness, swelling
b) heat, redness, pain, tenderness
c) pain, heat, redness, swelling
d) all of the above

A

c) pain, heat, redness, swelling

91
Q

How many members of the board must have three years of experience?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

A

b) 3

92
Q

What are the 5 divisions of the vertebral column?

A

cervical (7), thoracic (12), lumbar (5), sacral division (sacrum is 5 vertebrae fused into one bone), coccygeal division (coccyx aka tailbone, fusion of 3 to 5 vertebrae)

93
Q

A license may be suspended or revoked due to

a) Falsification or misrepresentation in the application
b) Use of untrue, fraudulent, misleading, deceptive, or inappropriate advertising
c) Abandoning an establishment or an out-call massage service
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

additionally: Teaching the practical application of body massage without the proper qualification as; Participating in or using the establishment for any lascivious conduct, lewdness, or any sexual act; stating or implying that the registrant, has cured, can cure, or guarantees to cure, or has successfully treated any disease, defect, or deformity; Prescribing, administering, or making recommendations as to
medication or injection therapy; Causing bodily injury by carelessness or negligence as a result of
practicing massage.

Massage Practice Tests (4 decks)

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