Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MICRO > ✅Parasitology > Flashcards

✅Parasitology Flashcards

1
Q

Simple life cycle is defined as

A

Having one host only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Free living organism that passes through the digestive tract without infecting the host

A

Spurious parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Types of hosts. Define each.

A

Definitive or final host - parasite attains sexual maturity

Intermediate hosts - harbors asexual or larval stages

Paratenic hosts - parasite does not develop further to later stages

Reservoir hosts - allow life cycle to continue and become addl sources of human infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Types of vectors. Describe each.

A

Biologic - transmits parasite only after it has completed its development

Mechanical or phoretic vector - transmits only the parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

E. Histolytica trophozoites secrete ____ which digest cellular material

A

Cysteine proteases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T. gambiense mechanism if immune evasion

A

Antigenic variation (surface protein variation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Example of a facultative parasite

A

Strongyloides stercoralis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T gambiense evades the immune system by

A

Antigenic variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

E granulosus evades the immune system by

A

Carrying blood group antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Toxoplasma evades the immune sysem by

A

Multiplying inside macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

E histolytics produces suppressor factor that

A

Inhibits monocyte movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Kingdim protozoa is divided into

A

Sarcodina
Sporozoa
Mastigophora
Ciliata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Helminths (metazoa) are divided into

A

Nemathelminthes (roundworms)

Platyhelminthes (flatworms)

  • – trematoda (flukes)
  • – cestoda (tapeworms)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Movement of entamoeba

A

Pseudopods

Brownian movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Infective stage of entamoeba histolytica

A

Mature cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Virulence factors of entamoeba

A

Lectin - mediates adherence
Amebapores - penetration
Cyseteine proteases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Spectrum of disease of entamoeba

A

Cyst carrier
Amebic colitis - dysentery without fever
Ameboma - assoc with dysentery
Amebic liver abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most common extraintestinal form of entamoeba

A

Amebic liver abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Morphology of ulcers in amebic colitis

A

Flask shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Treatment of amoeba in cyst carrier state, amebic colitis and amebic liver abscess

A

Cyst carrier state - diloxanide furoate
Amebic colitis and amebic liver abscess - metronidazole

Add percutaneous drainage for non responders in amebic liver abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

3 protozoans that can be treated wity metronidazole

A

Entamoeba
Giardia
Trichomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Luminal agents in amoebiasis include

A

Diloxanide furoate
Iodoquinol
Paromomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Protozoan
Old’s man’s face
Falling leaf motility

A

Giardia lamblia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Infective stage of giardia

A

Cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Diagnostic stage of giardia

A

Cysts and trophozoites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Most common cause of backpacker’s diarrhea

A

Giardia lamblia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Main pathophysiology of giardia infection

A

Malabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Symptoms of giardiasis -acute

A

Ab pain
Diarrhea
EXCESSIVE FLATUS SMELLING LIKE ROTTEN EGGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Parasitic cause of Diarrhea In HIV

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Infective and diagnostic stage of cryptosporidium parvum

A

Thick walled oocysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Urogenital protozoan

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Protozoan with no cyst stage

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Characteristic transmission of trichomonas

A

Ping pong transmission

Sexual intercourse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Characteristic cervic in trichomonas

A

Strawberry cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Disease presentation of trichomoniasis

A

Watery foul smelling greenish vaginal discharge accompanied by itching and burning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Strawberry gallbladder

A

Cholesterolosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Berry aneurysms

Investigate for

A

SAH
ADPKD
COARCTATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Mulberry molars

A

Congenital syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Mulberry tumor

A

Tuberous sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Blueberry muffin baby

A

Congenital rubella
CMV
Disseminated neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Grape like vesicles

A

Hydatidiform mole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Grape like odor

A

P. aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Banana shaped gametocytes

A

Plasmodium falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Banana shaped left ventricle

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Orange cast skin

A

Leptospirosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Orange colonies

A

N. asteroides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pear shaped trophozoites

A

Giardia

Trichomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Pear shaped organ

A

Prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How is trichomonas vaginalis treated?

A

Single dose oral metronidazole 2grams (4 -500mg tab)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Most impt parasitic disease in man

A

Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Definitive host of plasmodium

A

Mosquito

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Malaria is transmitted by -_____

A

Anopheles flavirostris minimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Infective stage of malaria

A

Sporozoites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Dormant form of plasmodium vivax and ovale in the liver are called

A

Hypnozoites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

To treat hypnozoites, treat with

A

Primaquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Malarial schizonts released from the blood

A

Merozoites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Partial immunity called ____ is seen in individuals who completely recover from falciparum malaria

A

Preminition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Asexual cycle of all plasmodia is 48 hrs except

A

P malariae

72 hrs

Also benign quartan periodicity

59
Q

Plasmodium that has the affinity for young RBCs

A

Vivax and ovale

60
Q

Merozoites are highest in plasmodium ___

A

Vivax

61
Q

Identify malarial species mentioned :

Banana shaped gametocytes

A

P. Falciparum

62
Q

Identify malarial species mentioned :

Large round gametocytes

A

Vivax

63
Q

Identify malarial species mentioned :

Small round gametocyte

A

Ovale

64
Q

Identify malarial species mentioned :

Cerebral malaria

A

Falciparum

65
Q

Increased severity of a disease after remission

A

Recrudescence

66
Q

Identify malarial species mentioned :

Recrudescence

A

Falciparum

Malariae

67
Q

Identify malarial species mentioned :

Relapse

A

Vivax

Ovale

68
Q

Malarial relapse is due to

A

Reactivation of hypnozoites

69
Q

Malarial diagnosis using

A

Thin and thick smears

Thick - screen for presence
Thin - species identification

70
Q

Malarial diagnosis has the highest yield when blood samples are taken during

A

Fever or

2-3 hours after peak

71
Q

Malarial dots in P. Falciparum

Describe.

A

MAURER DOTS - Coarse granulations seen in RBCs

72
Q

Malarial dots in P malariae

Describe.

A

ZIEMANN DOTS

FINE DOTS present in RBCs

73
Q

Malarial dots in P. Vivax and ovale

Describe.

A

SCHUFFNER DOTS

punctate granulations present in RBCs

74
Q

Granulomas in cerebral malaria

A

Durck granulomas

75
Q

Acute renal failure in malaria

A

Blackwater fever

76
Q

Septic shock in malaria

A

Algid malaria

77
Q

Areas of high malarial endemicity

A

Palawan
Kalinga apayao
Ifugao
Agusan del sur

78
Q

Areas of high malarial chloroquine resistance

A

Palawan, davao del norte, compostela valley

PDC

79
Q

Classic textbook treatment for malaria

A

Falciparum - chloroquine

Vivax and ovale - chloroquine + primaquine

80
Q

Give the malarial drug

Tissue schizonticide

A

Primaquine

81
Q

Give the malarial drug

Blood schizonticide

A

Chloroquine

Quinine

82
Q

Give the malarial drug

Gametocide

A

Primaquine

83
Q

Give the malarial drug

Sporonticide

A

Proguanil

Pyrimethamine

84
Q

Name the treatment for malaria in the following:

Chloroquine resistance

A

Mefloquine +doxy

85
Q

Name the treatment for malaria in the following:

Eradication of hypnozoites

A

Primaquine

86
Q

Name the treatment for malaria in the following:

Severe cases or pregnant patients

A

Quinidine

Quinine

87
Q

Insect repellants with _____ can be used in malaria.

A

DEET

88
Q

Ex of biological modification of malaria

A

Cultivation of snails that eat up mosquito larvae

89
Q

Definitive host if toxoplasma

A

Cat

90
Q

Transmission of toxoplasma

A

Ingestion of cysts in raw meat and contaminated food

Transplacentally

91
Q

Infective stage of toxoplasma gondii

A

Fecal oocysts

92
Q

2 types of toxoplasma trophozoites

A

Tachyzoites

Bradyzoites

93
Q

Preferred diagnostic test for toxoplasmosis

A

IgM antibody

94
Q

Heterophile negative mononucleosis

A

CMV and Toxoplasma

95
Q

Findings of enceph in toxoplasmosis

A

Ring enhancing lesions

96
Q

Intracranial findings in congenital toxoplasmosis

A

Intracranial calcifications

97
Q

Treatment of toxoplasmosis

A

Sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine

98
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted by the

A

Reduviid bug / triatoma bug

99
Q

Infective stage of T. Cruzi

A

Metacyclic trypomastigotes

100
Q

Treatment for chagas disease

A

Nifurtimox

101
Q

Most frequently and severely affected tissie in chagas disease

A

Cardiac muscle

102
Q

Allowing an uninfected, laboratory raised reduviid bug to feed on the patient for dX

A

Xenodiagnosis

103
Q

Periorbital edema in acute chagas disease

A

Romaña’s sign

104
Q

Nodule near the bite if the reduviid bug in chagas disease

A

Chagoma

105
Q

Chronic chagas disease manifests with

A

Myocarditis
Megacolon
Megaesophagus (achalasia)

106
Q

Forms of T cruzi

A

4

Amastigot
Promastigote
Epimastigote
Trypomastigote

107
Q

Forms of trypanosom brucei

A

2

Epimastigote
Trypomastigote

108
Q

T brucei is a complex made up of 2 members namely:

A

T brucei gambiense

T brucei rhidesiense

109
Q

Vector of t brucei

A

Tsetse fly

110
Q

Other name for tse tse fly

A

Glossina

111
Q

Infective stage of t brucei

A

Metacyclic trypomastigotes (same as chagas)

112
Q

Cyclical fever spike of african sleeping sickness happens every?

A

2 weeks

113
Q

Which is a more fatal sleeping sickness?

A

Rhodesian is more fatal than gambian

114
Q

Sleeping sickness geographical distribution

A

Think WGER!

Western gambian
East rhodesian

Western gate
Eastern road

115
Q

Enlargement of the posterior cervical LN in african sleeping sickness

A

Winterbottom’s sign

116
Q

Hyperesthesia in african sleeping sickness

A

Kerandel’s sign

117
Q

Encephalitis in african sleeping sickness manifests as plasma cells with cytoplasmic Ig globules. These cells are called

A

Mott cells

118
Q

Treatment for african sleeping sickness Accdg to disease and geography

A

Blood borne disease - Suramin
CNS penetration - Melarsoprol

West african
- early: pentamidine
Cns involvement: eflornithine

east african
-early suramin
Cns involvement: melarsoprol

119
Q

Most common cause of red tide in the PH is

A

Pyrodinium bahamense var compressum

120
Q

Transmission of red tide is through

A

Bivalve molluscs

121
Q

Shellfish poisoning syndromes: name the toxin.

Paralytic

A

Saxitoxin

122
Q

Shellfish poisoning syndromes: name the toxin.

Neurotoxic

A

Brevetoxin

123
Q

Shellfish poisoning syndromes: name the toxin.

Diarrhetic

A

Okadaic acid

124
Q

Shellfish poisoning syndromes: name the toxin.

Amnesic

A

Domoic acid

125
Q

Treatment for red tide poisoning

A

Gastric lavage with activated charcoal
Fluids
Intubation if with resp failure
Neostigmine and edrophonium to improve muscle weakness

126
Q

Free living amoeba

Primary amebic menigoencephalitis acquired while swimming in contaminated pools

A

Naegleria fowleri

127
Q

Only ciliated protozoan to cause human disease

A

Balantidium coli

128
Q

Morphology of ulcers in balantidium coli infection

A

Round based wide neck intestinal ulcers

129
Q

Babesiosis is transmitted by the bite of

A

Ixodes tick

130
Q

Ring shaped trophozoites in tetrads

Maltese cross pattern

A

Babesia microti

131
Q

Leishmanaiasis is transmitted by

A

Sandlfly phlebotomus

132
Q

Spectrum of leishmanaisis:

Cutaneous

A

Leishmania tropica

133
Q

Spectrum of leishmanaisis:

Visceral/kala azar

A

Leishmania donovani

134
Q

Spectrum of leishmanaisis:

Mucocutaneous

A

Leishmania brasiliensis

135
Q

Doc in leishmaniasis

A

Sodium stibogluconate

Antimony based compounds

136
Q

Coccidial sporozoa that cause diarrhea in the immunocompromised

A

Cyclospora cayatenensis

Isospora belli

137
Q

Treatment for diphyllobothrium latum

A

Praziquantel

138
Q

Treatment for echinococcus granulosus

A

Albendazole

139
Q

Treatment for taenia

A

Praziquantel

140
Q

Taenia that manifests more with intestinal obstruction and pruritus ani

A

Taenia saginata

141
Q

Taenia that manifests with mild intestinal symptoms and seizures

A

Taenia solium

142
Q

Infective stage of d latum

A

Plerocercoid larvae

143
Q

What nutrient deficiency is seen in d latum

Infection?

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

144
Q

Definitive host of echinoccoccus granulosus

A

Dog

MICRO (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions