Parasites - Blood And Tissue Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 common parasites that blood is tested for?

A

Malaria
Trypanosomiasis
Filariasis
Toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the timing of the blood samples taken when testing for parasites

A

Specimen collected before treatment
8-12 hour intervals every 2-3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When should you take a blood sample when testing for W. Bancroftii

A

After 8pm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When should you take a blood sample when testing for Brugia spp (filiarisis)

A

At night after 8pm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When should you take a blood sample when testing for Mansonell sp (filiarisis)

A

Any time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When should you take a blood sample when testing for Loa Loa (filiarisis)

A

10am-2pm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of blood samples are used to detect parasites

A

Venous blood
Capillary blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the conditions for taking a venous or capillary blood sample for parasite testing?

A

Vacuum Tube with anticoagulant
EDTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List three procedures done to detect blood parasites

A

Direct examination of Blood
Blood smear
Concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When are blood smears used ?

A

To detect infection
(Smears must be fixed and stained to reveal organisms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What method is used to reveal
Plasmodium species in the blood?

A

Thick and Thin Smear
Wright/Giemsa Stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What method is used to reveal
Leishmania species in the blood?

A

Buffy coat
Giemsa Stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What method is used to reveal
Trypanosoma species in the blood?

A

Buffy coat/ Giemsa stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What method is used to reveal
Microfilariae species in the blood?

A

Concentration/ Giemsa Stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What method is used to reveal
Toxoplasma gondii species in the blood?

A

Buffy coat/ Giemsa Stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List one advantage of a thin smear

A
  • able to differentiate species
    Because the RBC is kept intact and the morphology of the organism is better seen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List one advantage of thick smear

A

Able to detect light (low parasite load) infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List 3 disadvantages of Thick smears

A
  • RBCs are lysed so speciation cannot be done
  • more experience to recognize organisms
  • blood has to be dried overnight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List two disadvantages of detecting blood parasites with a thin blood smear

A
  • light infections are harder to detect
  • more time consuming
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the four main types of Malaria

A

Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium Vivax
Plasmodium Malriae
Plasmodium Ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the size of the RBCs in each specie of malaria

A

Plasmodium falciparum - normal
Plasmodium Vivax - enlarged
Plasmodium Malriae - normal
Plasmodium Ovale - enlarged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the morphology of an RBC infected with P. Falciparum

A
  • normal cell size
  • multiple signet rings
  • rings on the periphery on the cell
  • 2 chromatid dots on the signet rings
  • banana shaped gametocyte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the morphology of an RBC infected with P. Vivax

A
  • enlarged rbc
  • single signet ring
  • schuffner’s dots in cytoplasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe the morphology of an RBC infected with P. Malariae

A
  • single signet ring (thicker than others)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the morphology of an RBC infected with P. Ovale

A
  • Enlarged
  • Single signet ring
  • oval shape
  • large (but single) chromatid dot
  • schuffner’s dots
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Trypanosoma app causes which disease

A

Chagas Disease (tripanosomiasis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

List two species of trypanosomiasis and describe their morphology under the microscope

A

Trypanosomiasis cruzi: c,s,u shape , with large kinetoplast, does not multiple in peripheral blood
Trypanosomiasis Brucei: squiggly, with small kinetoplast, multiples in peripheral blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the vector of Trypanosoma cruzi

A

Kissing bug/ Triatominae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the vector of Trypanosoma brucei?

A

Cattle Fly/ Tsetse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which specie of Trypanosoma is endemic to the Americas

A

Trypanosoma Cruzi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which specie of Trypanosoma is endemic to the Africa

A

Trypanosoma Brucei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which countries is the plasmodium falciparum species of malaria commonly found?

A

Jamaica
Haiti
Venezuela
Suriname
Guyana
South Africa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which countries is the plasmodium vivax species of malaria commonly found?

A

Jamaica, Haiti, Guyana, Suriname, Venezuela, South Africa

34
Q

Which countries is the plasmodium malariae species of malaria commonly found?

A

Jamaica
Haiti

35
Q

Which countries is the plasmodium malariae species of malaria commonly found?

A

Jamaica
Haiti

36
Q

Which countries is the plasmodium ovale species of malaria commonly found?

A

Columbia
Venezuela

37
Q

List 5 reasons plasmodium falciparum is the most severe

A

1.Cerebral malaria
2.Infects RBCs of all ages
3.Intravascualr haemolysis
4.Drug resistance
5.acute renal failure
6.adult respiratory distress syndrome

38
Q

List the steps to prepare a thick film for malaria testing

A

1.Prepare at least 2 smears per patient!
2.Place a small drop of blood in the center of the labeled slide
3.Using the corner of another slide spread the drop in a circular pattern until it is the size of a dime (1.5 cm2).
4.If placed (wet) over newsprint you shoul be to barely able to read the words
5.Allow the smears to dry
6.Lyse RBCs in buffer
7.Stain using Wright’s Giemsa

39
Q

List the steps to prepare a thin film for malaria testing

A

1.Place a small drop of blood on slide
2.Bring another slide at a 30-45° angle up to the drop, allowing the drop to spread along the contact line of the 2 slides.
3.Quickly push the upper (spreader) slide forward on the lower slide.
4.Allow the thin smears to dry
5.Fix the smears by dipping them in absolute methanol
6.Stain using Wright’s Giemsa

40
Q

Which mosquito transmits malaria?

A

Female Anopheles

41
Q

How is W. Bancrofti detected

A

Microfilariae detected in peripheral blood
Antigen detected with EIA (enzyme immunoassay)
Antibody detection (chronic cases)

42
Q

What WHO criteria must be met before a thick smear is considered negative

A
  • 100 high field each with at least 20 WBC
43
Q

What NCCLS criteria must be met before a thick smear is considered negative

A

300 fields
Using 100x oil immersion objective

44
Q

What are the advantages of antigen detection tests for W. Bancrofti

A

Sensitive
Specific
Tells active infection

45
Q

Which antigens are used in malaria diagnosis

A

Histidine, rich, protein 2 (HRP 2)
Plasmodium lactates dehydrogenase (pLDH)

46
Q

Which antigen is specifically used to detect plasmodium falciparum

A

Histidine Rich Protein 2

47
Q

The plasmodium, lactate, dehydrogenase essay is used to detect which species of malaria

A

Falciparum, species, and non-falciparum species

48
Q

What are the steps to the optimal, rapid malaria diagnostic test?

A

1) Dispense 30 µL of buffer into the well at 10 µL of blood -mixed well
2) add optimal test strip, allow sample to wake up the test strip
3) move the test trip to a second wash well containing buffer
4) read the test strip after the blood color has cleared ~ 15 minutes

49
Q

Describe what a negative valid rapid malaria test would look like

A

The contra antibody would be colored however, there would be no color on the anti-malaria antibody for all species, which is a second line. There would be no color on the Al foam antibody, which is the third line.

50
Q

Describe what a positive valid rapid malaria test for p. falciparum species would look like

A

There would be colour on the control line
Colour on the anti-malaria species (all), and colour on the anti-falciparum species

51
Q

Describe what an invalid positive test for non-falciparum species would look like

A

No colour on the control line- INVALID

Colour on the anti-malaria (all species) line

52
Q

What are the advantages of the new diagnostic: antigen detection test for W. Bancrofti

A
  • test positive day and night
  • uses finger prick blood
  • high sensitivity and specificity
  • rapid (1-10mins)
  • affordable
  • field usable
  • commercially available
53
Q

List two common zoonotic parasitic diseases that affect humans

A

Eosinophillic Meningitis
-angiostrongylus cantonesis
Cutaneous Larva Migrans
- Ancylostoma Caninum

54
Q

What animals are the host for angiostrongyloides cantonesis?

A

Rats
Snail (intermediate)

55
Q

What animals are the host for Ancylostoma caninum

A

Dogs and cats

56
Q

How is Eosinophillic Meningitis (Angiostrongyloies cantonesis) diagnosed

A

On Western Blot

57
Q

Which parasite is also known as rat lung parasite?

A

Angiostrongyloides cantonesis

58
Q

List two species of toxocariasis

A

Toxocariasis canis
Toxocariasis Cati

59
Q

List three diseases that can arise from toxocariasis infection

A
  • Visceral Larva Migrans
    -Ocular Larva Migrans
  • Covert toxocariasis (asthma-like syndrome)
60
Q

List 4 treatment options for cutaneous larva migrans

A

Oral thiabendazole
Topical Thiabendazole
Albendazole
Ivermectin

61
Q

What is the disadvantage of using antibody detection for malaria?

A

dignostic titres develop slowly and do not differenciate species

(except falciparum)

62
Q

What is the disadvantage of using antibody detection for filarial agents?

A

the antigen cross-react with those from other nematodes

The presence of a filarial antibody in an assay, fails to distinguish between past and current infection

63
Q

What antibody detection test is used for malaria?

A

IFAT - Indirect immunofluorescence

64
Q

WHat antibody detection test is used for toxoplasmosis

A

ELISA
IFAT (IgM)

65
Q

What antibody detection test is used for toxocariasis

A

ELISA excretory -secretory (ES) antigens

66
Q

What antibody detection test is used for Angiostrongylus Cantonesis

A

Western blot - 31kDa antigen on adult worm

67
Q

Which antibody tests are used for Chagas disease

A

IFAT
ELISA
CFT (complement fixation test)

68
Q

Which antibody test is used to detect Visceral Leishmaniasis?

A

IFAT
ELISA

69
Q

When would you use molecular detection (PCR)to diagnose a parasitic infection/disease

A
  • when microscopic and immunodiagnostic procedures fail to establish the probable diagnosis
  • in the detection of infection from low parasitized patient’s/ asymptomatic
70
Q

Describe what a xeno-diagnosis is and which disease it is used for

A

Xeno-diagnosis is one in which the vector is experimentally infected with the humans blood

Chagas disease

71
Q

What specimen is used for diagnosis of a patient with leishmaniasis with in vitro culture

(NNN Medium)

A
  • Aspirates, scrapings or biopsy materials from skin lesions of patients with cutaneous leishmaniasis
72
Q

List three ectoparasites

A
  • Scabies
  • Pediculosis
  • Myasis
73
Q

What is the name of the parasite that causes scabies?

A

Sarcoptes scabiei

74
Q

What are the names of the three parasites that causes pediculosis?

A

Pediculus humanus capitis (head louse)
Pediculus humanus corporis (body louse)
Pediculus pubis (crab louse)

75
Q

What is myasis

A

Human infection with fly larvae

76
Q

How are itch mites sampled and detected

A

sampled by the scrapings from end of burrows

sampled at 6 different sites (minimum)

identify mites, eggs by microscopy

77
Q

What is the scientific name of the parasite (screw worm)that causes myasis

A

Cochliomyia hominovorax (screw worm fly)

78
Q

What is the scientific name of the parasite (bot fly) that causes myasis

A

Dermatobia hominis

79
Q

What is the main difference in physical appearance between the Cochliomyia hominovorax and the dermatobia hominis?

A

Cochliomyia hominovorax has spiral spines, while the dermatobia hominis has transverse spines, sclerotized mouthparts, and a pair of projecting spiracles at the posterior end

80
Q
A