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1
Q
  1. In echinococcosis, the juvenile forms found within the brood capsules of hydatid cysts are called:
    A. Hydatid sand
    B. Protoscolices
    C. Cysticerci
    D. Daughter cysts
A

b

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2
Q
  1. The free-swimming larva of trematodes released from the snail intermediate host
    is called:
    A. Cercaria
    B. Redia
    C. Miracidium
    D. Metacercaria
A

a

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3
Q
  1. Gravid proglottids with rosette-shaped uterus characterize which cestode species?
    A. Hymenolepis diminuta
    B. Dipylidium caninum
    C. Taenia saginata
    D. Diphyllobothrium latum
A

d

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4
Q
  1. In formalin-ethyl acetate concentration technique, the third layer from top after centrifugation consists of:
    A. Formalin
    B. Ethyl acetate
    C. Sediment
    D. Plug of debris
A

a

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5
Q
  1. Eating raw or undercooked snake meat may lead to human infection with:
    A. Spirometra spp.
    B. Gnathostoma spinigerum
    C. Both
    D. Neither
A

c

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following trematodes is associated with biliary complications including cholangiocarcinoma?
    A. Fasciola hepatica
    B. Fasciolopsis buski
    C. Clonorchis sinensis
    D. Nanophyetus salmincola
A

c

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7
Q
  1. In what type of stool consistency are both cysts and trophozoites seen?
    A. Liquid
    B. Formed
    C. Soft
    D. Mucoid
A

c

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8
Q
  1. Parasites that have man as their natural definitive host include;
    i. Wuchereria bancrofti
    ii. Dipylidium caninum
    iii. Schistosoma spp.
    iv. Plasmodium spp.
    A. i, iii
    B. ii, iv
    C. i, ii, iii
    D. i, ii, iii, iv
A

a

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a biological control measure for the prevention of malaria?
    A. Use of larvivorous fish in streams and rice fields
    B. Use of mosquito nets and insect repellents
    C. Residual spraying
    D. Doxycycline prophylaxis
A

a

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following describes the correct way of writing the scientific name of an organism?
    A. Genus starts with a capital letter.
    B. Species name starts with a capital letter.
    C. Both genus and species name start with a capital letter.
    D. The entire name is capitalized.
A

a

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following stool preservatives is compatible with immunoassay kits?
    A. Polyvinyl alcohol
    B. Schaudinn’s fluid
    C. 10% Formalin
    D. Merthiolate-iodine-formaldehyde
A

c

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following compounds replaces mercuric chloride in modified PVA?
    A. Sodium acetate
    B. Zinc sulfate and copper sulfate
    C. Merthiolate and iodine
    D. Ethyl acetate
A

b

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13
Q
  1. Direct examination of stool specimens stained with Lugol’s iodine aids in demonstrating the:
    A. Motility of trophozoites
    B. Glycogen inclusions in cysts
    C. Chromatoidal bodies in cysts
    D. Nuclear details of cysts and trophozoites
A

b

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14
Q
  1. What type of microscope is used in the quantitative buffy coat technique for malaria?
    A. Phase contrast microscope
    B. Brightfield microscope
    C. Stereoscopic microscope
    D. Fluorescent microscope
A

d

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following amoebae forms a spherical cyst measuring 10-20 µm with 1-4 nuclei, fine uniform granules of peripheral chromatin, and a small, discrete
    usually central karyosome?
    A. Entamoeba histolytica
    B. Entamoeba hartmanni
    C. Entamoeba coli
    D. Endolimax nana
A

a

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following specimens is most appropriate for the rapid diagnosis of Trichomonas vaginalisinfection?
    A. Urine
    B. Bladder aspirate
    C. Vaginal swab
    D. Stool
A

c

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17
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of black fever?
    A. Leishmania donovani
    B. Plasmodium falciparum
    C. Onchocerca volvulus
    D. Babesia microti
A

a

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18
Q
  1. Infection with these species of Plasmodium may cause a relapse of infection:
    i. P. vivax
    ii. P. falciparum
    iii. P. ovale
    11
    iv. P. malariae
    A. i, iii
    B. ii, iv
    C. i, ii, iii
    D. i, ii, iii, iv
A

a

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19
Q
  1. What is the stain of choice for demonstrating the diagnostic forms of Babesia?
    A. Trichrome
    B. Giemsa
    C. Methylene blue
    D. Periodic acid Schiff
A

b

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20
Q
  1. What does the T in the TORCH syndrome stand for?
    A. Toxoplasmosis
    B. Trichomoniasis
    C. Trypanosomiasis
    D. Toxocariasis
A

a

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21
Q
  1. A female roundworm that lays unembryonated eggs is called ____________.
    A. Oviparous
    B. Ovo-viviparous
    C. Viviparous
    D. Parthenogenetic
A

a

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22
Q
  1. The most common soil-transmitted helminths in the Philippines include:
    i. Trichuris trichiura
    ii. Necator americanus
    iii. Ascaris lumbricoides
    iv. Enterobius vermicularis
    A. i, iii
    B. ii, iv
    C. i, ii, iii
    D. i, ii, iii, iv
A

c

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23
Q
  1. The pre-larvae produced by female filarial worms are called:
    A. Microfilariae
    B. Rhabditoid larvae
    C. L1 larvae
    D. L3 larvae
A

a

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24
Q
  1. Eggs or larvae are not routinely recovered in stool and are not routinely used to diagnose infection with which parasite?
    A. Trichinella spiralis
    B. Strongyloides stercoralis
    C. Necator americanus
    D. Ascaris lumbricoides
A

a

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following is a causative agent of visceral larva migrans?
    A. Ancylostoma caninum
    B. Parastrongylus cantonensis
    C. Toxocara canis
    D. Dracunculus medinensis
A

c

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26
Q
  1. The eggs of this parasite are similar to hookworm eggs but longer, narrower, and have somewhat pointed end:
    A. Strongyloides stercoralis
    B. Trichostrongylus spp.
    C. Baylisascaris procyonis
    D. Gnathostoma spinigerum
A

b

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following is an acute serum sickness-like illness associated with schistosomiasis occurring during the initial egg laying period and is characterized by increased circulating immune complexes and eosinophils?
    A. Cercarial dermatitis
    B. Katayama syndrome
    C. Hoeppli reaction
    D. Halzoun syndrome
A

b

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following trematodes may be acquired by eating water chestnut?
    A. Fasciola hepatica
    B. Fasciolopsis buski
    C. Echinostoma ilocanum
    D. Nanophyetus salmincola
A

b

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29
Q
  1. What is the holdfast organ of cestodes?
    A. Rostellum
    B. Scolex
    C. Proglottid
    D. Neck
A

b

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30
Q
  1. Cysticercosis is a tissue infection caused by the disseminated larvae of which tapeworm?
    A. Taenia solium
    B. Taenia saginata
    C. Taenia multiceps
    D. Spirometra spp.
A

a

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31
Q
  1. Diagnosis of Echinococcus granulosus infection in humans is made by identification of:
    A. Adult worms in the intestine
    B. Adult worms in tissues
    C. Eggs in feces
    D. Hydatid cysts in tissues
A

d

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following serves as vector/ definitive host for Babesia spp.?
    A. Mosquito
    B. Flea
    C. Rodent
    D. Tick
A

d

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33
Q
  1. If a formed stool specimen cannot be examined promptly, it must be:
    A. Frozen up to 72 hours
    B. Refrigerated up to 24 hours or placed in a chemical preservative
    C. Allowed to remain at room temperature for up to 4 hours
    D. Incubated at 37°C
A

b

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34
Q
  1. The modified acid-fast stain is most often used in parasitology to identify:
    A. Protozoan cysts
    B. Helminth eggs
    C. Coccidian oocysts
    D. Hemoflagellates
A

c

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following is a pear-shaped flagellate with an undulating membrane extending about half the length of its body?
    A. Giardia duodenalis
    B. Pentatrichomonas hominis
    C. Trichomonas vaginalis
    D. Retortamonas intestinalis
A

c

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36
Q
  1. Which species of Plasmodium is characterized by enlarged red blood cells, Schuffner’s dots, amoeboid-like cytoplasm, and 12-14 merozoites per schizont?
    A. P. falciparum
    B. P. vivax
    C. P. malariae
    D. P. ovale
A

b

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37
Q
  1. The observation of pear-shaped ring forms and Maltese cross formation of trophozoites in stained blood films most likely indicates:
    A. Plasmodium ovale
    B. Babesia microti
    C. Plasmodium knowlesi
    D. Toxoplasma gondii
A

b

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38
Q
  1. Which hemoflagellate stage is characterized by an oval shape and is found intracellularly in human macrophages?
    A. Amastigote
    B. Promastigote
    C. Epimastigote
    D. Trypomastigote
A

a

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following species has microfilariae characterized by the presence of sheath and nuclei extending to the tip of the tail?
    A. Wuchereria bancrofti
    B. Loa loa
    C. Mansonella streptocerca
    D. Brugia malayi
A

b

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40
Q
  1. Which of the following is the best technique for identifying Dientamoeba fragilis in stool?
    A. Formalin ethyl acetate concentration
    B. Trichrome staining
    C. Modified acid-fast staining
    D. Zinc sulfate flotation
A

b

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41
Q
  1. Rhabditiform larvae with long buccal cavity and inconspicuous genital primordium in an unpreserved fecal sample are most consistent with:
    A. Necator americanus
    B. Strongyloides stercoralis
    C. Ascaris lumbricoides
    D. Enterobius vermicularis
A

a

42
Q
  1. Which of the following intestinal nematodes is transmitted through the ingestion of embryonated eggs?
    A. Trichostrongylus spp.
    B. Trichuris trichiura
    C. Capllaria philippinensis
    D. Strongyloides stercoralis
A

b

43
Q
  1. Which of the following roundworms has a characteristic larval migration in its life cycle
    and is capable of autoinfection and hyperinfection syndrome?
    A. Ancylostoma duodenale
    B. Enterobius vermicularis
    C. Strongyloides stercoralis
    D. Ascaris lumbricoides
A

c

44
Q
  1. Which of the following nematodes causes an appendicitis-like infection characterized by lower right quadrant abdominal pain?
    A. Parastrongylus costaricensis
    B. Gnathostoma spinigerum
    C. Toxocara cati
    D. Baylisascaris procyonis
A

a

45
Q
  1. Lymphatic vessel involvement within the retroperitoneal region is associated with infection with:
    A. Mansonella perstans
    B. Brugia malayi
    C. Wuchereria bancrofti
    D. Loa loa
A

a

46
Q
  1. Which of the following tapeworms can bypass the need for an intermediate host?
    A. Diphyllobothrium latum
    B. Dipylidium caninum
    C. Hymenolepis diminuta
    D. Hymenolepis nana
A

d

47
Q
  1. Which of the following flatworms produces unembryonated eggs that have a small knob at the end of the operculum?
    A. Diphyllobothrium latum
    B. Clonorchis sinensis
    C. Paragonimus westermani
    D. Nanophyetus salmincola
A

a

48
Q
  1. Which of the following tapeworms cannot be identified to the species level based on egg morphology?
    A. Diphyllobothrium
    B. Dipylidium
    C. Hymenolepis
    D. Taenia
A

d

49
Q
  1. Humans acquire sparganosis by drinking water contaminated with infected copepods carrying which of the following stages?
    A. Eggs
    B. Procercoid
    C. Plerocercoid
    D. Coracidium
A

b

50
Q
  1. What intermediate host is required in the life cycle of all trematodes?
    A. Snail
    B. Copepod
    C. Aquatic vegetation
    D. Freshwater fish
A

a

51
Q
  1. Which of the following flukes produces mature operculated eggs with prominent shoulders and a knob at the opposite end?
    A. Clonorchis sinensis
    B. Paragonimus westermani
    C. Fasciola hepatica
    D. Echinostoma ilocanum
A

a

52
Q
  1. The eggs of Fasciola hepatica are indistinguishable from those of:
    A. Clonorchis sinensis
    B. Heterophyes heterophyes
    C. Opisthorchis viverrini
    D. Fasciolopsis buski
A

d

53
Q
  1. Infection with Chinese liver fluke may result from eating raw or undercooked:
    A. Aquatic vegetation
    B. Edible snail
    C. Animal liver
    D. Freshwater fish
A

d

54
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most common site of extraintestinal amebiasis?
    A. Lung
    B. Brain
    C. Liver
    D. Appendix
A

c

55
Q
  1. Which trophozoite is distinguished by the possession of achromatic granules surrounding its karyosomal chromatin?
    A. Endolimax nana
    B. Entamoeba coli
    C. Entamoeba polecki
    D. Iodamoeba butschlii
A

d

56
Q
  1. Which of the following amoebae has a double-walled cyst form with a wrinkled outer wall?
    A. Naegleria fowleri
    B. Acanthamoeba castellanii
    C. Sappinia pedata
    D. Dientamoeba fragilis
A

b

57
Q
  1. The trophozoite whose karyosomal chromatin appears as a rosette of 4-6 granules is
    identified as:
    A. Endolimax nana
    B. Iodamoeba butschlii
    C. Entamoeba gingivalis
    D. Dientamoeba fragilis
A

d

58
Q
  1. The trophozoite stage of the intestinal flagellates generally appears ____________.
    A. Round
    B. Pear-shaped
    C. Oval
    D. Amoeboid
A

b

59
Q
  1. Which of the following is the vector of African sleeping sickness?
    A. Reduviid bug
    B. Sandfly
    C. Tsetse fly
    D. Mosquito
A

c

60
Q
  1. The extracellular form of Trypanosoma spp. is a slender organism characterized by an
    undulating membrane, a free flagellum, and a kinetoplast that is:
    A. Anterior to the nucleus
    B. Posterior to the nucleus
    C. Centrally located
    D. Close to the free flagellum
A

b

61
Q
  1. Which malarial parasite is characterized by ring trophozoites that have double chromatin
    dots, applique forms, and multiple rings in the infected red blood cells?
    A. Plasmodium vivax
    B. Plasmodium malariae
    C. Plasmodium falciparum
    D. Plasmodium ovale
A

c

62
Q
  1. The sexual reproduction cycle in Plasmodium and other apicomplexans is referred to as:
    A. Sporogony
    B. Schizogony
    C. Merogony
    D. Gametogony
A

a

63
Q
  1. What constitutes a positive result in the Sabin-Feldman dye test?
    A. Toxoplasma becomes nonmotile
    B. Toxoplasma can no longer be demonstrated as an intracellular organism
    C. Toxoplasma loses its affinity for methylene blue dye
    D. The mouse into which the immune serum is injected remains alive
A

c

64
Q
  1. Which of the following tests is used for the detection of Cryptosporidium parvum
    A. Quantitative buffy coat
    B. Modified Trichrome
    C. Sheather’s flotation
    D. Autofluorescence
A

c

65
Q
  1. Which tapeworm proglottid is seen under the microscope to have more than 15 regular
    uterine
    branches resembling those of a tree?
    A. Taenia saginata
    B. Taenia solium
    C. Dipylidium caninum
    D. Hymenolepis nana
A

a

66
Q
  1. Which of the following helminths is associated with megaloblastic anemia?
    A. Diphyllobothrium latum
    B. Trichuris trichiura
    C. Dipylidium caninum
    D. Necator americanus
A

a

67
Q
  1. Which of the following produces eggs that are bile-stained and have hyaline bipolar
    plugs?
    A. Pinworm
    B. Whipworm
    C. Giant intestinal roundworm
    D. Hookworm
A

b

68
Q
  1. The following nematodes are transmitted to man through skin penetration by the larval
    form EXCEPT:
    A. Strongyloides stercoralis
    B. Necator americanus
    C. Ancylostoma duodenale
    D. Trichostrongylus spp.
A

d

69
Q
  1. Which of the following nematodes inhabits the small intestine and is usually
    demonstrated as rhabditiform larvae in the fecal specimens?
    A. Hookworm
    B. Whipworm
    C. Giant intestinal roundworm
    D. Threadworm
A

d

70
Q
  1. Which preservative is appropriate when trichrome staining will be done on a fecal
    specimen?
    A. 10% Formalin
    B. Polyvinyl alcohol
    C. Merthiolate iodine formaldehyde
    D. Sodium acetate formaldehyde
A

b

71
Q
  1. What type of blood specimen is preferred for preparing blood smears for protozoa
    A. capillary
    B. arterial
    C. venous
    D. anticoagulated
A

a

72
Q
  1. Which of the following cestodes is characterized by eggs that have a radially striated
    shell enclosing a hexacanth embryo?
    A. Taenia
    B. Hymenolepis
    C. Diphyllobothrium
    D. Dipylidium
A

a

73
Q
  1. Which of the following flagellates is equipped with an axostyle and an undulating
    membrane that extends the length of the parasite’s body?
    A. Trypanosoma cruzi
    B. Giardia lamblia
    C. Trichomonas tenax
    D. Pentatrichomonas hominis
A

d

74
Q
  1. The following parasites are not immediately infective when freshly passed in feces
    EXCEPT:
    A. Ascaris lumbricoides
    B. Cytoisospora belli
    C. Trichuris trichiura
    D. Cryptosporidium parvum
A

d

75
Q
  1. Which of the following coccidians is capable of autofluorescence under UV light?
    A. Toxoplasma gondii
    B. Cyclospora cayetanensis
    C. Cryptosporidium parvum
    D. Blastocystis hominis
A

b

76
Q
  1. Which of the following protozoa has been reported in medical literature as a component of the gay bowel syndrome and that can be acquired by homosexual men through anal-oral intercourse?
    A. Dientamoeba fragilis
    B. Giardia lamblia
    C. Pentatrichomonas hominis
    D. Balantidium coli
A

b

77
Q
  1. The feces of a child suffering from intestinal ascariasis can have all of the following
    EXCEPT:
    A. Fertilized ova
    B. Unfertilized ova
    C. Adult worms
    D. Embryonated ova
A

d

78
Q
  1. What test may be carried out if stool is not yet available for the definitive diagnosis of
    giardiasis?
    A. Immunoassay
    B. Entero test
    C. Rectal biopsy
    D. Perianal swab
A

b

79
Q
  1. Which nematode causes infection through skin penetration by the unsheathed filariform
    larva and is diagnosed by demonstrating larvae in stool?
    A. Strongyloides stercoralis
    B. Necator americanus
    C. Ancylostoma sp.
    D. Trichostrongylus sp
A

A

80
Q
  1. Which of the following parasites are hermaphroditic?
    i. Pseudophyllideans
    ii. Monoecious flukes
    iii. True tapeworms
    iv. Schistosomes
    A. i, iii
    B. ii, iv
    C. i, ii, iii
    D. i, ii, iii, iv
A

C

81
Q
  1. The recommended fixatives for long-term stool preservation are:
    i. 10% Formalin
    ii. Sodium phosphate
    iii. PVA
    iv. Glycerine
    A. i, iii
    B. ii, iv
    C. i, ii, iii
    D. i, ii, iii, iv
A

a

82
Q
  1. Which of the following protozoans is bilaterally symmetrical?
    A. Chilomastix mesnili
    B. Giardia lamblia
    C. Retortamonas intestinalis
    D. Trichomonas vaginalis
A

b

83
Q
  1. Which of the following are strictly heteroxenous and never use
    humans as intermediate host?
    A. Nematodes
    B. Plasmodia
    C. Cyclophyllideans
    D. Flukes
A

d

84
Q
  1. Which of the following techniques is NOT recommended for the detection of trematode
    eggs in stool?
    A. ZnSO4 flotation
    B. FECT
    C. Kato-Katz
    D. MIFC
A

a

85
Q
  1. Which of the following develops a cyst with chromatoidal bodies that have splintered
    ends?
    A. Entamoeba coli
    B. Entamoeba polecki
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    D. Endolimax nana
A

a

86
Q
  1. The infective forms of Schistosoma japonicum escape from the molluskan host during
    sunlight hours, penetrate the skin of a human host, then:
    A. Mature into adults in the circulation
    B. Shed their tails and become schistosomulae
    C. Migrate to the liver propelled by their forked tails
    D. Divide asexually into two generations of cercariae
A

b

87
Q
  1. Which of the following cestodes may cause direct human infection through ingestion of
    embryonated ova from contaminated food or hands?
    A. Hymenolepis diminuta
    B. Taenia saginata
    C. Dipylidium caninum
    D. Hymenolepis nana
A

d

88
Q
  1. The six-hooked embryo in the eggs of the cyclophyllidean tapeworms is called:
    A. Coracidium
    B. Cysticercoid
    C. Bladderworm
    D. Oncosphere
A

d

89
Q
  1. Human head louse is primarily transmitted through ___________.
    A. Fomites
    B. Direct contact
    C. Inhalation
    D. Sexual contact
A

b

90
Q
  1. What is the life span of Diphyllobothrium latum inside the body of an infected human
    host?
    A. >30 years
    B. 1 year
    C. 3-5 months
    D. 2-3 weeks
A

a

91
Q
  1. Which stage of Plasmodium is infective to the female Anopheles mosquito?
    A. Gametocyte
    B. Sporozoite
    C. Merozoite
    D. Ring form trophozoite
A

a

92
Q
  1. Which developmental stage of the hemoflagellates occurs in the sandfly vector?
    A. Amastigote
    B. Promastigote
    C. Epimastigote
    D. Trypomastigote
A

b

93
Q
  1. Which of the following is characterized by a schizont that almost fills the RBC and
    contains merozoites that are arranged in a daisy formation resembling a fruit pie?
    A. Plasmodium malariae
    B. Plasmodium ovale
    C. Plasmodium falciparum
    D. Plasmodium vivax
A

a

94
Q
  1. Which of the following serves as the definitive host of Toxoplasma gondii?
    A. Man
    B. Dog
    C. Cat
    D. Rodent
A

c

95
Q
  1. Which of the following parasites causes both keratitis and meningoencephalitis?
    A. Naegleria fowleri
    B. Parastrongylus cantonensis
    C. Acanthamoeba castellanii
    D. All of these
A

c

96
Q
  1. Which of the following schistosomes produces ova with small lateral spine?
    A. Schistosoma haematobium
    B. Schistosoma mansoni
    C. Schistosoma intercalatum
    D. Schistosoma japonicum
A

d

97
Q
  1. This parasite’s oocysts are resistant to cold temperatures, drying, and extreme
    environmental conditions but are killed by heating to 70 °C.
    A. Cryptosporidium parvum
    B. Toxoplasma gondii
    C. Sarcocystis hominis
    D. Cytoisospora belli
A

b

98
Q
  1. The vector of old world trypanosomiasis is:
    A. Sandfly
    B. Tsetse fly
    C. Reduviid bug
    D. Mosquito
A

b

99
Q
  1. Which of the following stages of flukes hatches out of the eggs, is ciliated and can swim
    freely and infect freshwater inhabitants?
    A. Miracidium
    B. Cercaria
    C. Metacercaria
    D. Redia
A

a

100
Q

100.When using chemical preservatives, what is the appropriate ratio of preservative to
stool?
A. 1:3
B. 1:1
C. 3:1
D. 1:5

A

c

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