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1
Q

1) Who developed the technology of hybridoma cells used in the production of Monoclonal
antibodies?
a. Kohler & Milstein
b. Susumu Tonegawa
c. Joseph Marvin
d. Rodney Porter

A

a

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2
Q

2) What is the Process of monoclonal antibody production?
a. Stimulation of activated T cells
b. Fusion of plasma ell secretions
c. Fusion of antibody specific lymphocyte & myeloma cell
d. Multiplication of cytotoxic T cells

A

c

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3
Q

3) Antibodies produces against two or more epitopes of specific antigen are:
a. Monoclonal
b. Pleomorphic
c. Dimorphic
d. Polyclonal

A

d

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4
Q

4) In monoclonal antibody preparation what is the purpose of the HAT medium?
a. To be enriched with human AB serum
b. Tritiated thymidine is added to the culture media to allow growth of the myeloma cells
c. The medium allows Hybridoma cells to grow selectively in tissue culture

A

c

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5
Q

5) Which class of antibody can agglutinate RBCs after anti-human globulin (AHG) is added to the
test tube?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM

A

c

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6
Q

6) Function of AHG as a potentiator?
a. Directly reduces the ionic cloud surrounding RBCs
b. Promote bridging and rearrangement of antigen & antibody form lattice.
c. Acts on antigens to enhance their reactivity

A

b

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7
Q

7) Two biologically functional characteristics f immunoglobulin G (IgG) are:
a. First effective defense against bacteria; activation of the classical complement pathway
b. Opsonization of antigens for phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils; neonatal
immunity by transfer of maternal antibodies across the placenta & gut of fetus
c. Mucosal immunity, defends external body surfaces
d. Provides protection against parasitic helminthic infection; mediates the release of
histamines & heparin from mast cells & basophils.

A

b

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8
Q

8) Which of the following statement is false about an anamnestic/secondary response versus
primary response?
a. Has a shorter lag phase
b. Antibodies decline more gradually
c. Has a longer plateau
d. IgM antibodies predominate

A

d

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9
Q

9) Which T lymphocyte expresses the CD8+ marker and acts specifically to kill tumor or virally
infected cells?
a. Helper T lymphocytes
b. T reg lymphocytes
c. Natural Killer
d. T cytotoxic

A

d

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10
Q

10) The interaction between antigen presenting cells & T-helper cells is mediated by surface
expressed antigen and:
a. Interferon gamma
b. IL2
c. MHC class I molecule
d. MHC class II molecule

A

d

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11
Q

11) Alpha 1 antitrypsin:
a. Act as enzyme converting toxic ferrous ion to non-toxic ferric form
b. Promotes phagocytosis by binding to specific receptors found in monocyte macrophage
& neutrophil
c. Counteracts the effect of neutrophil invasion during inflammatory response
d. Act as antioxidant to provide protection against oxidative damage mediated by free
hemoglobin

A

c

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12
Q

12) A cluster of differentiation that is a part of the T cell antigen receptor complex.
a. CD 2 – receptor for sheep rbc / classical t cell surface marker
b. CD 3 – part of t cell antigen receptor complex
c. CD 4 – receptor for MHC class II
d. CD 8 – receptor for MHC class I

A

b

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13
Q

13) Which one of the following sets of cells can present antigen to helper T cells?
a. B cells & dendritic cells
b. B cells & cytotoxic T cells
c. Macrophages & eosinophils
d. Neutrophils & cytotoxic T cells

A

a

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14
Q

14) Which of the flowing is the receptor for the fragment crystallizable portion or nonspecific end,
of the immunoglobulin molecule IgG to Natural Killer Cell or Large Granular Lymphocyte?
a. CD 16
b. CD 56
c. CD 21 – B cells
d. CD 96 – not usually encountered

A

a

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15
Q

15) What density gradient is used to effectively isolate lymphocytes from rbcs?
a. Hank’s PBS
b. NaOH
c. Ficoll Hypaque
d. NSS

A

c

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16
Q

16) What is the second layer (from the top_ is Ficoll-Hypaque solution after centrifugation?
a. Plasma
b. Ficoll-Hypaque
c. Mononuclear cell
d. Granulocyte

A

c

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17
Q

17) Which of the following antibodies will immediately be induced should an intranasal covid-19
vaccine be administered?
a. IgG
b. IgE
c. IgD
d. IgA

A

d

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18
Q

18) How can you differentiate cytotoxic T cells (TC cells) from natural killer (NK)?
a. Able to release perforins & granzymes – both can release
b. Effective against virally infected cells
c. Recognize antigen in association with HLA class I
d. Do not bind to infected cells.

A

c

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19
Q

19) Which of the following precursor T-cells would not survive the selection process in the thymus
and eventually become mature T cells?
a. Thymocytes that have very high affinity for self-MHC antigens
b. Able to recognize foreign antigens along with MHC
c. Cannot bind to self-antigens other than those complexed with MHC
d. With functional TCR

A

a

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20
Q

20) Lymphocyte precursors that entered the thymus undergoes a significant selection process as it
matures and an estimated ____& of the cells die intrathymically before becoming mature T
cells.
a. 95%
b. 3%
c. 97%
d. 80-90

A

c

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21
Q

21) A cell that is identified by rosette formation with surface rbcs
a. T cell
b. B cell
c. NK cells
d. None of these

A

a

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22
Q

22) Which statement best describes passive agglutination reactions used for serodiagnosis?
a. Such agglutination reactions are more rapid because they are a single-step process
b. Reactions require the addition of a second antibody
c. Passive agglutination reactions require biphasic incubation
d. Carrier particles for antigen such as latex particles are used

A

d

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23
Q

23) What is the main purpose of incorporating latex in the CRP reagent?
a. To facilitate better visualization under the microscope
b. To make the antibody insoluble and particulate
c. Will serve as the antigen carrier
d. To have a color contrast

A

b

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24
Q

24) The test circle for the positive control for CRP determination should contain?
a. CRP latex reagent + human serum
b. CRP latex reagent + positive control
c. Positive control + human serum
d. CRP latex reagent + negative control

A

b

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25
Q

25) Cathepsin G & defensins are involved in the process of?
a. Positive chemotaxis
b. Initiating attachment of pathogens to toll like receptors
c. Creation of punches and holes to target cells to facilitate entry of granzymes
d. Oxygen-independent digestion

A

c

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26
Q

26) Which type of antigen is processed by immunocompetent cells for presentation via MHC class II
a. Exogenous peptides
b. Endogenous peptides
c. Both
d. Neither

A

a

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27
Q

27) Which of the following best describes the role of Tap?
a. They bind to class II molecules to help block the antigen binding site
b. They bind to class I proteins in proteasomes
c. They transport peptides into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum
d. They help cleave peptides for transport to endosomes

A

c

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28
Q

28) O cells acts as a control upon retesting in what cases would this test be positive?
I. normal serum of blood type O (no anti-H = negative)
II. Rouleaux formation (false positive)
III. Bombay Phenotype (has anti-H = strong pos reaction)
IV. Serum of blood type AB (no anti-H,=negative)
A. I,II
B. I,II,III
C. II, III
D. all of the above

A

c

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29
Q

9) Immunoglobulins detected on serum of newborn patients are typically of what type?
a. Maternal IgM
b. Maternal IgG
c. Neonatal IgG
d. Placental IgM

A

b

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30
Q

30) What type of agglutination is ABH secretor study?
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. Reverse passive
d. Agglutination inhibition

A

d

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31
Q

31) . Interpret the blood group and secretor status of a patient based on the panel below:

A

D

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32
Q

32) Humoral immunity is mediated by antibodies from __ & is involved in the elimation of ___
pathogens. Cell mediated immunity is mediated by ___ & is involved in the elimination of ___
pathogens.
a. B-cells; Intracellular: T-cells; Extracellular
b. B-cells; Extracellular: T-cells; Intracellular
c. T-cells; Intracellular: B-cells; Extracellular
d. T-cells; Extracellular: B-cells; Intracellular

A

b

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33
Q

33) Within what period of time after performance of the tuberculin skin test (TST) should the result
be read?
a. Immediately
b. 12-24 hrs
c. 48-72 hrs
d. 5-7 days

A

c

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34
Q

34) While serum elevations are NOT generally seen in early stages, which of the ff tumor markers
are elevated in more advanced stages of breast cancer
a. CEA & AFP
b. AFP & CA125
c. PSA & CA 15-3
d. CA 15-3 & CA 549

A

d

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35
Q

35) All of the ff are associated with immediate hypersensitivity except?
a. Hay fever
b. Urticaria (Hives)
c. Tuberculin reaction
d. Anaphylactic shock

A

c

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36
Q

36) Which complement pathway & related initiator can activate complement
a. Classic pathway; antigen-IgG antibody complexes
b. Classic pathway; tumor cells
c. Alternative pathway; certain viruses & gram-negative bacteria
d. Mannose-Lectin pathway; apoptotic cells

A

a

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37
Q

37) The most highly specific indicator for rheumatoid arthritis is:
a. Rheumatoid factor
b. Cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies (CCP antibodies) = anti CCP
c. Immune complexes
d. Complement

A

b

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38
Q

38) A physician suspects his patient might have rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the ff markers should
be ordered?
a. Antimitochondrial antibodies
b. Anti-IgG
c. Antineutrophilic antibodies
d. Antimyocardial antibodies

A

b

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39
Q

39) Which of the ff best describes the slide agglutination test for RF?
I. specific for SLE
II. a negative test rules out possiblity of RA
III. it is a sensitive screening tool
IV. it detects IgM made against IgG
a. I, II, II
b. III, IV
c. I, III
d. I, II

A

b

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40
Q

A cause of FALSE-POSITIVE result in the rapid plasma regain (RPR) test for syphilis is:
a. Gastroenteritis
b. Gonococcal urethritis
c. Malaria
d. Streptococcal pharynghitis

A

c

41
Q

41) Representative assays in the category of treponemal methods include the listed assays except:
a. Chemiluminescent immunoassays
b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays
c. Venereal disease research laboratory test
d. Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS)
i. Non-treponemal test – RPR, VDRL

A

c

42
Q

42) What substance is detected by the RPR & VDRL tests for syphilis?
a. Anti-cardiolipin antibody
b. Reagin
c. Cardiolipin
d. Either A or B

A

d

43
Q

43) What is the basic difference between the RPR & VDRL tests?
a. The RPR detects antigen, whereas the VDRL detects antibody
b. The RPR test is read macroscopically, whereas the VDRL is read microscopically
c. The RPR test is a treponemal test, whereas the VDRL is a non-treponemal
d. There is no difference because they are both specific tests for syphilis

A

b

44
Q

44) Which statement concerning non-Forssman heterophile antibody is true?
a. It is not absorbed by guinea pig antigen
b. It is absorbed by guinea pig antigen
c. It does not agglutinate horse RBCs
d. It does not agglutinate sheep RBCs

A

a

45
Q

45) What is the correct sequence of the immunologic EBV response in infectious mononucleosis?
A. VCA, EBNA, VCA/IgM, EA
B. EA, EBNA, VCA, VA/IgM
C. VCA/IgM, EBNA, VCA, EA
D. EBNA, VCA, EA, VCA/IgM

A

a

46
Q

46) All of the ff are uses of nucleic acid tests for HIV infection, except?
a. Monitor the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy
b. Obtain a baseline value prior to the start of antiretroviral therapy
c. Diagnose HIV infection
d. Determine the degree of immune suppression caused by HIV

A

d

47
Q

47) A representative congenital monocyte-macrophage functional disorder is:
a. Chedaiak-Higashi syndrome
b. Gaucher’s disease
c. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
d. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)

A

b

48
Q

48) The prozone effect can be described by all of the ff except:
a. Results in a false neg reaction
b. The result of antibody excess
c. Dilution of antibody can help prevent its occurrence
d. Results in a false positive reaction

A

d

49
Q

49) All of the ff are features of systematic lupus erythematosus (SLE), except:
a. Increase serum complement
b. Positive ANA
c. Circulating immune complexes
d. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate

A

d

50
Q

50) Which of the ff blood smear observations would support the diagnosis of Multiple Myeloma if a
patient demonstrated plasma cells in his bone marrow & had an elevated serum IgG?
a. Anisocytosis
b. Target cells
c. Microcytic RBCs
d. Rouleaux formation

A

d

51
Q

51) Which one of the following are normal genes that induce DNA synthesis, promote cell division,
and inhibit cell death?
a. Tumor suppressor genes
b. Proto-oncogenes
c. Oncogenes
d. Mismatch repair genes

A

b

52
Q

52) Which of the following statements is true regarding anti-nuclear antibodies?
a. They are highly specific for patients with systemic lupus erythematosus
b. 95% of patients with SLE will test positive for ANAS
c. Reactions using HEp-2 cells will demonstrate diffuse, speckled, peripheral and starburst
patterns
d. Results are diagnostic with no further testing necessary

A

b

53
Q

53) Which of the following is used to determine if a person has had a recent infection with Strep
pyogenes?
a. Antistreptolysin O (ASO)
b. Hyaluronidase
c. M-protein
d. Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin

A

a

54
Q

54) The least immunogenic transplant tissue is:
a. Kidneys
b. Bone marrow
c. Corneas
d. Lungs

A

c

55
Q

55) The causative agent of infectious mononucleosis attaches to a receptor on which of the
following cells?
a. T helper cell
b. B lymphocyte
c. T suppressor cell
d. NK cell

A

b

56
Q

56) The classic TORCH panel of tests includes the following diseases with the exception
a. Rubella
b. Toxoplasma gondii
c. Infectious mononucleosis
d. Cytomegalovirus

A

c

57
Q

57) Characteristics of Type I cryoglobulins include the following characteristics:
a. Contains two classes of immunoglobulins, at least one of which is monoclonal
b. Mixed, no monoclonal protein found
c. Monoclonal IgG, IgA, or IgM
d. Contains five classes of immunoglobulins.

A

c

58
Q

58) All of the following are advantages of HEp-2 and HEp-2000R over rodent tissue as cell substrates
for ANA testing, EXCEPT?
a. Human cell lines are more sensitive than rodent
b. Human cell lines do not express Ro (SS-A) antigen
c. Human cell lines express relevant nuclear antigens in the human tumor cell
d. Nucleolar reactivity is detectable in human cell lines

A

b

59
Q

59) What molecular technique is appropriate for HIV-1 genotyping?
a. Reverse Transcriptase Polymerase Chain Reaction
b. Multiplex Polymerase Chain Reaction
c. Real-Time Polymerase Chain Reaction
d. Strand Displacement Amplification

A

a

60
Q

60) A small portion of HIV-infected individuals are termed ‘elite controllers’ due to only mildly
depressed CD4 T cell counts and low viral loads. The presence of which of the following genetic
factors is thought to contribute to this (low viral load and mildly depressed CD4 T cell counts)?
a. HLA-B57-01 and HLA-B27-05
b. t(15;17)
c. t(9;22)
d. JAK2 mutation

A

a

61
Q

61) The mechanisms of Nonspecific immunity include:
I. The Physical barrier of the skin
II. The development of Antibodies
III. Inflammation
IV. The flushing away of particulate matter that enters from the air
a. 1 & 3
b. 2 & 4
c. 1, 2, & 3
d. 1, 3, & 4

A

d

62
Q

62) Evaluates respiratory burst by reduction of the dye inside phagocytes
a. CH50 Lytic Assay
b. NBT Test
c. Chemiluminescence
d. MLR

A

b

63
Q

63) A 3-year-old boy has Chronic Granulomatous disease what it is the expected result of his
nitroblue tetrazolium test?
a. Colorless
b. Blue precipitate
c. Yellow
d. Green fluorescence

A

a

64
Q

64) Which of the following indicates the presence of anti-DNase B activity in serum?
a. Reduction of methyl green from green to colorless
b. Clot formation when acetic acid is added
c. Inhibition of red blood cell hemolysis
d. Lack of change in the color indicator

A

d

65
Q

65) MHC molecules are associated with, which of the following?
a. Graft rejection
b. Determining to which antigens and individual responds
c. Autoimmune diseases
d. All of the choices

A

d

66
Q

66) Select the term that describes the unique conformation of the antigen that allows recognition
by a corresponding antibody?
a. Immunogen
b. Epitope
c. Avidity
d. Clone

A

b

67
Q

67) The area of the immunoglobulin molecule referred to as the hinge region is located
between which domains?
a. VH and VL
b. CH1 and CH2
c. CH2 and CH3
d. CH3 and VL

A

b

68
Q

68) Acute phase reactants that plays a role in cholesterol metabolism:
a. C-reactive protein
b. Haptoglobin
c. Serum Amyloid A
d. Ceruloplasmin

A

c

69
Q

69) Monocytes and macrophages play a major role in the mononuclear phagocytic system. For an
antibody-coated antigen to be phagocytized, what part of the antibody molecule fits into a
receptor on the phagocytic cell?
a. Fc region
b. Fab region
c. Hinge region
d. Variable region

A

a

70
Q

70) Determine the titer of the Anti-streptolysin O antibody:
a. 1:64
b. 1:8
c. 1:16
d. 1:32

A

c

71
Q

71) How will you reverse the agglutination if you are suspecting a Mycoplasma pneumonia cold
agglutinins?
a. incubate at 4°C
b. incubate at 37°C
c. treat with enzyme
d. treat with DTT

A

b

72
Q

72) The following are INCORRECT of type II hypersensitivity, EXCEPT:
I. clinical examples are AIHAS and HTR
II. reaction occurs within 2-15mins
III. reaction involves both antibodies and complement
IV. complexes are soluble and escape immune clearance
a. I, II
b. I, II, III
c. I, III
d. I, IV

A

c

73
Q

73) Rh incompatibility can be classified as _____ hypersensity, while reactions to poison oak is ___?
a. Atopic or anphylactic; Arhtus reaction
b. Cytotoxic; cell mediated response
c. Immune complex; IgE mediated
d. Delayed; IgG mediated response

A

b

74
Q

74) When immune complexes from the serum are deposited in the glomerular basement
membrane, the damage to the membrane is caused mainly by?
a. Lysis of complement
b. Phagocytosis
c. Cytotoxic cells
d. Enzymes released by PMN cells

A

d

75
Q

75) Which is true regarding Weil-Felix test:
a. use Proteus antibody to detect Rickettsial antigen
b. use Rickettsial antigen to detect Proteus antibody
c. use Proteus antigen to detect Rickettsial antibody
d. use Rickettsial antibody to detect Proteus antigen

A

c

76
Q

76) In VDRL testing, to inactivate complement, the serum is treated with heat at:
a. 56°C for 30 mins
b. 65°C for 30 mins
c. 56°C for 10 mins
d. 65°C for 10 mins

A

a

77
Q

77) Hemolytic transfusion reaction involves what mechanism of hypersensitivity?
a. mediators release of granules
b. cytokine release from cellular immunity
c. cytolysis due to antibody-complement system
d. immune complex deposition and killing of cells

A

c

78
Q

78) The following are principal type of leukocytes belongs to innate immunity except:
I. Eosinophil
II. Neutrophil
III. Basophil
IV. Lymphocyte - adaptive
V. Monocyte
a. I and II
b. III and IV
c. IV and V
d. none of these

A

d

79
Q

79) Eosinophil:
a. phagocytized an antigen and present to t-helper cell
b. plays a key role in pathogenesis and immune response to allergic disease
c. regulates immune response and regulate mast cell production
d. has large number of granules which helps to its antibacterial activity

A

c

80
Q

80) These are the tissue macrophages that is seen lungs.
a. Kupffer cells
b. Dust cells
c. Langerhans cells
d. Histiocytes

A

b

81
Q

81) Dendritic cells are known for:
a. its characteristics, they are covered with long membranous extensions
b. they are the most potent phagocytic cells in the tissue
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A and B

A

c

82
Q

82) Which WBC is capable of further differentiation in tissues?
a. Neutrophil
b. Eosinophil
c. Basophil
d. Monocyte

A

d

83
Q

83) A group of molecules that limit the spread of viral infections by blocking translation of viral
proteins
a. Interleukin
b. Complement
c. Interferon
d. Acute phase reactant

A

c

84
Q

84) A part of the white pulp of the spleen that contains B cell that are not yet stimulated by an
antigen.
a. Marginal zone
b. Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
c. Primary Follicle
d. None of these

A

c

85
Q

85) The interaction between an individual antigen and antibody molecule depends upon several
types of bonds such as ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic bonds, and van der Waals
forces. How is the strength of this attraction characterized?
a. Avidity
b. Affinity
c. Reactivity
d. Valency

A

b

86
Q

86) When antigen is not allowed to diffuse completely in the medium in which measurements are
taken before the point of equivalence is reached, the immunodiffusion method used
a. Fahey and McKelvey/ Kinetic Method
b. Endpoint method
c. Ouchterlony
d. Rocket immunoelectrophoresis

A

c

87
Q

87) In Ouchterlony double diffusion, spur formation indicates:
a. serological identity
b. non identity
c. partial identity
d. none of the above

A

c

88
Q

89) A traveler is being evaluated at a local hospital for gastrointestinal pain, fever, and diarrhea. The
patient has recently returned from a month-long visit to Southeast Asia. The patient has no
recent history of sexual activity or IV drug use but did describe conditions of poor sanitation
where they were visiting. If liver function test results were elevated and bilirubinuria was noted,
which of the following would be the next logical test to order?
a. ELISA test for the Hepatitis B Surface Antigen (HBsAg)
b. Recombinant Immunoblot Assay (RIBA) test for Hepatitis C
c. Western Blot test for HIV
d. ELISA testing for Hepatitis A antigens in the stool

A

d

89
Q

90) A 2-month old infant presented with history of chronic diarrhea and failure to thrive. The child’s
mother also revealed that the baby has suffered from thrush (Candida infections) since birth.
Preliminary findings showed lymphopenia (<2,000), hypogammaglobulinemia, and physical
findings showed a small thymus, no tonsils or lymph nodes. Which of the following immune
deficiencies DOES the patient present?
a. T-cell activation deficiency
b. MCH deficiency
c. Deficiency in immunoglobulin production
d. Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome

A

d

90
Q

91) You are performing a manual antibody titer in a clinical laboratory. You have made serial
dilutions of a patient’s plasma sample and you are looking for anti-streptolysin O antibodies. The
first tube contains pure patient plasma. The second tube contains a 1:2 dilution of the first tube.
The third tube contains a 1:2 dilution of the second tube and so on. The patient’s antibodies no
longer give visible reaction in tube 5, indicating their titer is tube 4 (or the last tube where there
is a positive result). What is the concentration of antibodies in tube 4 compared to the
concentration in tube 1?
a. The concentration of antibodies in tube 4 is the same as the concentration of antibodies
in tube 1.
b. The concentration of antibodies in tube 4 is about 1/4 the concentration of antibodies in
tube 1.
c. The concentration of antibodies in tube 4 is 1/8 the concentration of antibodies in tube
1.
d. The concentration of antibodies in tube 4 is 4 times the concentration of antibodies in
tube 1.

A

c

91
Q

92) Macrophages produce which of the following proteins during antigen processing?
a. IL-1 & IL-6
b. Gamma IFN
c. IL-4, IL-5, and IL-10
d. Complement components C1 & C3

A

a

92
Q

93) HLA molecules A, B, and C belong to which MHC class?
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

A

a

93
Q

94) HLADQ2 and HLA DQ8 are HLA alleles in what associated disease?
a. Ankylosing spondylitis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Celiac disease
d. None of these

A

c

94
Q

95) The interaction of a pathogen molecule with its specific TLR directly results in which of the
following?!
a. Presentation of pathogen molecule to helper T cells
b. Cell activation and production of cytokines and chemokines
c. IgG production
d. Immunoglobulin class switching
e. Phagocytosis

A

b

95
Q

96) NK cells express a killer immunoglobulin-like receptor, which recognizes:
a. MHC class I molecules
b. MHC class II molecules
c. Cell adhesion molecules
d. Glycophospholipid molecules
e. CD40 molecules

A

a

96
Q

97) In a serologic test, the term prozone is also known as:
a. Equivalence
b. antibody excess
c. antigen excess
d. serum-to-cell ratio

A

b

97
Q

98) Which of the following describes the pathophysiologic autoimmune mechanism responsible for
Graves disease?
a. Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity
b. Complement-activating autoantibody
c. Inactivating autoantibody
d. Stimulating autoantibody
e. T-cell-mediated cellular cytotoxicity

A

d

98
Q

99) The process by which cells are capable or moving from the circulating blood to the tissues by
squeezing through the wall of a blood vessel.
a. Diapedesis
b. Degranulation
c. Chemotaxis
d. Phagocytosis

A

a

99
Q

100) A disease that develops as a sequel to group A streptococcal pharyngitis, characterized
by the presence of antibodies that cross-react with heart tissue.
a. Acute rheumatic fever
b. Cold autoagglutinin
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
e. Rheumatoid factor

A

a

123 (4 decks)

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