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1
Q
  1. The optimum storage temperature for red blood cells is:
    A. -80°C
    B. -20°C
    C. -12°C
    D. 4°C
A

d

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2
Q
  1. In an emergency situation, Rh-negative red cells are transfused
    into an Rh-positive person of the genotype CDe/CDe. The first
    antibody most likely to develop is:
    A. Anti-c
    B. Anti-d
    C. Anti-e
    D. Anti-E
A

a

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3
Q
  1. According to AABB standards, platelets must be:
    A. Gently agitated if stored at room temperature
    B. Separated within 12 hours of Whole Blood collection
    C. Suspended in sufficient plasma to maintain a pH of 5.0 or lower
    D. Prepared only from Whole Blood units that have been stored at
    4°C for 6 hours
A

a

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4
Q
  1. Even in the absence of prior transfusion or pregnancy, individuals
    with the Bombay phenotype (On) will always have naturally
    occurring:
    A. Anti-Rh
    B. anti-Ko
    C. anti-U
    D. anti-H
A

d

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5
Q
  1. A man suffering from gastrointestinal bleeding has received 20
    units of red blood cells in the
    last 24 hours and is still oozing post-operatively. The following
    results were obtained:
    A. Fresh frozen plasma
    B. Red blood cells
    C. Factor VII concentrate
    D. Platelets
A

a

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6
Q
  1. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is associated with
    antibody specificity toward which of the following?
    A. Kell system antigens
    B. Duffy system antigens
    C. P antigen
    D. I antigen
A

c

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7
Q
  1. According to AABB standards, fresh frozen plasma must be
    infused within what period of time following thawing?
    A. 24 hours
    B. 36 hours
    C. 48 hours
    D. 72 hours
A

a

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8
Q
  1. The Liley method of predicting the severity of hemolytic disease of
    the newborn is based on
    the amniotic fluid:
    A. Bilirubin concentration by standard methods
    B. Change in optical density measured at 450 nm
    C. Rh determination
    D. Ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin (for fetal lung maturity)
A

b

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9
Q
  1. The cryopreservative for frozen platelet is:
    A. Rejuvesol
    B. Dimethyl sulfoxide
    C. Ethylene glycol
    D. Para aminobelzaldehyde
A

b

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10
Q
  1. The cryopreservative for frozen platelet is:
    A. Rejuvesol
    B. Dimethyl sulfoxide
    C. Ethylene glycol
    D. Para aminobelzaldehyde
A

b

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11
Q
  1. The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a fingerstick from a
    male blood donor is:
    A. 12.0 g/dL (120 g/L)
    B. 12.5 g/dL (125 g/L)
    C. 13.5 g/dL (135 g/L)
    D. 15.0 g/dL (150 g/L)
A

b

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12
Q
  1. To remove glycerol, initial washing should be done by using:
    A. 0.2% dextrose in normal saline
    B. 1.6% saline
    C. 2.0% saline
    D. 12% saline
A

d

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13
Q
  1. To remove glycerol, initial washing should be done by using:
    A. 0.2% dextrose in normal saline
    B. 1.6% saline
    C. 2.0% saline
    D. 12% saline
A

d

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14
Q
  1. Animal used for the production of monoclonal AHG:
    A. Rat
    B. Monkey
    C. Rabbit
    D. Leech
A

a

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15
Q
  1. Most blood group systems are inherited as:
    A. Sex-linked dominant
    B. Sex-linked recessive
    C. Autosomal recessive
    D. Autosomal codominant
A

d

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16
Q
  1. A father donating platelets for his son is connected to a
    continuous flow machine, which uses the principle of centrifugation
    to separate platelets from whole blood. As the platelets are
    harvested, all other remaining elements are returned to the donor.
    This method of platelet collection is known as:
    A. Apheresis
    B. Autologous
    C. Homologous
    D. Fractionation
A

a

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of
    platelets from whole blood?
    A. Light spin followed by a hard spin
    B. Light spin followed by 2 hard spins
    C. 2 light spins
    D. Hard spin followed by a light spin
A

a

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18
Q
  1. Designed his syringe-valve apparatus that transfusions from
    donor to patient by an unassisted physician became practical:
    A. Braxton Hicks
    B. Hustin
    C. Unger
    D. Lewisohn
A

c

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19
Q
  1. Irradiation of a unit of red blood cells is done to prevent the
    replicationof donor: (to prevent GVHD)
    A. Granulocytes
    B. Lymphocytes
    C. Red cells
    D. Platelets
A

b

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20
Q
  1. Frozen RBCs can be stored for up to:
    A. 1 year
    B. 2 years
    C. 10 years
    D. 42 days
A

c

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?
    A. Associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
    B. Found in the serum of patients with infectious
    mononucleosis
    C. Detected at lower temperatures in the serum of normal individuals
    D. Found only in the serum of group O individuals
A

b

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22
Q
  1. Infectious mononucleosis is associated with:
    A. Anti-I
    B. Anti-i
    C. Anti-P
    D. Anti-p
A

b

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23
Q
  1. All donor blood testing must include:
    A. Complete Rh phenotyping
    B. Anti-CMV testing
    C. Direct antiglobulin test
    D. Serological test for syphilis
A

d

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24
Q
  1. The following are RBC lesions that decreased during storage
    except:
    A. Lactic acid
    B. pH
    C. Dextrose
    D. 2,3-BPG
A

a

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25
Q
  1. Following rejuvenation, the RBCs can be washed to remove the
    rejuvenation solution and transfused within
    A. 4 hours
    B. 12 hours
    C. 1 hour
    D. 1 day
A

d

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26
Q
  1. To qualify as a donor for autologous transfusion a patient’s
    hemoglobin should be at least:
    A. 8 g/dL (80 g/L)
    B. 11 g/dL (110 g/L)
    C. 13 g/dL (130 g/L)
    D. 15 g/dL (150 g/L)
A

b

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following blood components must be prepared
    within 8 hours after
    phlebotomy?
    A. Red Blood Cells
    B. Fresh Frozen Plasma
    C. Red Blood Cells, Frozen
    D. Cryoprecipitated AHF
A

b

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following blood components must be prepared
    within 8 hours after
    phlebotomy?
    A. Red Blood Cells
    B. Fresh Frozen Plasma
    C. Red Blood Cells, Frozen
    D. Cryoprecipitated AHF
A

b

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29
Q
  1. Anti Sda
    is strongly suspected if:
    A. The patient has been previously transfused
    B. The agglutinates are mixed-field and refractile
    C. The patient is group A or B
    D. Only a smaller number of panel cells are reactive
A

b

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30
Q
  1. During the preparation of platelet concentrates from whole blood,
    the blood should be:
    A. Cooled towards 6°C
    B. Cooled towards 20°-24°C
    C. Warmed to 37°C
    D. Heated to 57°C
A

b

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31
Q
  1. The secretor gene is located on what chromosome number:
    A. 11
    B. 9
    C. 19
    D. 16
A

c

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32
Q
  1. A patient’s red cells type as follows:
    Which of the following genotype would be consistent with these
    results?
    A. RoRo
    B. R1r
    C. R1R2
    D. R2r
A

a

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33
Q
  1. The optimum storage temperature for platelets is:
    A. -20°C
    B. -12°C
    C. 4°C
    D. 22°C
A

d

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34
Q
  1. The antigen Tja is part of which system
    A. Rh
    B. MNS
    C. Kidd
    D. P
A

d

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35
Q
  1. Lectin that agglutinates B cell:
    A. Ulex europaeus
    B. Bandeiraea simplicifolia
    C. Dolichos biflorus
    D. Ipomea batatas
A

b

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36
Q
  1. Commonly used dye for anti-B reagent:
    A. Comassie briliant blue
    B. Oil red O
    C. Acriflavine dye
    D. Tryphan blue
A

c

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37
Q
  1. The red cells of a nonsecretor (se/se) will most likely type as:
    A. Le (a-b-)
    B. Le (a+b+)
    C. Le (a+b-)
    D. Le (a-b+)
A

c

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38
Q
  1. ISBT 018:
    A. Landsteiner-Wiener
    B. Kx
    C. H
    D. Chido-Rodgers
A

c

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39
Q
  1. He introduced an improved preservative solution called
    citrate-phosphate-dextrose (CPD), which was less acidic and
    eventually replaced ACD as the standard preservative used for
    blood storage:
    A. Lewisohn
    B. Gibson
    C. Unger
    D. Hustin
A

b

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40
Q
  1. Transfusion of which of the following is needed to help correct
    hypofibrinogenemia due to DIC?
    A. Whole Blood
    B. Fresh Frozen Plasma
    C. Cryoprecipitated AHF
    D. Platelets
A

c

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41
Q
  1. ABO subgroups will result to what type of discrepancy:
    A. Group I discrepancy
    B. Group II discrepancy
    C. Group III discrepancy
    D. Group IV discrepancy
A

a

42
Q
  1. Most common cause of post-transfusion hepatitis can be
    detected in donors by testing for:
    A. Anti-HCV
    B. HBsAg
    C. Anti-HAV IgM
    D. Anti-HBe
A

b

43
Q
  1. Which of the following enzymes is NOT used in blood bank
    procedures?
    A. Ficin (fig tree)
    B. Amylase (saliva)
    C. Bromelin (pineapple)
    D. Papain (papaya)
A

b

44
Q
  1. A patient has become refractory to platelet transfusion. Which of
    the following are probable causes?
    A. Transfusion of Rh-incompatible platelets
    B. Decreased pH of the platelets
    C. Development of an alloantibody with anti-D specificity
    D. Development of antibodies to HLA antigen
A

d

45
Q
  1. Which unit should be selected for exchange transfusion if the
    newborn is group A, Rh- positive and the mother is group A,
    Rh-positive with anti-c?
    A. A, CDe/CDe
    B. A, cDE/cDE
    C, O, cde/cde
    D. A, cde/cde
A

a

46
Q
  1. Absence of P antigens is type as:
    A. P2 phenotype
    B. p phenotype
    C. P1 phenotype
    D. P2 phenotype
A

b

47
Q

in the African American
donor population?
A. Lu (a-b-)
B. Jk (a-b-)
C. Fy (a-b-)
D. K-K-

A

c

48
Q
  1. A poor increment in the platelet count 1 hour following platelet
    transfusion is most commonly caused by:
    A. Splenomegaly
    B. Alloimmunization to HLA antigens
    C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
    D. Defective platelets
A

b

49
Q
  1. The technique used to remove antibody bound to sensitized red
    cells is called:
    A. Absorption
    B. Elution (removal of ab)
    C. Titer (ab levels)
    D. Translocation
A

b

50
Q
  1. Associated with unexpected reactions in the reverse grouping
    due to weakly reacting or missing antibodies:
    A. Group I discrepancy (ab)
    B. Group II discrepancy (antigen)
    C. Group III discrepancy (rouleaux)
    D. Group IV discrepancy (miscellaneous)
A

a

51
Q
  1. The Western blot is a confirmatory test for the presence of:
    A. CMV antibody
    B. Anti-HIV-1
    C. HBsAg
    D. Serum protein abnormalities
A

b

52
Q
  1. Post-transfusion purpura is usually caused by:
    A. Anti-A
    B. White cell antibodies
    C. Anti-HPA-1a (PIA1)
    D. Platelet wash-out
A

c

53
Q
  1. To prevent graft-vs-host disease, red blood cells prepared for
    infants who have received intrauterine transfusions should be:
    A. Saline-washed
    B. Irradiated
    C. Frozen and deglycerolized
    D. Group- and Rh-compatible with the mother
A

b

54
Q
  1. The most dangerous and unexpected antibodies in the blood
    bank are those that react at:
    A. 4°C
    B. 25°C
    C. 32°C
    D. 37°C (IgG)
A

d

55
Q
  1. A donor is tested with Rh antisera with the following results:
    What is his most probable Rh genotype?
    A. R1R1
    B. R1r
    C. Ror
    D. R2r
A

b

56
Q
  1. An unexplained fall in hemoglobin and mild jaundice in a patient
    transfused with red blood cells 1 week previously would most likely
    indicate:
    A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
    B. Posttransfusion hepatitis infection
    C. Presence of HLA antibodies
    D. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
A

d

57
Q
  1. The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected
    with the AIDS virus is:
    A. Anti-HBc
    B. Anti-HIV 1, 2
    C. HBsAg
    D. ALT
A

b

58
Q
  1. The Weiner genotype R2/R2 is equivalent to:
    A. CDe/CDe
    B. cde/cde
    C. cDE/cDE
    D. cde/cdE
A

c

59
Q
  1. Of the following blood groups, which one does not usually cause
    hemolytic disease of the
    newborn?
    A. Rh
    B. Kell
    C. P
    D. Duffy
A

c

60
Q
  1. The most serious hemolytic transfusion reactions are due to
    incompatibility in which of the following blood groups systems?
    A. ABO
    B. Rh
    C. MN
    D. Duffy
A

a

61
Q
  1. A patient is typed with the following results:
    The most common probable reason for these findings is that the
    patient is group:
    A. O; confusion due to faulty group O antiserum
    B. O; with an anti-A1
    C. Ax; with an anti-A1
    D. A1; with an anti-A
A

c

62
Q
  1. Severe intravascular hemolysis is most likely caused by
    antibodies of which blood group
    system?
    A. ABO
    B. Rh
    C. Kell
    D. Duffy
A

A

63
Q
  1. Rejuvenation of a unit of red blood cells is a method used to:
    A. Remove antibody attached to RBCs
    B. Inactive viruses and bacteria
    C. Restore 2, 3-DPG and ATP to normal levels
    D. Filter blood clots other debris
A

c

64
Q
  1. Which of the following blood groups systems is most commonly
    associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?
    A. Lewis
    B. Kidd
    C. MNS
    D. I
A

b

65
Q
  1. In chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), granulocyte function is
    impaired. An association exists between this clinical condition and a
    depression of which of the following antigens?
    A. Rh
    B. P
    C. Kell
    D. Duffy
A

c

66
Q
  1. Human blood groups were discovered around 1900 by:
    A. Jules Bordet
    B. Louis Pasteur
    C. Karl Landsteiner
    D. PL Mollison
A

c

67
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the
    component listed?
    A. Cryoprecipitated AHF, 4°C
    B. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP), -20°C
    C. Red Blood Cell, Frozen, -40°C
    D. Platelets, 37°C
A

b

68
Q
  1. After receiving a unit of red blood cells, a patient immediately
    developed flushing, nervousness, fever spike of 102°F (38.9°C),
    shaking, chills and back pain. The plasma hemoglobin was elevated
    and there was hemoglobinuria. Laboratory investigation of this
    adverse reaction would most likely show:
    A. An error in ABO grouping
    B. An error in Rh typing
    C. Presence of anti-Fya antibody in patient’s serum
    D. Presence of gram-negative bacteria in blood bag
A

a

69
Q

69.Criteria determining Rh immune globulin eligibility include:
A. Mother is Rh-positive
B. Infant is Rh-negative
C. Mother has not been previously immunized to the D antigen
D. Infant has a positive direct antiglobulin test

A

c

70
Q
  1. Which of the following patient data best reflects the discrepancy
    seen when a person’s red cells demonstrate the acquired-B
    phenotype?
    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D
A

b

71
Q
  1. A unit of Red Blood Cells is issued at 9:00 AM. At 9:10 AM the
    unit is returned to the Blood Bank. The container has not been
    entered, but the unit has not been refrigerated during this time span.
    The best course of action for the technologist is to:
    A. Culture the unit for bacterial contamination
    B. Discard the unit if not used within 24 hours
    C. Store the unit at room temperature
    D. Record the return and place the unit back into inventory
A

d

72
Q
  1. A trauma patient who has just received ten units of blood may
    develop:
    A. Anemia
    B. Polycythemia
    C. Leukocytosis
    D. Thrombocytopenia
A

d

73
Q
  1. Mixed field agglutination encountered in ABO grouping with no
    history of transfusion would
    most likely be due to:
    A. Bombay phenotype (On)
    B. T activation
    C. A3 red cells
    D. Positive indirect antiglobulin test
A

c

74
Q
  1. The following results were obtained when testing a sample from
    a 20-year old, first time blood donor:
    What is the most likely cause of this ABO discrepancy?
    A. Loss of antigen due to disease
    B. Acquired B
    C. Phenotype On “Bombay”
    D. Weak subgroup of A
A

d

75
Q
  1. ISBT designation of Cromer blood group system:
    A. 015
    B. 018
    C. 020
    D. 021
A

d

76
Q
  1. Cells of the A3 subgroup will:
    A. React with Dolichos biflorus
    B. Negative with anti-A
    C. Give a mixed-field reaction with anti-A,B
    D. Negative with anti-H
A

c

77
Q
  1. Deletion of Glycophorin A and Glycophorin B will result to:
    A. MK phenotype (GPB & GPA)
    B. Ena phenotype (GPA - M,N)
    C. U- phenotype (GPB - SsU)
    D. None of these
A

a

78
Q
  1. Which of the following transfusion reactions is characterized by
    high fever, shock, hemoglobinuria, DIC and renal failure?
    A. Bacterial contamination
    B. Circulatory overload
    C. Febrile
    D. Anaphylactic
A

a

79
Q
  1. While performing routine postpartum testing for an Rh immune
    globulin (RhIG) candidate, a weakly positive antibody screening test
    was found. Anti-D was identified. The antibody is most likely the
    result of:
    A. Massive fetomaternal hemorrhage occurring at the time of this
    delivery
    B. Antenatal administration of Rh immune globulin at 28 weeks
    gestation
    C. Contamination of the blood sample with Wharton jelly
    D. Mother having a positive direct antiglobulin test
A

b

80
Q
  1. The following are not true regarding Ena antigen except one:
    A. En means Endangered
    B. M-N- individuals are En(a-)
    C. Ena is a silent gene
    D. It is a low incidence antibody
A

b

81
Q
  1. Hemoglobinuria, hypotension and generalized bleeding are
    symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
    A. Allergic
    B. Circulatory overload
    C. Hemolytic
    D. Anaphylactic
A

c

82
Q
  1. The following antibodies react best at 37°C except:
    A. Anti-U
    B. Anti-M
    C. Anti-S
    D. Anti-s
A

b

83
Q
  1. The enzyme responsible for conferring H activity on the red cell
    membrane is alpha-:
    A. Galactosyl transferase (B)
    B. N-acetylgalactosaminyl transferase (A)
    C. L-fucosyl transferase (H)
    D. N-acetylglucosaminyl transferase
A

c

84
Q
  1. ISBT018:
    A. I
    B. Cromer
    C. H
    D. Kx
A

c

85
Q
  1. A patient multiply transfused with red blood cells developed a
    headache, nausea, fever and chills during his last transfusion. What
    component is most appropriate to prevent this reaction in the future?
    A. Red Blood Cells
    B. Red Blood Cells, Irradiated
    C. Red Blood Cells, Leukocyte-Reduced
    D. Red Blood Cells selected as CMV-reduced risk
A

c

86
Q
  1. The following are true regarding Anti-U except:
    A. Produced by every individual except Black
    B. Found in U- individuals
    C. Mostly IgG
    D. Warm reacting antibody
A

a

87
Q
  1. This antibody reacts best at pH of 6.5:
    A. Anti-S
    B. Anti-U
    C. Anti-M
    D. Anti-N
A

c

88
Q
  1. A patient in the immediate post bone marrow transplant period
    has a hematocrit of 21%.
    The red cell product of choice for this patient would be:
    A. Packed
    B. Saline washed
    C. Microaggregate filtered
    D. Irradiate
A

d

89
Q
  1. Cryoprecipitated AHF contains how many unit of Factor VIII?
    A. 40
    B. 80
    C. 130
    D. 250
A

b

90
Q
  1. ISBT028:
    A. Gerbich
    B. Gill
    C. Chido-Rodgers
    D. Globoside
A

d

91
Q
  1. The use of Leukocyte-Reduced Red Blood Cells and Platelets is
    indicated for which of the following patient groups?
    A. CMV-seropositive postpartum mothers
    B. Victims of acute trauma with massive bleeding
    C. Patients with history of febrile transfusion reactions
    D. Burn victims with anemia and low serum protein
A

c

92
Q
  1. The following reactions were obtained:
    Cells tested with:
    The technologist washed the patient’s cells with saline, and repeated
    the forward typing. A saline replacement technique was used with
    the reverse typing.
    The following results were obtained:
    The results are consistent with:
    A. Acquired immunodeficiency disease
    B. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
    C. Multiple myeloma
    D. Acquired “B” antigen
A

c

93
Q
  1. The following test results are noted for a unit of blood labeled
    group A, Rh-negative: Cells tested with:
    What should be done next?
    A. Transfuse as a group A, Rh-negative
    B. Transfuse as a group A, Rh-positive
    C. Notify the collecting facility
    D. Discard the unit
A

c

94
Q
  1. What is/are the minimum pretransfusion testing requirement(s)
    for autologous donations collected and transfused by the same
    facility?
    A. ABO and Rh typing only
    B. ABO/Rh type, antibody screen
    C. ABO/Rh type, antibody screen, crossmatch
    D. No pretransfusion testing is required for autologous donations
A

a

95
Q
  1. Post-transfusion anaphylactic reactions occur most often in
    patients with:
    A. Leukocyte antibodies
    B. Erythrocyte antibodies
    C. IgA deficiency
    D. Factor VIII deficiency
A

c

96
Q
  1. Rouleaux formation will result to what group discrepancy:
    A. Group I discrepancy
    B. Group II discrepancy
    C. Group III discrepancy
    D. Group IV discrepancy
A

c

97
Q
  1. Granulocytes for transfusion should:
    A. Be administered through a microaggregate fiber
    B. Be ABO compatible with the recipient’s serum
    C. Be infused within 72 hours of collection
    D. Never be transfused to patients with a history of febrile
    transfusions reactions
A

b

98
Q
  1. Fever and chills are symptoms of which of the following
    transfusion reactions?
    A. Citrate toxicity
    B. Circulatory overload
    C. Allergic
    D. Febrile
A

d

99
Q
  1. DCE terminology:
    A. Rosenfield terminology
    B. ISBT terminology
    C. Fisher-Race terminology
    D. Wiener terminology
A

c

100
Q
  1. Animal used for the production of polyclonal AHG:
    A. Rat
    B. Monkey
    C. Rabbit
    D. Leech
A

c

123 (4 decks)

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