paper mistakes Flashcards
(289 cards)
1
Q
if speed become double stopping distance become
A
4 times
2
Q
physic internal eng formula
A
E=Q-W
3
Q
Q( reaction qusent) when value of q increase
reaction goes in
A
forword direction
4
Q
Q>Ksp
A
system proceed in backword direction to attain eq
5
Q
Q=Ksp=1 at eq
A
not correct but Q=Ksp is correct
6
Q
ionisation eng
A
O
7
Q
collagen `
A
white connective tissue
8
Q
core of cillia and flagell
A
axonema
9
Q
cillia and flagella imerge from centriole like structure
A
BASALBODY BLEPRO BLAST CE;LL
10
Q
protein associated with cilia and flagella
A
tubulin protein
11
Q
final electron accepter in alcohol dehydrogenase& lactic acid fermentase
A
acetaldehyde & pyruvic acid
12
Q
RQ VALUE
A
CARBS (1) protein 09 fat 07
13
Q
protoderm ( bermatogen)
A
give rise to epi dermis
14
Q
respine is obtained from
A
rouwolfia vomni toria
15
Q
styroform
A
sound proofing
16
Q
green scum in water bodies is
A
BGA & algae
17
Q
sound which a person can hear without any trubble
A
80 db
18
Q
1986
A
ENV P A
19
Q
1981
A
AIR P C A
20
Q
1974
A
H20 ACT
21
Q
1987
A
AIR + NOISE p c a
22
Q
khaziranga national park
A
one horn rhyno sorous
23
Q
What is common to the following plants: Nepenthes, Psilotum, Rauwolfia
and Aconitum?
A
over exploitation
24
Q
Thylacine
A
Australia
25
Quagga
Africa
26
cyanodon
indian native grass
27
countries having heigest bio diversity
south america
28
bio-geo-chemical cycles which one does not havelosses due to respiration?
Phosphorus
b. Nitrogen
c. Sulphur
d. All of the above
29
Approximately how much of the solar energy that falls on the leaves of a
plant is converted to chemical energy by photosynthesis?
2-10%
30
Pyramid of numbers is:
Ether upright or inverted
31
Productivity is the rate of production of biomass expressed in terms of:
ii. g–2 yr–1
| iv. (kcal m–2) yr-1
32
The process of mineralisation by micro organisms helps in the release
inorganic nutrients from humus
33
Which one of the following organisms reproduces sexually only once in life time
banana
34
In 2005, for each of the 14 million people present in a country, 0.028
were born and 0.008 died during the year. Using exponential equation,
the number of people present in 2015 is predicted as:
a. 25 millions
b. 17 millions
c. 20 millions
d. 18 millions
B
35
```
Formation of tropical forests needs mean annual temperature and mean
annual precipitation as:
a. 18 – 25°C and 150 – 400 cm
b. 5 – 15°C and 50 – 100 cm
c. 30 – 50°C and 100 – 150 cm
d. 5 – 15°C and 100 – 200 cm
```
A
36
According to Allen’s Rule, the mammals from colder climates have:
a. shorter ears and longer limbs
b. longer ears and shorter limbs
c. longer ears and longer limbs
d. shorter ears and shorter limbs
D
37
Autecology is the:
a. Relation of heterogenous populations to its environment
b. Relation of an individual to its environment
c. Relation of a community to its environment
d. Relation of a biome to its environment
B
38
constraint
a limitation or restriction.
39
In 1953 S. L. Miller created primitive earth conditions in the laboratory
and gave experimental evidence for origin of first form of life from pre-
existing non-living organic molecules. The primitive earth conditions
created include:
a. low temperature, volcanic storms, atmosphere rich in oxygen
b. low temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere
c. high temperature, volcanic storms, non-reducing atmosphere
d. high temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere
containing CH4, NH3 etc.
D
40
15. Which of the following is an example for link species?
a. Lobe fish
b. Dodo bird
c. Sea weed
d. Chimpanzee
D WRT NCERT EXAMPLER A WITH NCERT
41
```
Which type of selection explains industrial melanism observed in moth,
Biston bitularia:
a. Stabilising
b. Directional
c. Disruptive
d. Artificial
```
B & exampie of natural selection
42
Fossils are generally found in:
a. Sedimentary rocks
b. Igneous rocks
c. Metamorphic rocks
d. Any type of rock
A SEDIMENTORY ROCK Fossils are usually found in the sedimentary rocks where the layers encase dead animals or plants. They rarely occur in the igneous rocks as the heat of the molten rock usually birns the organic remains. They are also rare in metamorphic rocks as recrystallisation process causes the destruction of fossils.
43
Body attacks self cells The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from
self cells is lost
for Rheumatoid arthritis?
44
```
A group of animals which are related by descent and share many
similarities are referred to as:
a. breed
b. race
c. variety
d. species
```
A
45
Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are varieties of:
WHEAT
46
Several South Indian states raise 2-3 crops of rice annually. The
agronomic feature that makes this possible is because of
a. shorter rice plant
b. better irrigation facilities
c. early yielding rice variety
d. disease resistant rice variety.
C
47
The biggest constraint of plant breeding is:
a. availability of desirable gene in the crop and its wild relatives
b. infrastructure
c. trained manpower
d. transfer of genes from unrelated sources.
A
48
FRESH water fish
RAHU, CATLA & COMMON CARP
49
SEA fish
HILSA, SARDINE , MACREL ,POMFREST
50
BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the amount of:
a. total organic matter
b. biodegradable organic matter
c. oxygen evolution
d. oxygen consumption.
D
51
The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for:
a. killing insects
b. biological control of plant diseases
c. controlling butterfly caterpillars
d. producing antibiotics
B
52
What would happen if oxygen availability to activated sludge flocs is
reduced?
a. It will slow down the rate of degradation of organic matter
b. The center of flocs will become anoxic, which would cause death
of bacteria and eventually breakage of flocs.
c. Flocs would increase in size as anaerobic bacteria would grow
around flocs.
d. Protozoa would grow in large numbers.
B
53
Activated sludge should have the ability to settle quickly so that it can:
a. be rapidly pumped back from sedimentation tank to aeration tank
b. absorb pathogenic bacteria present in waste water while sinking
to the bottom of the settling tank
c. be discarded and anaerobically digested
d. absorb colloidal organic matter.
A Activated sludge should have the ability to settle quickly so that it can be rapidly pumped back from sedimentation tank to the aeration tank, where it can start the process of decomposition of the organic matter again. Activated sludge has filamentous bacteria that are capable of performing the aerobic digestion of organic waste is the sewage water.
Hence, the correct answer is ,
54
The transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another through
the mediation of a viral vector is termed as:
a. Transduction
b. Conjugation
c. Transformation
d. Translation
A
55
'Restriction' in Restriction enzyme refers to:
a. Cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by the enzyme
b. Cutting of DNA at specific position only
c. Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage by the host
bacteria
d. All of the above
C
56
The most important feature in a plasmid to serve as a vector in gene
cloning experiment is:
a. Origin of replication (ori)
b. Presence of a selectable marker
c. Presence of sites for restriction endonuclease
d. Its size
A
57
```
While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the following enzymes is not
required?
a. Lysozyme
b. Ribonuclease
c. Deoxyribonuclease
d. Protease
```
C
58
Which of the following contributed in popularising the PCR (polymerase
chain reactions) technique?
a. Easy availability of DNA template
b. Availability of synthetic primers
c. Availability of cheap deoxyribonucleotides
d. Availability of 'Thermostable' DNA polymerase
D
59
An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of:
a. Competent bacterial cells
b. Transformed bacterial cells
c. Recombinant bacterial cells
d. None of the above
B
60
recombinent
bacteria contaning plasmid with recombinent dna
61
Significance of 'heat shock' method in bacterial transformation is to
facilitate:
a. Binding of DNA to the cell wall
b. Uptake of DNA through membrane transport proteins
c. Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the bacterial cell wall
d. Expression of antibiotic resistance gene
C
62
The role of DNA ligase in the construction of a recombinant DNA
molecule is:
a. Formation of phosphodiester bond between two DNA fragments
b. Formation of hydrogen bonds between sticky ends of DNA
fragments
c. Ligation of all purime and pyrimidine bases
d. None of the above
A
63
Which of the following steps are catalysed by Taq DNA polymerase in a
PCR reaction?
a. Denaturation of template DNA
b. Annealing of primers to template DNA
c. Extension of primer end on the template DNA
d. All of the above
C
64
Which of the following should be chosen for best yield if one were to
produce a recombinant protein in large amounts?
a. Laboratory flask of largest capacity
b. A stirred-tank bioreactor without in-lets and out-lets
c. A continuous culture system
d. Any of the above
C
65
```
Who among the following was awarded the Nobel Prize for the
development of PCR technique?
a. Herbert Boyer
b. Hargovind Khurana
c. Kary Mullis
d. Arthur Kornberg
```
C
66
A probe which is a molecule used to locate homologous sequences in a
mixture of DNA or RNA molecules could be:
a. A ssRNA
b. A ssDNA
c. Either RNA or DNA
d. Can be ssDNA but not ssRNA
C
67
Pathophysiology is the:
a. Study of physiology of pathogen
b. Study of normal physiology of host
c. Study of altered physiology of host
d. None of the above
C Pathology describes the abnormal or undesired condition, whereas pathophysiology seeks to explain the functional changes that are occurring within an individual due to a disease or pathologic state.
68
In RNAi, genes are silenced using:
a. ss DNA
b. ds DNA
c. ds RNA
d. ss RNA
C a wide variety of organisms, including animals, plants, and fungi, RNAi is triggered by double-stranded RNA (dsRNA)
69
transcribes:
contain
70
Who amongst the following scientists had no contribution in the
development of the double helix model for the structure of DNA?
a. Rosalind Franklin
b. Maurice Wilkins
c. Erwin Chargaff
d. Meselson and Stahl
D
71
DNA is a polymer of nucleotides which are linked to each other by 3’-5’
phosphodiester bond. To prevent polymerisation of nucleotides, which
of the following modifications would you choose?
a. Replace purine with pyrimidines
b. Remove/Replace 3' OH group in deoxy ribose
c. Remove/Replace 2' OH group with some other group in deoxy
ribose
d. Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
B
72
Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one strand, because:
a. DNA molecule being synthesised is very long
b. DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation only
in one direction (5’ → 3’)
c. it is a more efficient process
d. DNA ligase joins the short stretches of DNA
B
73
Which of the following statements is correct about the role of regulatory
proteins in transcription in prokaryotes?
a. They only increase expression
b. They only decrease expression
c. They interact with RNA polymerase but do not affect the expression
d. They can act both as activators and as repressors
D
74
While analysing the DNA of an organism a total number of 5386
nucleotides were found out of which the proportion of different bases
were: Adenine = 29%, Guanine = 17%, Cytosine = 32%, Thymine = 17%.
Considering the Chargaff’s rule it can be concluded that:
a. it is a double stranded circular DNA
b. It is single stranded DNA
c. It is a double stranded linear DNA
d. No conclusion can be drawn
B
75
```
In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a
DNA is called:
a. A-DNA
b. B-DNA
c. cDNA
d. rDNA
```
C DNA ( COMPLEMENTORY DNA ) MRNA + REVERSE RTANSCRIPTION =C DNA . take place in virus :rdna (recombinent dna ) A-DNA & b dna common form of dna occuring in organism
76
If Meselson and Stahl's experiment is continued for four generations in
bacteria, the ratio of N15/N15: N15/N14: N14/N14 containing DNA in the
fourth generation would be:
a. 1:1:0
b. 1:4:0
c. 0:1:3
d. 0:1:7
D
77
```
In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a
DNA is called:
a. A-DNA
b. B-DNA
c. cDNA
d. rDNA
```
C DNA ( COMPLEMENTORY DNA ) MRNA + REVERSE RTANSCRIPTION =C DNA . take place in virus :rdna (recombinent dna ) A-DNA & b dna common form of dna occuring in organism AANS WER ( C)
78
The RNA polymerase holoenzyme transcribes:
a. the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region
b. the promoter and the terminator region
c. the structural gene and the terminator region
d. the structural gene only.
C AND D
79
```
If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5'-AUG-3', the sequence of
tRNA pairing with it must be:
a. 5' - UAC - 3'
b. 5' - CAU - 3'
c. 5' - AUG - 3'
d. 5' - GUA - 3'
```
B
80
The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its:
a. 5' - end
b. 3' - end
c. Anti codon site
d. DHU loop
B
81
MMR& IMR FULL FORM
(MATERNAL& INFANT) MORTALITY RATE death of mother and children
82
The membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation is:
a. Corona radiata
b. Zona radiata
c. Zona pellucida
d. Chorion
A
83
```
Mendel’s Law of independent assortment holds good for genes situated
on the:
a. non-homologous chromosomes
b. homologous chromosomes
c. extra nuclear genetic element
d. same chromosome
```
A
84
Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will:
a Cause rapid increase in growth rate
b. Result in decline in growth rate
c. Not cause significant change in growth rate
d. Result in an explosive population
C
85
Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the:
a. Suppression of gonadotropins
b. Hyper secretion of gonadotropins
c. Suppression of gametic transport
d. Suppression of fertilisation
A
86
Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the:
a. Suppression of gonadotropins
b. Hyper secretion of gonadotropins
c. Suppression of gametic transport
d. Suppression of fertilisation
A Supress GRH & FSH
87
```
A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society
was taken up in our country in:
a. 1950s
b. 1960s
c. 1980s
d. 1990s
```
A
88
Choose the incorrect statement from the following:
a. In birds and mammals internal fertilisation takes place
b. Colostrum contains antibodies and nutrients
c. Polyspermy in mammals is prevented by the chemical changes in
the egg surface
d. In the human female implantation occurs almost seven days after
fertilisation
his depolarization prevents the entry of additional sperms. The fertilized ovum enters the uterine cavity 3-4 days later. Implantation occurs almost 7 to 10 days after fertilization and 5 to 6 days after it has entered the uterine cavity. ANSWER C
89
Identify the correct statement from the following:
a. High levels of estrogen triggers the ovulatory surge.
b. Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give rise to functional ova in
regular cycles from puberty onwards.
c. Sperms released from seminiferous tubules are highly motile.
d. Progesterone level is high during the post ovulatory phase of
menstrual cycle.
B
90
```
Mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the ovary of a healthy
human female around:
a. 5 – 8 day of menstrual cycle
b. 11 – 17 day of menstrual cycle
c. 18 – 23 day of menstrual cycle
d. 24 – 28 day of menstrual cycle
```
B MORE ACRUATE 11-13
91
The spermatogonia undergo division to produce sperms by the process
of spermatogenesis. Choose the correct one with reference to above.
a. Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and always undergo meiotic
cell division
b. Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic cell division
c. Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes and undergo
second meiotic division
d. Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids
C
92
The membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation is:
a. Corona radiata
b. Zona radiata
c. Zona pellucida
d. Chorion
A
93
Among the terms listed below, those that of are not technically correct
names for a floral whorl are:
i. Androecium
ii. Carpel
iii. Corolla
iv. Sepal
(a) i and iv, (b) iii and iv (c) ii and iv (d) i and ii.
C
94
Embryo sac is to ovule as _______ is to an anther.
a. Stamen
b. Filament
c. Pollen grain
d. Androecium
C
95
From the statements given below choose the option that are true for a
typical female gametophyte of a flowering plant:
i. It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity
ii. It is free-nuclear during the development
iii. It is situated inside the integument but outside the nucellus
iv. It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end
(a) i and iv, (b) ii and iii (c) i and ii (d) ii and iv
C
96
# Choose the correct statement from the following:
a. Cleistogamous flowers always exhibit autogamy
b. Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit geitonogamy
c. Cleistogamous flowers exhibit both autogamy and geitonogamy
d. Chasmogamous flowers never exhibit autogamy
A
97
Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamous flower if:
a. Pollen matures before maturity of ovule
b. Ovules mature before maturity of pollen
c. Both pollen and ovules mature simultaneously
d. Both anther and stigma are of equal lengths.
C
98
In a fertilised embryo sac, the haploid, diploid and triploid
structures are:
a. Synergid, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus
b. Synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei
c. Antipodal, synergid and primary endosperm nucleus
d. Synergid, polar nuclei and zygote.
A
99
A few statements with regard to sexual reproduction are given below:
i. Sexual reproduction does not always require two individuals
ii. Sexual reproduction generally involves gametic fusion
iii. Meiosis never occurs during sexual reproduction
iv. External fertilisation is a rule during sexual reproduction
1 & 2 (i) sexual reproduction does not require two individuals because the fusion of two gametes released from the same plant can take place. (iii) meiosis occurs during sexual reproduction when the plant body is haploid or the gametes are diploid to produce the normal body.
100
The statements given below describe certain features that are observed
in the pistil of flowers.
i. Pistil may produce more than one seed
ii. Each carpel may have more than one ovule
iii. Each carpel has only one ovule
iv. Pistil have only one carpel
Choose the statements that are true from the options below:
(a) i and ii (b) i and iii (c) ii and iv (d) iii and iv
Gynoecium is the female part of the flower, a unit of which is called pistil. A pistil may have one or more than one carpels (monocarpellary, bicarpellary etc). Each carpel may have more than one ovules. ANS A
101
Which of the following situations correctly describe the similarity between
an angiosperm egg and a human egg?
i. Eggs of both are formed only once in a lifetime
ii. Both the angiosperm egg and human egg are stationary iii. Both the angiosperm egg and human egg are mobile
iv. Syngamy in both results in the formation of zygote
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) ii and iv (b) iv only (c) iii and iv (d) i and iv
ANS B HUMAN HAVE MOTILE GAMETS BUT ANGIOSPERMS DO NOT HAVE MOTILE MALE GAMET
102
Offspring formed by sexual reproduction exhibit more variation than
those formed by Asexual reproduction because:
a. Sexual reproduction is a lengthy process
b. Gametes of parents have qualitatively different genetic composition
c. Genetic material comes from parents of two different species
d. Greater amount of DNA is involved in sexual reproduction.
B
103
There is no natural death in single celled organisms like Amoeba and
bacteria because:
a. They cannot reproduce sexually
b. They reproduce by binary fission
c. Parental body is distributed among the offspring
d. They are microscopic
C
104
```
Among the terms listed below, those that of are not technically correct
names for a floral whorl are:
i. Androecium
ii. Carpel
iii. Corolla
iv. Sepal
```
ANDROECIUM GYNOSIUM CALYX COROLLA
105
```
From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are
associated with the gynoecium.
a. Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
b. Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
c. Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum
d. Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac
```
A
106
While planning for an artificial hybridization programme involving
dioecious plants, which of the following steps would not be relevant:
a. Bagging of female flower
b. Dusting of pollen on stigma
c. Emasculation
d. Collection of pollen
DIOECIOUS PLAND MALE & FEMALE ON DIFFERENT BODDY ( C ANS )
107
The phenomenon observed in some plants wherein parts of the sexual
apparatus is used for forming embryos without fertilisation is called:
a. Parthenocarpy
b. Apomixis
c. Vegetative propagation
d. Sexual reproduction.
B
108
sulfide
H2S
109
28. Which of the following ions show higher spin only magnetic moment value?
(i) Ti3+
(ii) Mn2+
(iii) Fe2+
(iv) Co3+
Ans. (ii) and (iii)
110
Transition elements form binary compounds with halogens. Which of the
following elements will form MF3
type compounds?
(i) Cr
(ii) Co
(iii) Cu
(iv) Ni
Only Co and Cr can form halides like MF3
beyond Mn no metal has a trihalide
except FeX3
, and CoF3
.
111
fusion means
h2o (s) to h20(l) ^ng= 0
112
vapourisation
h20(l) to h2o(g) ^ng=1
113
c (s) +o2(g) =co2 + Y ^h = ?
^H= -Y
114
sublimation
SOLID TO GAS
115
^Hf heat of formation
P-R (PRODUCT - REACTANT)
116
^Hc ( heat of combustion )
R-P (REACTANT - PRODUCT)
117
BOND ENG Q ^ H VALUE
R-P REACTANT - PRODUCT
118
gas diffusing from hole Q
rate * nmole * volume * & normal formmua are applicable
119
in NACL structure na cl are + in
NA OHV (MID OF THE EDGE & IN CENTRE ) CL FCC ( ON CORNER & FACE CENTEERS )
120
molecular weight of NACL
74
121
rate of reaction = specfic reaction rate
depand on temperature
122
rate of reaction fixed value
mole L-1 SEC-1
123
RELATION OF TIME HALF WITH CONCENTRATION
t = 1/a(n-1 ) ( ) is in power
124
RELATION OF TIME HALF WITH CONCENTRATION
t = 1/a(n-1 ) ( n is order ) is in power a initiala concentration
125
electrostatics flux q /eo
flux related from all the surface
126
electrone moving in direction of ELECTRIC FIELD
velocity decrease
127
electrone moving in direction perpendicular to electric field
parabolic path
128
proton moving in direction of ELECTRIC FIELd
velocity increase
129
electric potential of dipole
kp/r2 ( axial ) 0 at ( equitorial )
130
& electric field of dipole
2kp/r^3 ( axial ) kp /r^3 ( equitorial)
131
If v = (2t + 1) m/sec then average velocity from
t = 0 to t = 2 sec is :-
(1) 6 m/sec (2) 3 m/sec
(3) 4 m/sec (4) 8 m/sec
2
132
sin 37
3/5
133
cos 37
4/5
134
sin53
4/5
135
cos53
4/5
136
meter /sec to km /sec
18/5
137
km/sec to meter / secc
5/18
138
```
The conduction current is the same as
displacement current when source is :-
(1) ac only
(2) dc only
(3) both ac and dc
(4) neither dc nor ac
```
3
139
A magnet is brought towards a coil
(i) speedly
(ii) slowly then the induced e.m.f./induced
charge will be respectively
(1) More in first case / More in first case
(2) More in first case/Equal in both case
(3) Less in first case/More in second case
(4) Less in first case/Equal in both case
2
140
Arrange Cl, F, F , Cl in increasing order of
| ionisation poteential
f>cl>cl- >f-
141
Select the correct statements :
(1) Metal nitrides produce N2 gas on hydrolysis
(2) Acetic acid is a weaker acid in liquid NH ,
while stronger in water
(3) In ostwald's process 'NO' is produced by the
reaction of N with O
(4) NO is called as mixed anhydrid
4
142
When temporary hard water containing
Mg(HCO ) is boiled the ppt. formed is of :
(1) MgCO (2) MgO
(3) Mg(OH) (4) None of these
3
143
Terminal electron acceptor of mitochondrial
| electron transport is :
O2
144
If a mulatto man marries with a mulatto woman,
then :-
(1) Seven types of genotype will be obtained
(2) only mulatto will be produced
(3) offsprings with three dominant alleles will
be maximum
(4) 1:4:6:4:1genotypicratio willbeobtained
3
145
Which of the following is incorrect according to
Griffith experiments :-
(1) S-Strain → Inject into mice → mice live
(2) R-Strain → Inject into mice → mice live
(3) Heat-killed S-Strain → Inject into mice →
mice live
(4) Heat killed S-Strain + R-Strain → Inject
into mice → mice die
1
146
1. Which of the following pairs is mismatched :
(1) Tundra – permafrost
(2) Savanna – Acasia tree
(3) Prairie – Epiphytes
(4) Coniferous forest – evergreen forest
3 PRAIRIE GRASS& SHRUBS
147
```
3. The genetic variation shown by Rauwolfia might
be in term of :-
(1) Potency of reserpine
(2) Concentration of reserpine
(3) Fragrance of reserpine
(4) Both (1) and (2
```
4
148
Find out odd one :
(1) Unio
(2) Star fish
(3) Balanoglossus
(4) Fish
4
149
Find out odd one :
(1) Unio
(2) Star fish
(3) Balanoglossus
(4) FishI
4
150
HEMICHORDATA
OPEN CIRCULATROY SYSTEM COLLAR REGION CONTAIN RUDEMONTARY STRUCTURE STOMACHORD
151
Central canal of spinal cord is lined by :-
(1) Ependymal epithelium
(2) Ciliated epithelium
(3) Endothelium
(4) 1 and 2 both
4
152
EXCRETORY ORGAN
MALPHIGIAN TUBULE
153
Which substance in saliva helps in lubricating
and adhering the masticated food particles in to a
bolus ?
(1) Amylase (2) Mucous
(3) Isothiocyanate (4) Lysozyme
2
154
What is the state of heart in the interval after end
of second heart sound and before begining of
first heart sound again ?
(1) Ventricle remain in systole Auricles
undergo first diastole and then systole
(2) Ventricles remain in diastole Auricles
undergo first diastole and then systole
(3) Ventricles undergo first systole and then
diastole Auricles remain in diastole
(4) Ventricles remain in diastole Auricles
remain in systole
2
155
```
The peritubular capillaries of the nephron arise
from the :-
(1) Afferent arterioles
(2) Renal artery
(3) Efferent arterioles
(4) Vasa Recta
```
3
156
TIBIA
PHULI HUI HADDI
157
FIBULA
SHUKDI HUI HADDI
158
```
The disease which is due to increased uric acid in
blood ?
(1) Rhumatoid arthritis
(2) Sprain
(3) Gout
(4) Osteoporosis
```
3
159
```
When viewing an object near to your eyes the
following are required for proper image
formation of the retina ?
(A) Contraction of the ciliary muscles
(B) Increase in thickness of lens
(C) Contriction of the pupil
(D) Increased focal length of the lens
(1) A and C
(2) A and D
(3) B and D
(4) A and B
```
4
160
Metachrosis
PIGMENTATION
161
During implantation, the blastocyst becomes
embeded in the which layer of uterus :-
(1) Perimetrium (2) Myometrium
(3) Endometrium (4) Serosa
PERIMETRIUM IS THE OUTRE MOST LAYER AF UTERUS (3 )
162
How many statements are correct about
evolution of darwins finches :-
(a) They evolve through adaptive radiation
(b) All varieties of finches, which evolved from
common ancestor show homology
(c) Adaptive radiation is also shown by
Australian marsupials
(d) When more then one adaptive radiation
appeared to have occured in isolated
geographical area is known as convergent
evolution
1234
163
During evolution the first living being were
prokaryotic cell, like :-
(1) Bacteria (2) Virus
(3) Blue green algae (4) Actinomycetes
1
164
In which stage bivalent chromosome clearly
appears as tetrad :-
(1) Zygotene (2) Diplotene
(3) Pachytene (4) Diakinesis
3
165
Amino acids kept at pH below isoelectric point will
show :-
(1) Anionic charge (2) Cationic charge
(3) No net charge (4) No charge
2
166
Inhibition of cell division occur due to lack or low
| levels of
N,K,S and Mo
167
2. Gametophytic structure is non-vascular in :-
(1) Alage and liverworts
(2) Mosses and ferns
(3) Gymnosperms and angiosperms
(4) All of the above
4
168
Respiratory substrate in which less CO2 released as
| compared to O2 consumption during respiration is :
carbs 1 FATS 09 PROTEIN 07
169
. What is similarity between mitochondria and
| chloroplast ?
) Both have endo-symbiotic origin and they
increase their number by amitosis like as
prokaryotic ce
170
Which one of the following is a heteropolymer ?
(1) Starch (2) Cellulose
(3) Pectin (4) Glycogen
3
171
Dorsiventral leaves do not have :-
(1) Xylem towards abaxial surface
(2) Differentiated mesophyll tissue
(3) Closed vascular bundle
(4) Phloem towards abaxial surfac
1 DORSI VENTRAL = DICOT
172
```
Correct sequence of events in kreb's cycle is :-
(1) Acetyl CoA o Citrate o Pyruvate o
DKetoglutarate o Succinate oMalateo
Fumarate oOAA
(2) Acetyl CoA oCitrate oDKetoglutarate o
Succinate oOAA
(3) Acetyl CoA o Citrate o Malic acid o
DKetoglutarate oSuccinate oOAA
(4) All are wrong
```
2
173
In a typical fat molecule, glecerol is attached to
fatty acids with the help of the bond :-
(1) Amide bond (2) Hydrogen bond
(3) Ester bond (4) Phosphodiester bon
3
174
. In photorespiration process CO2 released in which
cell organelle ?
(1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria
(3) Peroxisome (4) All of the above
2
175
. At low light intensities, the relation between the
incident light and CO2 fixation rates is :-
(1) Sigmoid (2) Linear
(3) Parabola (4) Hyperbola
2
176
. How many of the following plant stems modify
to store food ?
Citrus, Turmeric, Sweet potato, Zaminkand,
Colocasia, Carrot
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
COLOCASIA TURMERIC ZAMINKEND
177
he bacterial cells have a chemically complex cell
envelope, it is consists of :-
(1) Tightly bounded two layer glycocalyx and cell
wall
(2) Loosely bounded two layer glycocalyx and cell
wall
(3) Tightly bounded three layer glycocalyx, cell
wall and plasma membrane
(4) Loosely bounded three layer glycocalyx, cell
wall and plasma membrane
3
178
Hardness of legume seed coats is due to presence of:-
(1) Sclerenchymatous fibres
(2) Sclereids
(3) Bast fibres
(4) Wood fibres
2
179
In pteridophytes, the prothallus possess
) Archegonia and antheridia
180
In pteridophytes, the prothallus possess
) Archegonia and antheridia
| PROTHELLUS ALSO KNOWN AS GAMETO PHYTE
181
In calvin cycle, if one molecule of RUBP is
carboxylated, how many PGA molecule(s) is/are
formed?
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 2
4
182
```
Match column-I with column-II :-
Column-I Column-II
a Metacentric i Chromosome has
terminal centromere
b Submetacentric ii Chromosome has
middle centromere
forming two equal arms
c Acrocentric iii Centromere slightly
away from the middle
of the chromosome.
d Telocentric iv Centromere is situated
close to its end.
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
```
4
183
In mosses, spore germinates to produce :-
(1) Protonema (2) Prothallus
(3) Embryo (4) Sporophytes
1
184
Division of chromosomes without division of
nucleus leads to polyploidy is known as :-
(1) Free nuclear division (2) Endoreduplication
(3) Endomitosis (4) Mitosis
3
185
Match the column I & II and choose the correct option.
Column-I
(Type of placentation)
Column-II
(Examples)
(a) Axile (i) Argemone
(b) Parietal (ii) Primrose
(c) Free central (iii) Lemon
(d) Basal (iv) Marigold
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
3 PARENTAL = MUSTARD & ARGEMONA
| FREE CENTRAL =DIANTOUS AND PRIMEROSE
186
Which of the following forms a buffer solution ?
(1) 500 ml, 0.1N CH3COOH + 500 ml, 0.1N NaOH
(2) 500 ml, 0.1N CH3COOH + 500 ml, 0.1N HCl
(3) 500 ml, 0.1N CH3COOH + 500 ml, 0.2N NaOH
(4) 500 ml, 0.2N CH3COOH + 500 ml, 0.1N NaOH
4 WEAK ACID + STRONG COJUIGATE BASE + IN SOLUTION THERE FOR CONCENTRATION OF ACID MUSRT BE GREAETER
187
The uncertainty in the position and velocity of a moving
particle is 10–5 m and 5.2 × 10–28 m/s respectively. Mass
of the moving particle nearly is:-
(1) 10 g (2) 10 mg (3) 10 kg (4) 10 µg
1
188
Which of the following aqueous solution of sodium
acetate will show minimum pH ?
(1) 0.01 M (2) 0.001M
(3) 0.0001M (4) 0.1 M
sodium acetate is a strong base
189
```
Which metal bicarbonates does not exist in solid state :
(i) LiHCO3
(ii) Ca(HCO3)2
(iii) Zn(HCO3) 2
(iv) NaHCO3
(v) AgHCO3
```
```
The metal bicarbonates (i) LiHCO
3
(ii) Ca(HCO
3
)
2
(iii) Zn(HCO
3
)
2
(v) AgHCO
3
does not exist in solid state. However the metal bicarbonate (iv) NaHCO3
exist in solid state. The alkali metals are highly electropositive, these are the only elements which form stable solid bicarbonates. However lithium due to its less electropositive nature, does not form solid bicarbonate.
```
190
```
10 ml each of 1M HCl and 1M H2
SO4 are neutralised
by 1M NaOH solution that liberate the heat of x and
y respectively. Which is true :-
(1) 2x = y (2) x = y
(3) x = 2y (4) 3x = y
```
neuteralise = assume complet neutralisation
191
Which ion has the largest radius :-
(1) Se–2 (2) F–
(3) O–2 (4) Rb+
donot miss the negative charge
192
A particle moves in a circular path with a constant
speed of 10 m/s. Find its average acceleration when
it crosses two radially perpendicular locations, time
period of particle is 8 s :-
(1) 5 2 (2) 10 2
(3) 10 (4) None of these
readially perpendicular means 90 degree
193
A disc is rotating with 300 r.p.m., now a constant
angular retardation of S rad/s2
is given to the disc by
a counter torque. Find time after which it will start
rotating with same r.p.m. but in opposite sense :-
(1) 10 s (2) 20 s
(3) 30 s (4) None of these
rpm To rps then mulpiply by 2 pi to convert into velocity
194
A satellite revolves around the earth in an elliptical
orbit. Its speed
(1) Is the same at all points in the orbit
(2) Is greatest when it is closest to the earth
(3) Is greatest when it is farthest from the earth
(4) Goes on increasing or decreasing continuously
depending upon the mass of the satellite
2
195
```
. If position of a particle of mass 1kg varies with time
is given by x = t2
+ 2t – 1, then average power
developed in 1 second :-
(1) 6W (2) 8W (3) 10W (4) 12W
```
integration
196
An electric pump is used to fill an overhead tank of
capacity 9m3
kept at a height 10m above ground.
If the pump takes 5 minutes to fill the tank by
consuming 10 kW power, efficiency of the pump
should be : (g = 10 m/s2
) :-
(1) 60% (2) 40% (3) 20% (4) 30%
9000 gm
197
integuements form
sead coat
198
amount of co2 removed per minut
200 ml
199
congestion of lungs
herart falieur
200
. How many statements are correct regarding Cancer?
(a) Taxol is obtained from Taxus baccata
(b) Biopsy is a histopathological study
(c) X-rays causes neoplastic transformation
(d) Alkaline phosphatase is a tumor marker for
prostate cancer
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) One (4) Four
2
201
. If a habitat is just being established then, most
important factors determining population size :-
(1) Emigration
(2) Immigration
(3) Birth rate
(4) Death rate
2
202
Which of the following option represents correct
matching pairs ?
(A)National Environment Act (i) 1981
(B) Air Act (ii) 1986
(C) Montreal protocol (iii) 1997
(D)Kyoto protocol (iv) 1987
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii (4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
3
203
The minimum level in ecological hierarchy in
which abiotic factors are described along with
biotic factors :-
(1) Population (2) Organism
(3) Community (4) Ecosystem
4
204
Which of the following disease caused by
protozoa in cattle ?
(1) Ranikhet (2) Bird flu
(3) Babesiosis (4) Anthrax
3
205
. Which of the following is transcribed by RNA
polymerase II in eukaryotes ?
(1) tRNA (2) rRNA
(3) hnRNA (4) snRNA
3 t /sn/ 5sRNA rna poly 3 ( hn RNA rna polymerase 2)
206
8. CAM pathway is an adaptation in plants to
minimise water loss. The type of adaptation is :-
(1) Morphological
(2) Physiological
(3) Behavioural
(4) All of the above
2
207
# Choose the incorrect match :-
(1) Flat bean – Pusa Sem 2
(2) Brassica – Pusa Gaurav
(3) SCP – Spirulina
(4) Atlas 66 – Transgenic plan
4
208
Match the following correctly :-
Column-I Column-II
(i) Tetanus (a) Viral disease
(ii) Shigellosis (b) Schick test
(iii) Rabies (c) Risus sardonicus
(iv) Diphtheria (d) Blood & mucus in stool
(1) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c (2) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
(3) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b (4) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
4
209
two molecule given
MORPHINE & CANABINID MOLECULE
210
Western Ghats have greater amphibian species
diversity than the Eastern Ghats. This level of diversity
is :-
(1) Genetic diversity (2) Species diversity
(3) Ecological diversity (4) All of the above
2
211
```
Which of the following bacteria is an example of
single cell protein (SCP) ?
(1) Mushroom
(2) Chlorella
(3) Methylophilus methylotrophus
(4) Both (1) and (3)
```
3
212
Pacific salmon fish adopts which of the following
strategy to maximise it's reproductive fitness :-
(1) Breeding many times in life
(2) Breeding only once in life
(3) Production of large number of small size offsprings
(4) Both (2) and (3) given above
2
213
By a radioactive material :-
(1) D, E and J-rays are emitted together
(2) D and E are emitted together and there after J
is emitted
(3) D, E and J are emitted one by one
(4) J-rays are emitted after the emission of D or E
particles
4
214
In an n-p-n transistor, 10^8
electrons enter the
emitter in 10–8 s. If 1% electrons are lost in the
base, the fraction of current that enters the collector
and current amplification factor (E) are respectively:-
(1) 0.8 and 49
(2) 0.9 and 90
(3) 0.7 and 50
(4) 0.99 and 99
```
108 electrons enter the emitter in 10–8 s
i.e.,
8 19
E 8
10 1.6 10 I A
10
```
u u
```
= 172.8 × 10–11 A
? 1% of IE
is lost in base, i.e., IB
=
E
I
100
99
100 I
E
enters the collector
I
C
= 0.99 IE
Current amplification factor
C E
B E
I 0.99I 99
```
215
In a semiconducting material 1/5
of the total
current is carried by the holes and the remaining is
carried by the electrons. The drift speed of electrons
is twice that of holes at this temperature, the ratio
between the number densities of electrons and
holes is :-
(1)
21/
6
(2) 5 (3)
3/
8
(4) 2
4
216
```
The de Broglie wavelength O associated with a
proton changes by 0.25% if its momentum is
changed by p0
. The initial momentum was :-
(1) 100 p0
(2) p0
/400
(3) 400 p0
(4) p0
/100
```
2
217
The magnetic potential at a point on the axial line
of magnet of dipole moment M is V. What is the
magnetic potential due to a bar magnet of dipole
moment
M
4
at the same point ?
(1) 4V (2) 2V (3) V/2 (4) V/4
4
218
A resistance of 20 : is connected to a source of
an alternating potential V = 220 sin(100 St). The
time taken by the current to change from the peak
value to rms value, is
(1) 0.2 s
(2) 0.25 s
(3) 2.5 × 10–4 s
(4) 2.5 × 10–3 s
Time taken to reach from
max. to r.m.s. value.
=
T/8
219
impedance
Z
220
REACTANCE
X (L) X (C)
221
A coil of inductance 0.015 henry and resistance 1:
is connected in series with 3 resistance. If the current
is 2 Amp. and e.m.f. is 10 volt in the circuit then
reactance of the coil will be :
(1) 2 : (2) 3 :
(3) 4 : (4) 5 :
2
222
A motor is used to deliver water at a certain rate
through a given horizontal pipe. To deliver ntimes the water through the same pipe in the
same time the power of the motor must be
increased as follows :-
(1) n-times (2) n -times
(3) n -times (4) n -times
3
223
A ball is dropped from a height 'h'. As it bounces
off the floor, its speed is 80 percent of what it
was just before it hit the floor. The ball will then
rise to a height of most nearly :
(1) 0.8 h (2) 0.75 h (3) 0.64 h (4) 0.50 h
height=e^2n n =no of bounce
224
A rigid body rotates about a fixed axis with
variable angular velocity equal to α-βt at time t,
where α and β are constants. The angle through
which it rotates before it comes to rest is :-
a^2/2b
225
Two electric dipoles of moment P and 64 P are
placed in opposite direction on a line at a
distance of 25 cm. The electric field will be zero
at point between the dipoles whose distance from
the dipole of moment P is :
5cm
226
The binding energy of deuteron is H 1.112
MeV per nucleon and an α-particle He has a
binding energy of 7.047 MeV per nucleon. Then
in the fusion reaction , 2H =He + Q
the energy Q released is :-
(1) 1 MeV (2) 11.9 MeV
(3) 23.8 MeV (4) 931 MeV
NUCLEON = MASS NO FOR He= 4
227
u means
10^-3 not 10^-6
228
0. In which of the following molecule central atom
is having complete octet
(1) BeCl 2(dimer) (2) BeH2 (dimer)
(3) BeH2 (s) (4) BeCl2(s)
4
229
Fire extinguisher contains :-
H 2SO4 & NaHCO 3solution
230
Which one of the following has the highest
molar conductivity ?
(1) Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
(2) Tetraamminedichlorocobalt(III) chloride
(3) Potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)
(4) Hexaaquochromium(III) bromide
3 k4 fe cn6
231
Which graph indicates trend of valency in
| group:
cnstant
232
3) Real gas follows ideal gas equation at very
| low pressure and high temperature.
true
233
During menstrual cycle, endometrium
regenerates in which phase ?
(1) Menstruation (2) Follicular phase
(3) Secretory phase (4) Luteal phase
2 ( 3/4 )same meaning
234
Which of the following hormone is anti
hyperglycemia?
(1) Glucagon (2) Thyroxin
(3) Insulin (4) Cortisol
3 increASE GLUCOSE LEVEL
235
```
Neural signal from which centre can reduce the
duration of inspiration ?
(1) Chemosensitive area
(2) Respiration rhythm centre
(3) Pneumotaxic centre
(4) Aortic body
```
3
236
Vitamin K is needed for :-
(1) Formation of thromboplastin
(2) Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
(3) Synthesis of prothrombin
(4) Conversion of prothrombin into thrombi
3
237
```
Commonnameofanimalsaregiven, findmismatch:-
Animal Commonname
A Chiton/Seamica
B Dentalium/ Tuskshell
C Doris /Sea Lemon
D Sepia/ Devil fish
```
4
238
```
3. Match the column I with Column II ?
Column-I Column-II
(i) Dachigam (a) Snow leopard
(ii) Periyar (b) Four horned deer
(iii) Sikkim (c) Hangul
(iv) Kanha (d) Elephant
(1) (i) c (ii) a (iii) b (iv) d
(2) (i) c (ii) d (iii) a (iv) b
(3) (i) d (ii) a (iii) c (iv) b
(4) (i) d (ii) c (iii) b (iv) a
```
2
239
```
Which organisms use RNA interference as a
method of cellular defence in :-
(1) All eukaryotic organism
(2) All prokaryotic organism
(3) Bacteria only
(4) Virus only
```
1
240
Which plant breeding step is crucial to the
success of the breeding objective and requires
careful scientific evaluation of the progeny :-
(1) Selection and testing of superior
recombinants
(2) Cross hybridisation among the selected
parents
(3) Evaluation and selection of parents
(4) Testing, release and commericalisation of
new cultivars
1
241
Polymerase chain reaction requires :-
(1) Thermostable DNA polymerase
(2) DNA ligase
(3) Primase
(4) All the above
1
242
Somaclonal variations are :-
(1) Germinal variations
(2) Variations of GM plants
(3) Variations arise during tissue culture
(4) Variations due to Radiations
3
243
```
Pusa swarnim variety of Brassica is resistant to
.......... disease :
(1) Bacterial blight
(2) Black rot
(3) White rust
(4) Hill bunt
```
3
244
The point mutation A to G, C to T, C to G, T to
A in DNA are :-
(1) transversion, transition, translocation,
frame-shift respectively
(2) transition, transition, transversion,
transversion, respectively
(3) Transition only
(4) transversion only
2
245
The phenomenon in which embryo is directly
developed from any cell of embryosac other than
egg is called:-
(1) Apospory
(2) Apogamy
(3) Diplospory
(4) Parthenogenesis
1 DIPLOID CELL
246
Which of the following statements about meiosis
is false ?
(1) Haploid cells can not divide meiotically
(2) DNA replication does not occur during
interkinesis
(3) Assortment of homologous chromosomes on
the equatorial plate during metaphase-I is
independent
(4) Of the four cells produced by meiosis, none
are genetically identical to the parent cells
but two are identical to each other
4
247
Site for Dark reaction (Calvin cycle) of
photosynthesis is :-
(1) Grana Thylakoids (2) Stroma thylakoids
(3) Stroma (4) Granum
3
248
Male gametophyte with least number of cells is
| present in :PINUS
T
249
```
Which of the following kingdom exhibit
heterotrophic ; holozoic and saprophytic mode of
nutrition only :-
(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi
(4) Animalia
```
4 HOLOZOIC CATCH KILL AND EAT
250
```
In which of the following classification computer
used ?
(1) Phenetic
(2) Natural
(3) Empirical
(4) Artificial
```
1
251
Indian Botanical Garden is situated at :-
| 1) Howrah (India
(2) Lucknow (India)
(3) Pusa (India)
(4) Jodhpur (India)
1
252
,M -TOULOIDINE
TOLUENE NH3
253
Most animals and fungi are examples of chemoheterotrophs, obtaining most of their energy from O2.
T
254
noun, plural: chemoautotrophs. An organism (typically a bacterium or a protozoan) that obtains energy through chemosynthesis rather than by photosynthesis.
T
255
CHARECTRIST OF ALPINE TUNDRA
perma frost
256
bs 6 sulpher content in petrol
10 ppm maximum
257
linkage
les then 50 % new recombinent1
258
carcinoma is a category of types of cancer that develop from epithelial cells. Specifically, a carcinoma is a cancer that begins in a tissue that lines the inner or outer surfaces of the body, and that arises from cells originating in the endodermal, mesodermal or ectodermal germ layer during embryogenesis.
t
259
z species area relation ship
regression cofficient
260
hilSA SARDINE MACREAL POMFREST
MARINE
261
pcl3 equal bond length
t
262
sucrose
a-d glu +b-d-fructose
263
at atmospheric pressure
y w= ys
264
mesosome homologus to
MITOCHRONDIA
265
5 june
environment day\
266
ratio question in genetics
( n =heterozygus in genotype) 2^n
267
sonalika & kalayan sonA variety of
wheat
268
Two particles are oscillating along two close
parallel straight lines side by side, with the same
frequency and amplitudes. They pass each other,
moving in opposite directions when their
displacement is half of the amplitude. The mean
positions of the two particles lie on a straight line
perpendicular to the paths of the two particles.
The phase difference is
```
X=a sinθ
a/2=a sinθ
θ=30°,150°
∴ difference = 150°–30°=120°
=2 \pi /3
```
269
If a capillary is radius r is dipped in water, the
height of water that rises in it is h and its mass is
M. If radius is made four times then mass of
water that will rise in capillary will be
h = 1/r from formula
m = ( density ) ( volume ) ans 4m
den =cons
270
If Δ < P, the correct electronic configuration for
| d system will be :-
not have enough eng for paring or heigh input is required for pairing ( splliting will take place)
271
The carbohydrate with only β-glycosidic linkage
is :-
(1) Lactose (2) Maltose
(3) Amylopectin (4) Sucrose
1
272
In whichclassificationphylogenyisnotconsidered:
(1) Artificial classification
(2) Natural nonphylogenitic
(3) Practical classification
(4) All of these
4
273
Respiratory enzymes are found in bacteria :
(1) In cytoplasm
(2) On cell membrane
(3) In mitochondria
(4) On Ribosome
Mesosomes are folded invaginations in the cell membrane of bacteria. They increase the surface area required for respiration. They contain respiratory enzymes. It is the site of respiratory activity.Nov 22, 2019
274
Which of the following is not a heterosporous
fern ?
(1) Selaginella (2) Azolla
(3) Marsilea (4) Salvinia
3
275
Cymose inflorescence is present in :-
(1) Trifolium (2) Brassica
(3) Solanum (4) Sesbania
3
276
Polyarch and exarch vascular bundles generally
occur in :-
(1) monocot stem (2) monocot root
(3) Dicot stem (4) Dicot root
2
277
0. Sugar found in haemolymph of insects is :-
(1) Maltose
(2) Lactose
(3) Trehalose
(4) Galactose
4
278
```
Glutamate dehydrogenase is an important
enzyme involved in :-
(1) Krebs cycle
(2) Amino acid biosynthesis
(3) Nitrogen fixation
(4) Nitrate reduction
```
2
279
```
RUBP+O2 →Phosphoglycerate +
Phosphoglycolate
It is the first reaction of :-
(1) C pathway
(2) C Pathway
(3) Glycolate cycle
(4) Glyoxylate cycle
```
photorespiration 3
280
```
A–Primary CO acceptor
B–First stable compound
C–Primary fixation of CO
D–Formation of OAA
Choose the correct for A, B, C and D in
C pathway :-
(1) A–RuBP, B–PEP, C–Mesophyll cell,
D–Bundle sheath cell
(2) A–PEP, B–OAA, C–Mesophyll cell,
D–Mesophyll cell
(3) A–PEP, B–OAA, C–Bundle sheath cell,
D–Bundle sheath cell
(4) A–RuBP, B–OAA, C–Mesophyll cell,
D–Bundle sheath cell
```
2
281
After fertilization the inner integument of the
ovule changes into :-
(1) Testa (2) Tegmen
(3) Tigellum (4) Pericarp
2 the delicate inner protective layer of a seed)
| (testa outer protective covering of sead coat
282
```
Which of the following is used for commercial
production of citric acid :
(1) Aspergillus niger
(2) Acetobacter aceti
(3) Clostridium butylicum
(4) Lactobacillus
```
1
283
```
Match of the following column correctly :-
Column-I Column-II
A Wild life protection Act (i) 2015
B Bhopal Gas tragedy (ii) 1980
C Joint forest Managment (iii) 1972
D International year of soil (iv) 1984
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
```
1
284
What external changes are visible after the last
moult of a cockroach nymph :
(1) Labium develops
(2) Anal cerci develop
(3) Mandibles become harder
(4) Both fore wings and hind wings develop
4
285
3. Which of the following is common ancestor of
birds and crocodiles ?
(1) Pelycosaurs (2) Pteranodon
(3) Thecodont (4) Therapsids
3
286
Which is incorrect statement?
(1) Genital herpes if detected in early stage then
is completely curable.
(2) Gonorrhoea if detected in early stage than is
completely curable.
(3) HIV can be transmitted from mother to
foetus during pregnancy
(4) Hepaetitis-B can be transmitted even after
the use of condom.
1
287
neutron
Neutron, neutral subatomic particle that is a constituent of every atomic nucleus except ordinary hydrogen. It has no electric charge and a rest mass equal to 1.67493 × 10−27 kg—marginally greater than that of the proton but nearly 1,839 times greater than that of the electron
288
atom ao atomic mass 5 contain
5 proton 5 neutron 5 elecctron
289
diff bw repeative dna sequence and setallite dna
1. Repetitive DNA are DNA sequences that contain small segments, which are repeated many times. Satellite DNA are DNA sequences that contain highly repetitive DNA.
