paper mistakes Flashcards
if speed become double stopping distance become
4 times
physic internal eng formula
E=Q-W
Q( reaction qusent) when value of q increase
reaction goes in
forword direction
Q>Ksp
system proceed in backword direction to attain eq
Q=Ksp=1 at eq
not correct but Q=Ksp is correct
ionisation eng
O
collagen `
white connective tissue
core of cillia and flagell
axonema
cillia and flagella imerge from centriole like structure
BASALBODY BLEPRO BLAST CE;LL
protein associated with cilia and flagella
tubulin protein
final electron accepter in alcohol dehydrogenase& lactic acid fermentase
acetaldehyde & pyruvic acid
RQ VALUE
CARBS (1) protein 09 fat 07
protoderm ( bermatogen)
give rise to epi dermis
respine is obtained from
rouwolfia vomni toria
styroform
sound proofing
green scum in water bodies is
BGA & algae
sound which a person can hear without any trubble
80 db
1986
ENV P A
1981
AIR P C A
1974
H20 ACT
1987
AIR + NOISE p c a
khaziranga national park
one horn rhyno sorous
What is common to the following plants: Nepenthes, Psilotum, Rauwolfia
and Aconitum?
over exploitation
Thylacine
Australia
Quagga
Africa
cyanodon
indian native grass
countries having heigest bio diversity
south america
bio-geo-chemical cycles which one does not havelosses due to respiration?
Phosphorus
b. Nitrogen
c. Sulphur
d. All of the above
Approximately how much of the solar energy that falls on the leaves of a
plant is converted to chemical energy by photosynthesis?
2-10%
Pyramid of numbers is:
Ether upright or inverted
Productivity is the rate of production of biomass expressed in terms of:
ii. g–2 yr–1
iv. (kcal m–2) yr-1
The process of mineralisation by micro organisms helps in the release
inorganic nutrients from humus
Which one of the following organisms reproduces sexually only once in life time
banana
In 2005, for each of the 14 million people present in a country, 0.028
were born and 0.008 died during the year. Using exponential equation,
the number of people present in 2015 is predicted as:
a. 25 millions
b. 17 millions
c. 20 millions
d. 18 millions
B
Formation of tropical forests needs mean annual temperature and mean annual precipitation as: a. 18 – 25°C and 150 – 400 cm b. 5 – 15°C and 50 – 100 cm c. 30 – 50°C and 100 – 150 cm d. 5 – 15°C and 100 – 200 cm
A
According to Allen’s Rule, the mammals from colder climates have:
a. shorter ears and longer limbs
b. longer ears and shorter limbs
c. longer ears and longer limbs
d. shorter ears and shorter limbs
D
Autecology is the:
a. Relation of heterogenous populations to its environment
b. Relation of an individual to its environment
c. Relation of a community to its environment
d. Relation of a biome to its environment
B
constraint
a limitation or restriction.
In 1953 S. L. Miller created primitive earth conditions in the laboratory
and gave experimental evidence for origin of first form of life from pre-
existing non-living organic molecules. The primitive earth conditions
created include:
a. low temperature, volcanic storms, atmosphere rich in oxygen
b. low temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere
c. high temperature, volcanic storms, non-reducing atmosphere
d. high temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere
containing CH4, NH3 etc.
D
- Which of the following is an example for link species?
a. Lobe fish
b. Dodo bird
c. Sea weed
d. Chimpanzee
D WRT NCERT EXAMPLER A WITH NCERT
Which type of selection explains industrial melanism observed in moth, Biston bitularia: a. Stabilising b. Directional c. Disruptive d. Artificial
B & exampie of natural selection
Fossils are generally found in:
a. Sedimentary rocks
b. Igneous rocks
c. Metamorphic rocks
d. Any type of rock
A SEDIMENTORY ROCK Fossils are usually found in the sedimentary rocks where the layers encase dead animals or plants. They rarely occur in the igneous rocks as the heat of the molten rock usually birns the organic remains. They are also rare in metamorphic rocks as recrystallisation process causes the destruction of fossils.
Body attacks self cells The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from
self cells is lost
for Rheumatoid arthritis?
A group of animals which are related by descent and share many similarities are referred to as: a. breed b. race c. variety d. species
A
Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are varieties of:
WHEAT
Several South Indian states raise 2-3 crops of rice annually. The
agronomic feature that makes this possible is because of
a. shorter rice plant
b. better irrigation facilities
c. early yielding rice variety
d. disease resistant rice variety.
C
The biggest constraint of plant breeding is:
a. availability of desirable gene in the crop and its wild relatives
b. infrastructure
c. trained manpower
d. transfer of genes from unrelated sources.
A
FRESH water fish
RAHU, CATLA & COMMON CARP
SEA fish
HILSA, SARDINE , MACREL ,POMFREST
BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the amount of:
a. total organic matter
b. biodegradable organic matter
c. oxygen evolution
d. oxygen consumption.
D
The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for:
a. killing insects
b. biological control of plant diseases
c. controlling butterfly caterpillars
d. producing antibiotics
B
What would happen if oxygen availability to activated sludge flocs is
reduced?
a. It will slow down the rate of degradation of organic matter
b. The center of flocs will become anoxic, which would cause death
of bacteria and eventually breakage of flocs.
c. Flocs would increase in size as anaerobic bacteria would grow
around flocs.
d. Protozoa would grow in large numbers.
B
Activated sludge should have the ability to settle quickly so that it can:
a. be rapidly pumped back from sedimentation tank to aeration tank
b. absorb pathogenic bacteria present in waste water while sinking
to the bottom of the settling tank
c. be discarded and anaerobically digested
d. absorb colloidal organic matter.
A Activated sludge should have the ability to settle quickly so that it can be rapidly pumped back from sedimentation tank to the aeration tank, where it can start the process of decomposition of the organic matter again. Activated sludge has filamentous bacteria that are capable of performing the aerobic digestion of organic waste is the sewage water.
Hence, the correct answer is ,
The transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another through
the mediation of a viral vector is termed as:
a. Transduction
b. Conjugation
c. Transformation
d. Translation
A
‘Restriction’ in Restriction enzyme refers to:
a. Cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by the enzyme
b. Cutting of DNA at specific position only
c. Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage by the host
bacteria
d. All of the above
C
The most important feature in a plasmid to serve as a vector in gene
cloning experiment is:
a. Origin of replication (ori)
b. Presence of a selectable marker
c. Presence of sites for restriction endonuclease
d. Its size
A
While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the following enzymes is not required? a. Lysozyme b. Ribonuclease c. Deoxyribonuclease d. Protease
C
Which of the following contributed in popularising the PCR (polymerase
chain reactions) technique?
a. Easy availability of DNA template
b. Availability of synthetic primers
c. Availability of cheap deoxyribonucleotides
d. Availability of ‘Thermostable’ DNA polymerase
D
An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of:
a. Competent bacterial cells
b. Transformed bacterial cells
c. Recombinant bacterial cells
d. None of the above
B
recombinent
bacteria contaning plasmid with recombinent dna
Significance of ‘heat shock’ method in bacterial transformation is to
facilitate:
a. Binding of DNA to the cell wall
b. Uptake of DNA through membrane transport proteins
c. Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the bacterial cell wall
d. Expression of antibiotic resistance gene
C
The role of DNA ligase in the construction of a recombinant DNA
molecule is:
a. Formation of phosphodiester bond between two DNA fragments
b. Formation of hydrogen bonds between sticky ends of DNA
fragments
c. Ligation of all purime and pyrimidine bases
d. None of the above
A
Which of the following steps are catalysed by Taq DNA polymerase in a
PCR reaction?
a. Denaturation of template DNA
b. Annealing of primers to template DNA
c. Extension of primer end on the template DNA
d. All of the above
C
Which of the following should be chosen for best yield if one were to
produce a recombinant protein in large amounts?
a. Laboratory flask of largest capacity
b. A stirred-tank bioreactor without in-lets and out-lets
c. A continuous culture system
d. Any of the above
C
Who among the following was awarded the Nobel Prize for the development of PCR technique? a. Herbert Boyer b. Hargovind Khurana c. Kary Mullis d. Arthur Kornberg
C
A probe which is a molecule used to locate homologous sequences in a
mixture of DNA or RNA molecules could be:
a. A ssRNA
b. A ssDNA
c. Either RNA or DNA
d. Can be ssDNA but not ssRNA
C
Pathophysiology is the:
a. Study of physiology of pathogen
b. Study of normal physiology of host
c. Study of altered physiology of host
d. None of the above
C Pathology describes the abnormal or undesired condition, whereas pathophysiology seeks to explain the functional changes that are occurring within an individual due to a disease or pathologic state.
In RNAi, genes are silenced using:
a. ss DNA
b. ds DNA
c. ds RNA
d. ss RNA
C a wide variety of organisms, including animals, plants, and fungi, RNAi is triggered by double-stranded RNA (dsRNA)
transcribes:
contain
Who amongst the following scientists had no contribution in the
development of the double helix model for the structure of DNA?
a. Rosalind Franklin
b. Maurice Wilkins
c. Erwin Chargaff
d. Meselson and Stahl
D
DNA is a polymer of nucleotides which are linked to each other by 3’-5’
phosphodiester bond. To prevent polymerisation of nucleotides, which
of the following modifications would you choose?
a. Replace purine with pyrimidines
b. Remove/Replace 3’ OH group in deoxy ribose
c. Remove/Replace 2’ OH group with some other group in deoxy
ribose
d. Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
B
Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one strand, because:
a. DNA molecule being synthesised is very long
b. DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation only
in one direction (5’ → 3’)
c. it is a more efficient process
d. DNA ligase joins the short stretches of DNA
B
Which of the following statements is correct about the role of regulatory
proteins in transcription in prokaryotes?
a. They only increase expression
b. They only decrease expression
c. They interact with RNA polymerase but do not affect the expression
d. They can act both as activators and as repressors
D
While analysing the DNA of an organism a total number of 5386
nucleotides were found out of which the proportion of different bases
were: Adenine = 29%, Guanine = 17%, Cytosine = 32%, Thymine = 17%.
Considering the Chargaff’s rule it can be concluded that:
a. it is a double stranded circular DNA
b. It is single stranded DNA
c. It is a double stranded linear DNA
d. No conclusion can be drawn
B
In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a DNA is called: a. A-DNA b. B-DNA c. cDNA d. rDNA
C DNA ( COMPLEMENTORY DNA ) MRNA + REVERSE RTANSCRIPTION =C DNA . take place in virus :rdna (recombinent dna ) A-DNA & b dna common form of dna occuring in organism
If Meselson and Stahl’s experiment is continued for four generations in
bacteria, the ratio of N15/N15: N15/N14: N14/N14 containing DNA in the
fourth generation would be:
a. 1:1:0
b. 1:4:0
c. 0:1:3
d. 0:1:7
D
In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by using RNA as template. Such a DNA is called: a. A-DNA b. B-DNA c. cDNA d. rDNA
C DNA ( COMPLEMENTORY DNA ) MRNA + REVERSE RTANSCRIPTION =C DNA . take place in virus :rdna (recombinent dna ) A-DNA & b dna common form of dna occuring in organism AANS WER ( C)
The RNA polymerase holoenzyme transcribes:
a. the promoter, structural gene and the terminator region
b. the promoter and the terminator region
c. the structural gene and the terminator region
d. the structural gene only.
C AND D
If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5'-AUG-3', the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must be: a. 5' - UAC - 3' b. 5' - CAU - 3' c. 5' - AUG - 3' d. 5' - GUA - 3'
B
The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its:
a. 5’ - end
b. 3’ - end
c. Anti codon site
d. DHU loop
B
MMR& IMR FULL FORM
(MATERNAL& INFANT) MORTALITY RATE death of mother and children
The membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation is:
a. Corona radiata
b. Zona radiata
c. Zona pellucida
d. Chorion
A
Mendel’s Law of independent assortment holds good for genes situated on the: a. non-homologous chromosomes b. homologous chromosomes c. extra nuclear genetic element d. same chromosome
A
Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will:
a Cause rapid increase in growth rate
b. Result in decline in growth rate
c. Not cause significant change in growth rate
d. Result in an explosive population
C
Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the:
a. Suppression of gonadotropins
b. Hyper secretion of gonadotropins
c. Suppression of gametic transport
d. Suppression of fertilisation
A
Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the:
a. Suppression of gonadotropins
b. Hyper secretion of gonadotropins
c. Suppression of gametic transport
d. Suppression of fertilisation
A Supress GRH & FSH
A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country in: a. 1950s b. 1960s c. 1980s d. 1990s
A
Choose the incorrect statement from the following:
a. In birds and mammals internal fertilisation takes place
b. Colostrum contains antibodies and nutrients
c. Polyspermy in mammals is prevented by the chemical changes in
the egg surface
d. In the human female implantation occurs almost seven days after
fertilisation
his depolarization prevents the entry of additional sperms. The fertilized ovum enters the uterine cavity 3-4 days later. Implantation occurs almost 7 to 10 days after fertilization and 5 to 6 days after it has entered the uterine cavity. ANSWER C
Identify the correct statement from the following:
a. High levels of estrogen triggers the ovulatory surge.
b. Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give rise to functional ova in
regular cycles from puberty onwards.
c. Sperms released from seminiferous tubules are highly motile.
d. Progesterone level is high during the post ovulatory phase of
menstrual cycle.
B
Mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the ovary of a healthy human female around: a. 5 – 8 day of menstrual cycle b. 11 – 17 day of menstrual cycle c. 18 – 23 day of menstrual cycle d. 24 – 28 day of menstrual cycle
B MORE ACRUATE 11-13
The spermatogonia undergo division to produce sperms by the process
of spermatogenesis. Choose the correct one with reference to above.
a. Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and always undergo meiotic
cell division
b. Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic cell division
c. Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes and undergo
second meiotic division
d. Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids
C
The membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation is:
a. Corona radiata
b. Zona radiata
c. Zona pellucida
d. Chorion
A
Among the terms listed below, those that of are not technically correct
names for a floral whorl are:
i. Androecium
ii. Carpel
iii. Corolla
iv. Sepal
(a) i and iv, (b) iii and iv (c) ii and iv (d) i and ii.
C
Embryo sac is to ovule as _______ is to an anther.
a. Stamen
b. Filament
c. Pollen grain
d. Androecium
C
From the statements given below choose the option that are true for a
typical female gametophyte of a flowering plant:
i. It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity
ii. It is free-nuclear during the development
iii. It is situated inside the integument but outside the nucellus
iv. It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end
(a) i and iv, (b) ii and iii (c) i and ii (d) ii and iv
C
Choose the correct statement from the following:
a. Cleistogamous flowers always exhibit autogamy
b. Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit geitonogamy
c. Cleistogamous flowers exhibit both autogamy and geitonogamy
d. Chasmogamous flowers never exhibit autogamy
A
Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamous flower if:
a. Pollen matures before maturity of ovule
b. Ovules mature before maturity of pollen
c. Both pollen and ovules mature simultaneously
d. Both anther and stigma are of equal lengths.
C
In a fertilised embryo sac, the haploid, diploid and triploid
structures are:
a. Synergid, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus
b. Synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei
c. Antipodal, synergid and primary endosperm nucleus
d. Synergid, polar nuclei and zygote.
A
A few statements with regard to sexual reproduction are given below:
i. Sexual reproduction does not always require two individuals
ii. Sexual reproduction generally involves gametic fusion
iii. Meiosis never occurs during sexual reproduction
iv. External fertilisation is a rule during sexual reproduction
1 & 2 (i) sexual reproduction does not require two individuals because the fusion of two gametes released from the same plant can take place. (iii) meiosis occurs during sexual reproduction when the plant body is haploid or the gametes are diploid to produce the normal body.
The statements given below describe certain features that are observed
in the pistil of flowers.
i. Pistil may produce more than one seed
ii. Each carpel may have more than one ovule
iii. Each carpel has only one ovule
iv. Pistil have only one carpel
Choose the statements that are true from the options below:
(a) i and ii (b) i and iii (c) ii and iv (d) iii and iv
Gynoecium is the female part of the flower, a unit of which is called pistil. A pistil may have one or more than one carpels (monocarpellary, bicarpellary etc). Each carpel may have more than one ovules. ANS A
Which of the following situations correctly describe the similarity between
an angiosperm egg and a human egg?
i. Eggs of both are formed only once in a lifetime
ii. Both the angiosperm egg and human egg are stationary iii. Both the angiosperm egg and human egg are mobile
iv. Syngamy in both results in the formation of zygote
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) ii and iv (b) iv only (c) iii and iv (d) i and iv
ANS B HUMAN HAVE MOTILE GAMETS BUT ANGIOSPERMS DO NOT HAVE MOTILE MALE GAMET
Offspring formed by sexual reproduction exhibit more variation than
those formed by Asexual reproduction because:
a. Sexual reproduction is a lengthy process
b. Gametes of parents have qualitatively different genetic composition
c. Genetic material comes from parents of two different species
d. Greater amount of DNA is involved in sexual reproduction.
B
There is no natural death in single celled organisms like Amoeba and
bacteria because:
a. They cannot reproduce sexually
b. They reproduce by binary fission
c. Parental body is distributed among the offspring
d. They are microscopic
C
Among the terms listed below, those that of are not technically correct names for a floral whorl are: i. Androecium ii. Carpel iii. Corolla iv. Sepal
ANDROECIUM GYNOSIUM CALYX COROLLA
From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the gynoecium. a. Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta b. Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule c. Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum d. Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac
A
While planning for an artificial hybridization programme involving
dioecious plants, which of the following steps would not be relevant:
a. Bagging of female flower
b. Dusting of pollen on stigma
c. Emasculation
d. Collection of pollen
DIOECIOUS PLAND MALE & FEMALE ON DIFFERENT BODDY ( C ANS )
The phenomenon observed in some plants wherein parts of the sexual
apparatus is used for forming embryos without fertilisation is called:
a. Parthenocarpy
b. Apomixis
c. Vegetative propagation
d. Sexual reproduction.
B
sulfide
H2S
- Which of the following ions show higher spin only magnetic moment value?
(i) Ti3+
(ii) Mn2+
(iii) Fe2+
(iv) Co3+
Ans. (ii) and (iii)
Transition elements form binary compounds with halogens. Which of the
following elements will form MF3
type compounds?
(i) Cr
(ii) Co
(iii) Cu
(iv) Ni
Only Co and Cr can form halides like MF3
beyond Mn no metal has a trihalide
except FeX3
, and CoF3
.
fusion means
h2o (s) to h20(l) ^ng= 0
vapourisation
h20(l) to h2o(g) ^ng=1
c (s) +o2(g) =co2 + Y ^h = ?
^H= -Y
sublimation
SOLID TO GAS
^Hf heat of formation
P-R (PRODUCT - REACTANT)
