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Psychology > Paper 1 (advanced info 2022) > Flashcards

Paper 1 (advanced info 2022) Flashcards

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1
Q

Outline Milgram’s experiment

A

Volunteer sample of 40 males
1 actor on shock machine and 1 as authority
Participant had to increase voltage every time instructed by authority
Actor got it wrong purposely

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2
Q

What were the findings of Milgram’s experiment?

A 
65% of people obeyed to 450V
100% of people obeyed to 300V
Run down office 48%
Everyday clothes 20%
Closer to victim 40%
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3
Q

Discuss Milgrams proximity condition

A

The closer you are to the victim the less likely the person was to obey dropped rates to 40%
When the participant was on the phone to the authority it dropped to 21%

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4
Q

Discuss Milgrams uniform condition

A

When not wearing a lab coat the obedience rates dropped to 20%

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5
Q

Discuss Milgrams Location condition

A

When not in the university and in a run down office instead the obedience rates dropped to 48%

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6
Q

Discuss Milgrams presence of allies condition

A

Milgram had a condition where two other teachers were in the room who were actors
The two refused to continue
Obedience rates dropped all the way to 10%

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7
Q

Name one strength of Milgram’s study

Bushman’s study

A 
Power of uniform study
Actor in different uniforms requesting someone for change for a parking ticket 
Police officer 72%
Beggar 52%
Business woman 48%
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8
Q

Name one weakness of Milgrams study

Sample

A

The study lacked a sampled which was representative of the entire population
Self selected sample, only people with a “volunteer personality”
All male

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9
Q

Name one weakness of Milgrams study

Ethical issues

A

Milgrams study deceived the participants, they were unaware they weren’t actually shocking the person
Psychological harm, exposed to an extremely stressful situation many showed signs of extreme distress and pleaded for it to be done
The participants were unable to withdraw and were told that they must go on

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10
Q

What does the agentic state mean as an explanation of obedience?

A

The agent state means that someone doesn’t see that they’re responsible for their actions as they see themselves as doing it on behalf of someone else.

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11
Q

What does legitimacy of authority mean as an explanation of obedience?

A

Everyone has the shared expectation that generally most social situations have a social controlling figure
People obey to this figure not due to personal characteristics but due to badge of authority

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12
Q

What does it mean that obedience is situational?

A

It’s dependant on a persons situational factors for example, they have the presence of allies or legitimacy of authority.

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13
Q

What does it mean that obedience is dispositional?

A

Obedience is dependant on a persons personality for example, they have an authoritarian personality or they’re in the agent state.

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14
Q

What does a high score on the F scale mean?

A

A higher score on the F scale indicated that a person was brought up by this strict parents, they’re more likely to experience authoritarian submission.
A high score on the F scale means you’re more likely to be right wing.

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15
Q

Discuss locus of control as a factor contributing to resistance to social influence

A

When a person has an internal locus of control they’re more likely to resist social influence, this is because they see the things that happen in their life are all due to the consequences of their behaviour.

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16
Q

What does it mean to have an internal locus of control?

A

A person who sees the thing in their life as a result of their own behaviour. More likely to resist
They are active seekers of information and are more achievement orientated. They rely less on others opinions and are natural leaders

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17
Q

What does it mean to have an external locus of control?

A

A person you sees their resulting life as things out of their control.
They tend to be younger and won’t resist social influence.

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18
Q

What is the authoritarian personality?

A

Follows three personality variables
Conventionalism- adherence to conventional norms and values
Authoritarian aggression- aggressive feelings toward people who violate their perceived norms
Authoritarian submission- uncritical submission to legitimate authorities

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19
Q

Outline Milgram’s follow up study with Elms

A

20 obedient and 20 defiant
Each completed two scales, one being California F scale
Asked open ended questions
Findings= Little difference yet there was still higher levels of authoritarianism among obedient ones
Obedient= less close to partners
Obedient= higher authoritarianism

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20
Q

Name a positive of authoritarian personality as a dispositional factor of obedience
(Replication of Milgram’s study)

A

For= Milgrams study was replicated in a simulation where the participant was aware, still showed a correlation between right wing authoritarianism and obeying

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21
Q

Name a criticism of the authoritarian personality as a dispositional factor affecting obedience
(Importance of social context)

A

Milgram’s variations suggest that social context is the primary cause of obedience
Through the proximity, location, uniform conditions Milgram was able to manipulate the obedience rates, showing that obedience is due to situational factors ad not dispositional.

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22
Q

Discuss how social support affects resistance to social influence

A

When a person has the presence of another person who is going against the majority they’re much more likely to resist social influence.
Eg, Milgram’s rebel study 10% conformity
Asch line study presence of ally 5.5% conformity

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23
Q

Describe the case study of Henry Moliason

A

A patient with a head injury which lead to epilepsy
Removed the hippocampus in is brain to evaluate if it would cure his epilepsy
Lost the ability to form new long term memories

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24
Q

What is the capacity, duration and coding of sensory memory?

A 
Capacity= unlimited 
Duration= milliseconds
Coding= sensory dependent
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25
Q

What is the capacity, duration and coding of the short term memory store?

A 
Capacity= 5-9
Duration= 0-30 seconds
Coding= acoustic
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26
Q

What is the capacity, duration and coding of the long term memory store?

A 
Capacity= unlimited 
Duration= 2mins+
Coding= semantic
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27
Q

What is the process of maintenance rehearsal?

A

A memory is repeated over and over again in order for it to move from the short term memory into the long term memory

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28
Q

What is the process of retrieval?

A

Memories in the long term memory store can be brought into the short term memory to be re thought of

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29
Q

How does information go from the sensory memory store to the short term memory store?

A

Attention needs to be focused on the piece of information

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30
Q

Name one positive of the multi-store model of memory

Henry Moliason

A

Henry had his hippocampus removed resulting in the loss of the ability to form new long term memories.
This provides evidence that there are multiple stores of memory

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31
Q

Name one negative of the multi-store model of memory

Multiple types of long term memory

A

The model fails to acknowledge that there are multiple types of long term memory.
Procedural, episodic, semantic.

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32
Q

Name one negative of the multi-store model of memory

Henry Moliason

A

Henry was able to get better at the concentric star test, showing that there are different forms of long term memory and that he was able to form new long term procedural memories. Shows that there are more than one type of long term memory.

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33
Q

What does the Trigram study show?

A

Shows the duration of short term memory

Reads the trigram, counts back and then repeats the trigram

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34
Q

What does Jacob’s digit span show?

A

The capacity of short term memory

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35
Q

What does the school faces study show?

A

Capacity of long term memory

Ex high school students had to pick out their classmates

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36
Q

What does the Badely’s lists study show?

A

Shows how short term memories are encoded
People gave different types of lists, some similar some not, people were able to remember acoustically similar words on the short term scale

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37
Q

What are the stores of the working model of memory?

A

Central executive
Phonological loop- phonological store and articulatory process
Episodic buffer
Visuo-spatial sketchpad- visual cache and inner scribe

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38
Q

What is the role of the central executive?

A

To direct attention to the two slave systems, decides the appropriate information to pay the most attention to

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39
Q

What is the role of the phonological loop?

A

Phonological store- “The inner ear” holds information as a speech based form spoken words enter here directly
Articulatory process- Acts as an inner voice circulating information like a loop. Processes written words

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40
Q

What is the role of the visuo-spatial sketchpad?

A

Visual cache- The storing of visual information

Inner scribe- Stores the arrangement and refers to spatial awareness

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41
Q

What is the role of the episodic buffer?

A

Known as a backup store which looks at both long and short term memories, it considers the ordering of events

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42
Q

Name one positive of the working model of memory

Dual task performance

A

The model explains findings from studies investigating dual task performance
A study had found that people were better at performing one auditory task and one visual task compared to performing two of the same

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43
Q

Name one positive of the working model of memory

KF case study

A

Had a motorbike accident
Suffered brain damage to his short term memory, impairment mainly to verbal information.
Shows that there are separate stores for visual and verbal

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44
Q

Name one limitation of the working model of memory

Central executive

A

The central executive is clearly the most important part of the model, with its role in directing attention.
Yet is the least understood

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45
Q

Outline the smash hit study by Elizabeth Loftus

A

5 groups of 9 students
Saw short clips of a car accident and was asked a series of questions, one critical
“How fast were the cars going when they?”- Smashed, collided, bumped, hit, contacted.

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46
Q

What were the findings of the Loftus smash hit study?

A 
The students said these were the average speeds 
Smashed 40.8
Collided 39.3
Bumped 38.1
Hit 34.0
Contacted 31.8
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47
Q

What was the follow up study to the Loftus smash hit study?

A

Students shown 1min car accident
Asked again about speed
1 week later, 10 questions 1 critical…
“Did you see the broken glass?”

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48
Q

What were the results of the follow up study to the smash hit study?

A

Smashed 16 yes, 34 no
Hit 7 yes, 43 no
Control 6 yes, 44 no.
Shows how the use of the leading question using smashed distorted their memory

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49
Q

What was the response bias explanation?

A

Doesn’t effect how the memory is remembered, it just influences how the person responds.

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50
Q

What was the substitution explanation?

A

Effects how the memory is remembered. The leading question means that they genuinely remember it different.

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51
Q

Name one positive of Loftus and Palmers study

Bugs bunny study

A

People shown and advert for Disney land with Bugs Bunny on it, Bugs Bunny is not a Disney character.
They were prompted questions about the advert
The people recall seeing Bugs Bunny

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52
Q

Name one negative of Loftus and Palmers study

EWT in real life

A

The study lacks mundane realism and ecological validity

Sitting in a classroom doesn’t actually replicate being in the actual stressful situation

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53
Q

Name one negative of Loftus and Palmers study

Individual differences

A

The study ignores individual differences like age
Age is a known factor to affect the way things are remembered.
Studies are shown to suggest that elderly people are more likely to be affected by misleading information

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54
Q

Outline the Weapon Focus Effect study

A

Participants were put into an interview room
They were in two conditions, one with weapon and one with a pen
They heard and argument and a man came into the room holding one of the two things
They had to then identify the man

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55
Q

What were the results of the weapon focus study?

A

Pen= 49% identified the man
Knife= 33% identified the man
Suggests that in high anxiety conditions recall is lowered due to attention being on the weapon and not the person

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56
Q

Outline the Bank robbery study

A

58 real witnesses
Classified as either a victim (high anxiety) or bystander (low anxiety)
The victims were seen to have better recall despite being in the higher anxiety condition

57
Q

How does the inverted ‘U’ theory explain the contradiction between the weapon focus effect and the anxiety effect?

A

Developed by Yerkes and Dodson
The inverted U theory shows that as anxiety increases so does recall, until a peak is reached
At this peak recall is at its best until anxiety continues to rise and recall falls

58
Q

Name one criticism of the weapon focus effect

Surprise effect

A

A study had replicated to a similar situation to the weapon focus study
One with more conditions differing in threat and surprise
Low threat high surprise
Low threat low surprise
High threat high surprise
High threat low surprise
Both high surprise items had the best recall suggesting that it could be due to surprise not anxiety

59
Q

Name one criticism of the weapon focus effect

Own stress

A

One study suggested that peoples recall was a lot better when they were experiencing the stress themselves
For example they would remember who stole their own watch better than remembering who stole someone else’s watch

60
Q

Name on criticism of the weapon focus effect

Individual differences

A

A researcher discussed that there was individual differences between EWT
It was suggested that generally anxious people would have a higher anxiety level as opposed to generally laid back person
Therefore if EWT was reliant on anxiety it would differ from person to person

61
Q

What are the four sections of the cognitive interview?

A

Context reinstatement, need to mentally visualise the scene but not the crime
Report everything, every single detail
Changed perspective, asked to recall from every angle
Reverse order, recall from end to beginning

62
Q

Describe the study investigating interview types

A

Three types of interviews
Cognitive 41.2
Hypnosis 38.0
Standard 29.4

63
Q

Name one negative of the cognitive interview

uneeded sections

A

The whole interview is too long

The two sections context reinstatement and report everything are not necessary

64
Q

Name one negative of the cognitive interview

Time

A

The whole interview is extremely long
And the technique requires time to learn and apply it
The situations it would be used in do not have this sort of time

65
Q

Name one positive of the cognitive interview

recall

A

The recall the interview generated was at 81%, which is a lot higher than the standard interview

66
Q

Name one negative of the cognitive interview

Wrong recall

A

Although the recall generated was higher
It also generated a lot of the information which wasn’t correct
61% of the information wasn’t correct

67
Q

Describe Lorenz’s study of attachment

A 
Lorenz had two groups of gosling eggs 
One was left with its mother 
One was with him 
The found that the first thing that they had seen was the thing that they followed 
Called imprinting 
Long term effect
68
Q

Name one positive of Lorenz’s study

Rubber gloves

A

A replication occurred where chicks were able to be imprinted by rubber gloves
The chicks also wanted to mate with the rubber gloves when reached maturity

69
Q

Name one negative of Lorenz’s study

Reverse

A

Imprinting is able to be reversed after spending time with own species
Therefore it suggests that imprinting is not different to other theories of attachment

70
Q

Describe Harlow’s study of attachment

A

The origins of love study
Young monkeys exposed to two mothers
One warmth and comfort (love)
On wire (food)
Monkeys spent more time with comfort mother and only went to the other mother when hungry
The monkeys grew up to be dysfunctional- couldn’t cuddle children, scared of other monkeys

71
Q

Name one negative of animal studies

not replicable

A

Studies on animals allow research to be conducted which would not be able to be done on humans
However animals and humans differ on many levels due to them not having conscious decisions etc
Therefore the results cannot be generalised to humans

72
Q

Name one negative of Harlow’s study

validity issues

A

The study lacks internal validity
This is because the cloth monkey had a a face which looked like a monkey and the wire monkey had a face which did not look like a monkey

73
Q

Name one negative of Harlow’s study

Ethics

A

Animal guidelines state that when working with animals there must be a minimum amount of discomfort, the number of animals must also be kept at a minimum.
Harlow’s research did not show this and didn’t aim to keep discomfort or numbers at a minimum

74
Q

Outline Ainsworth’s strange situation study

A 
A sample of mothers and babies from 9-18months 
Same room, 8 phases 
Observed how they behaved: 
Separation anxiety 
Stranger anxiety 
Reunion behaviour 
Willingness to explore
75
Q

What were the findings of Ainsworth’s study?

A

From this they came up with three attachment types:
Secure, easily comforted by mother 66%
Insecure avoidant, sad when mother returns and avoids eye contact 22%
Insecure resistant, not comforted by mother 12%

76
Q

What are the characteristics of a secure attachment?

A

66% of the sample
Willingness to explore= used mother as a base and explored
Stranger anxiety= moderate distress towards strangers
Separation anxiety= attempts to regain closeness
Reunion behaviour= pleased to see mother and easily comforted

77
Q

What are the characteristics of an insecure avoidant attachment?

A

22% of the sample
Willingness to explore= prefers playing with objects and explores on own
Stranger anxiety= responds to stranger similarly to mother
Separation anxiety= little response
Reunion behaviour= little response and avoids eye contact

78
Q

What are the characteristics of an insecure resistant attachment?

A

12% of sample
Willingness to explore= not willing even with mother
Stranger anxiety= highly scared and not easily comforted
Separation anxiety= Extremely distressed
Reunion behaviour= Continues to be distressed and is not easily comforted

79
Q

How does each attachment occur?

A

Secure= mother responds quick, sensitively, consistently
Insecure avoidant= mother disengaged, little or no response
Insecure resistant= mother inconsistently responds, sometimes sensitive sometimes not

80
Q

Name one negative of Ainsworth’s research

4th attachment

A

A fourth attachment was found
Called insecure disorganised, the child is confused and apprehensive towards caregiver
Occurs when child is abused

81
Q

Name one positive of Ainsworth’s research

reliability

A

The study had a high inter observer reliability

Both observers agreed

82
Q

Outline the three sections of Bowlby’s theory of maternal deprivation

A

Value of maternal care, infant must experience a warm intimate and continuous relationship
Critical period, 6months- 2.5 years when deprived of mother here then they would have emotional difficulties
Long term consequences, the relationship with mother would have a long term effect in future

83
Q

Name one negative of Bowlby’s maternal deprivation research

Mother’s only

A

The research was only conducted on mothers and their children.
Not all children’s caregivers is their mother, there are also more than one person involved in a child’s care

84
Q

Name one positive of Bowlby’s maternal deprivation research

Harlow

A

Harlow’s research showed evidence to show the long term consequences of maternal deprivation.
The monkeys that he studied were unable to function normally and were not able to form normal relationships with their children in the future.

85
Q

Outline the 44 thieves study

A

A sample of 88 children, interviewed them all

44 were thieves and 44 weren’t, all were from the guidance clinic

86
Q

What were the findings of the 44 thieves study?

A

He deemed 32% of the thieves as affection less psychopaths (a characteristic identified in maternal deprivation)
He found out that 86% of the thieves were deprived of their mothers for at least a week before 5 years old

87
Q

Name the effects of institutionalisation

A 
Privatisation 
Physical underdevelopment 
Intellectual under-functioning 
Disordered attachment 
Poor parenting
88
Q

Discuss Rutter’s Romanian orphans study

A

Longitudinal study looking at orphans placed at 1-2 weeks old
Assessed at 4,6,11 and then 21 years later
Some were adopted before 6 months old
Some were adopted 6-24 months old
Some were adopted between 2-4 years

89
Q

What were the results of the Romanian orphans study?

A

Adopted before 6 months= normal emotional development

Adopted after 6 months= had issues and disinhibited attachment problems with peers

90
Q

What did the Romanian orphans study show?

A

Suggests that long term consequences of maternal deprivation aren’t as serve and long term as Bowlby’s theory suggests.
It’s when children don’t form any attachment were the consequences are the most serve

91
Q

What’s one negative of the Romanian orphans study?

generalisation

A

The study of the Romanian orphans is not one that can be easily generalised to all orphans. This is because the type of care they received was not usual institutionalisation.

92
Q

What’s one positive of the Romanian orphans study?

real life application

A

This study has allowed us to better understand the effects of neglect and how to avoid it. Things like having the correct amount of caregivers is now known. Children as a result are better cared for.

93
Q

Discuss classical conditioning as a theory of attachment

A

This is learning through association
The unconditioned stimulus of the milk gives the unconditioned response of a happy baby. The neutral stimulus of the mother shows no response. Soon the conditioned stimulus becomes the mother giving the baby happiness as it associated the mother with the milk.

94
Q

Discuss operant conditioning as a theory of attachment

A

This is learning through reward
The baby is driven to reduce hunger, the baby has a drive to reduce this feeling. The milk is a primary positive reinforcer and the mother is the secondary positive reinforcer. Therefore attachment occurs

95
Q

Describe the three sections of Bowlby’s mono tropic theory

A

The critical period- there is a critical period fr when attachment needs to occur (0-2.5 years)
Monotropy- there is only one relationship which is most important and key to a childs development
Internal working model- the primary caregiver gives the child an expectation of how all relationships should be

96
Q

Name one positive of Bowlby’s mono tropic research

Lorenz

A

Lorenz’s study of goslings showed evidence for Bowlby’s critical period

97
Q

Name one negative of Bowlby’s mono tropic research

Fathers

A

Bowlby’s research fails to recognise that there is a network of people who care for a baby not just one person.

98
Q

Discuss the importance of early attachment

A

Childhood relationships, they make up our internal working model (how we expect relationships to go)
Parenting style, research suggest that we adopt our parents style of parenting
Romantic relationships, good early relationships= good romantic (could be working model)

99
Q

Name one negative of Bowlby’s mono tropic research

Case study

A

A case study of two twins who were neglected for the majority of their childhood were released.
They were prevent from attaching during Bowlby’s theorised critical period.
Once they were put in better care they were able to attach

100
Q

What are the definitions of abnormality?

A

Statistical infrequency
Deviation from social norms
Failure to function adequately
Deviation from ideal mental health

101
Q

Outline statistical infrequency as a definition of abnormality

A

When someone is more the two standard deviations from the mean they’re seen as abnormal.
Someone not in this range may be considered ill mental health

102
Q

Evaluate statistical infrequency (negatively, desirability)

A

Some statistical infrequencies can be seen as a positive. For example having an IQ higher than in the two standard deviation range can be desirable and is not an indicator of ill mental health.

103
Q

Evaluate statistical infrequency (negatively, cut off)

A

The cut off point as to what is abnormal is subjectively determined. How do we know where is a suitable place to put this cut off free of bias.

104
Q

Outline deviation from social norms as a definition of abnormality

A

Social norms are standard acceptable behaviours in society. When someone doesn’t follow these norms (wearing swimming trunks to work) then it may indicate abnormality.

105
Q

Evaluate deviation from social norms (negatively, cultural relativism)

A

This definition may be dependant on the cultural context, this is because what is normal in one culture may be seen as not the social norms in another. EG, in US it is illegal and not socially acceptable to drink in public places whereas in the UK the rules aren’t as strict

106
Q

Evaluate deviation from social norms (negatively, degree and context)

A

This definition is dependant on the context and the degree of the deviation. It may be that someone is just eccentric and not abnormal.

107
Q

Outline failure to function adequately as a definition of abnormality

A

Not being able to cope with the demands of the environment and can’t function adequately in general life. For example, many depressed individuals are unable to cope with daily tasks like leaving bed to brush teeth or shower.

108
Q

Evaluate failure to function adequately (positive, POV)

A

Unlike two of the other definitions, this one allows the point of view of the patient to be considered. This means that treatment is more patient focused and aims to help them cope with their environment.

109
Q

Evaluate failure to function adequately (negative, functionality)

A

Some behaviours shown in mental illnesses are shown to be overly functional. For example some cases of OCD are shown through hyper organisation which is through extra attention instead of not meeting the demands of the environment.

110
Q

Outline deviation from ideal mental health as a definition of abnormality

A

Looks at mental health in a similar way to physical health. Certain factors are reviewed like self attitudes, personal growth and perception of reality.

111
Q

Evaluate deviation of ideal mental health (negatively, unrealistic)

A

some of the criteria listed in this definition are unrealistic. If a large sample of people were to use the criteria the majority would be seen as abnormal.

112
Q

Evaluate deviation of ideal mental health (negatively, not the same)

A

One negative is that this definition looks at mental health as a physical illness however not all mental health illnesses have physical issues. For example every infection has a physical cause (bacteria) whereas mental illnesses don’t always have the same simple diagnosis process.

113
Q

Outline the behavioural approach to explain phobias

A

Phobias are learnt through classical conditioning and maintained by operant conditioning. Classical= Pavlov’s dogs and operant= skinner’s rats

114
Q

Outline how a phobia is learnt through classical conditioning

A 
Unconditioned stimulus (Bang) - Unconditioned stimulus (fear)
Neutral stimulus (balloons) - No response 
The unconditioned stimulus causes the unconditioned response of fear, when this becomes associated with the neutral stimulus a fear is developed.
115
Q

Outline how a phobia is maintained though operant conditioning

A

The individual is rewarded from avoiding their fear, so therefore every time the person avoids it they’re reinforcing their phobia and feel relief.

116
Q

Evaluate the behavioural approach as an explanation of phobias (negatively, preparedness)

A

Many phobias are explained by evolutionary adaptations, for example many people have the evolutionary adaptation to be scared of spiders this is because in evolutionary times it was an advantage to have this characteristic.

117
Q

Evaluate the behavioural approach as an explanation of phobias (negatively, cognitive factors)

A

The theory is limited to a deterministic view, this is because it doesn’t take into consideration cognitive feelings and thought or other factors too.

118
Q

Evaluate the behavioural approach as an explanation of phobias (positively, recall)

A

Many people who possess a phobia are able to recall an experience linked to when they had that phobia. This is evidence suggesting that phobias are not something you are born with but something that is learnt

119
Q

Outline the little Albert study

A

Researchers were able to use the behavioural models to cause a phobia of furry animals in a baby (little Albert). They did this by having the baby around animals and causing the unconditioned response of fear by making a loud bang.

120
Q

What is systematic desensitisation?

A

The behaviourist approach treating phobias, using a hierarchy of fears. The client is exposed to a small scale fear eg, picture of a spider. They pair this experience with relaxation techniques learnt from therapist. They continue to do tasks getting higher and higher with fear level until they’re fully exposed to the fear eg, letting a spider crawl over hand.

121
Q

Evaluate systematic desensitisation (negative, flooding)

A

Research has shown that flooding therapy has also shown good results. Flooding= the client learns relaxation techniques before being exposed to their fear. This technique takes less time and commitment compared to systematic desensitisation.

122
Q

Evaluate systematic desensitisation (positive, attrition)

A

Systematic desensitisation has shown to have lower attrition rates than flooding therapy. This is because the stress gradually increases instead of having one event where the individual feels unprepared and has an extremely high stress level.

123
Q

Evaluate systematic desensitisation (positive, expense)

A

This technique does not require specialist equipment or training. This makes it a cheaper option comparing to those which may require equipment and training. This would make it more favourable and accessible to other people.

124
Q

Outline the biological approach to explain OCD

A

This approach suggests that OCD is caused by faulty genes inherited from parents.
COMT, SERT and a stress- diathesis relationship

125
Q

Explain what is meant by a faulty COMT gene

A

The COMT gene controls the secretion of dopamine, this neurotransmitter is excitatory and controls motivation and confidence. Having a hyperactive COMT gene means that a person may show symptoms of OCD due to losing touch of reality and psychosis. Obsessions begin to feel real.

126
Q

Explain what is meant by a faulty SERT gene

A

The SERT gene controls the secretion of serotonin, this neurotransmitter in inhibitory and controls the feeling of calm and balance. Having an under active SERT gene means that you’re likely to have a higher stress level. This causes the anxiety of the OCD cycle.

127
Q

Explain what is meant by a diathesis stress relationship

A

Someone is born with a genetic predisposition where they’re vulnerable to developing OCD. They can live the majority of their life without OCD showing, however once a stressful life event occurs they develop OCD.

128
Q

Evaluate the biological approach to explain OCD (positive, twin studies)

A

Monozygotic twins have shown to both have OCD instead of only one, compared to dizygotic who had lower concordance rates. This suggests that OCD is in fact a result of genetics as they share 100% pf their DNA.

129
Q

Evaluate the biological approach to explain OCD (negative, concordance)

A

One issue with relying on twin studies is that concordance rates can never be 100 percent, therefore there is still possibility that there may be other factors causing OCD.

130
Q

Evaluate the biological approach to explain OCD (negative, an alternative explanation)

A

An alternative explanation to the biological approach is the behaviourist approach. The two process model and ERP treatment can be used.

131
Q

Evaluate the biological approach to explain OCD (positive, animal)

A

Animal studies have investigated what the effects of a higher dopamine level would cause. Animals were given high doses of dopamine and as a result the animals showed OCD like behaviours.

132
Q

Outline the biological approach to treating OCD

A

Drug therapy through use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and tricyclics and benzodiazepines.

133
Q

How do SSRI’s work?

A

They block the vesicle preventing serotonin from being took back into the neurone. Reduces underwhelming anxiety.

134
Q

How to tricyclics work?

A

They block the vesicle preventing adrenaline and noradrenaline from being reuptook into the neurone.

135
Q

How do benzodiazepines work?

A

They aim to maximise the natural GABA effect, benzodiazepines bind to GABA receptors on the post synaptic neurone. Once GABA vesicles are stimulated by an impulse the neurotransmitter is released and a flow of chloride ions is released causing calmness.

136
Q

Evaluate drug therapies (positive, placebo)

A

The drug testing involved being tested against a placebo group. The drug therapies were shown to have good effectiveness.

137
Q

Evaluate drug therapies (negative, short term)

A

It is not a cure for OCD, it only removes the symptoms. Therefore they may benefit better from behavioural therapy.

138
Q

Evaluate drug therapy (positively, ease)

A

Drug therapy is easy to do and doesn’t not require any discipline or motivation to do.

139
Q

Evaluate drug therapy (negatively, addiction)

A

Specifically benzodiazepines are extremely addictive

Psychology (7 decks)

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