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GI Boards > Panctreaticobiliary and Liver > Flashcards

Panctreaticobiliary and Liver Flashcards

1
Q

What cyst is this and how to treat?

A

Type I.

Resection with Whipple.

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2
Q

Mutation in JAG1 and NOTCH?

A

Alagille syndrome

Lack of bile ducts. Cholestatic jaundice.

Triangular face

Butterfly vertebrae

Heart murmur

20-30% liver transplant

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3
Q

Mutation f Alagille syndrome?

A

AD

JAG1 and NOTCH

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4
Q

Liver histo with concentric periportal fibrosis

A

PSC

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5
Q

Liver histo with rosettes, lymphocytes, plasma cells, interface hepatitis

A

AIH

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6
Q

Liver histo with PAS positive, diastase resistent granules

A

A1AT

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7
Q

Defect of ATP7B

A

Wilsons Disease

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8
Q

Wilsons gene defect?

A

ATP7B

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9
Q

Defect ATP8B1

A

progressive familial intrahepatic cholestasis

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10
Q

Liver bx with mixed portal tract inflammation with portal venule endothelialitis

A

Acute cellular rejection

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11
Q

Acute cellular rejection liver bx results

A

mixed portal tract inflammation with portal venule endothelialitis

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12
Q

hereditary pancreatitis in an autosomal dominant pattern due to premature activation of trypsin

A

PRSS1

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13
Q

nherited in an autosomal recessive pattern and causes pancreatitis through lowering the levels of trypsin inhibitor

A

SPINK1

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14
Q

failure of alkalization of the acinar cells with resulting retention of zymogens in the pancreatic duct and digestion of pancreatic tissue

A

CFTR

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15
Q

Which choledococele requires endoscopic sphincterotomy?

What other abnormality is assoiciated with and what should you recommend in these patients?

A

Type III

APBJ

Needs cholecystectomy

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16
Q

Which choledococyst has high malignancy potential?

A

I and IV

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17
Q

FAP patient with hx colectomy presenting witha cute pancreatitis?

A

Think NSAID sulindac

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18
Q

Seizures and bipolar with acute pancreatitis?

A

Think valproic acid

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19
Q

Bilateral gynecomastea and acute pancreatitis?

A

Think marijuana

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20
Q

What skin lesion is found in glucagonoma?

A

Necrolytic migratory erythema

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21
Q

Pt with obstruction, what is this a sign of?

A

Annular pancreas

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22
Q

What liver injury does valproic acid cause on histology?

What other things cause this pattern?

A

Microvescicular steatosis of liver

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy

Tetracycline

MTX

Amiodarone

Tamoxifen

Reyes syndrome

Mitichondrial disorders

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23
Q

Chronic diarrhea with IDA and recurrent pancreatitis?

Why cause this?

A

Celiac disease

Papillary outflow obstruction

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24
Q

What size important to remember sporatic ampullary adenoma treatment?

A

<2-3cm and no lymph node involement can resect endoscopically

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25
Q

When not to use LR for pancreatitis?

A

Hypercalciumeia pancreatitis

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26
Q

Indication to perform ERCP in gallstone pancreatitis?

A

Cholangitis

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27
Q

When is SOD manometry abnormal pressure?

A

>40 mmHg

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28
Q

If patient has divism and recurrent pancreatitis what should you do?

A

ERCP and minor papillotomy

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29
Q

Which pancreatic cystic neoplasm presents in woman aged 20-30? Worried for malignancy?

A

Solid pseudopapillary neoplasm

Moderate to high malignancy potential range

Bloody fluid with cytology showing finger-like projections (pseudopapillae)

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30
Q

Pancreatic cyst with aspiration showing elevated CEA and amylase?

3 risk factors for resection?

A

IPMN

>3, dilated PD, nodule/solid components

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31
Q

What type of cells of pancreatic cyst are cuboidal?

A

Serous cystadenoma

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32
Q

What type of cells from pancretic cyst and culumnar?

A

IPMN

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33
Q

Cyst in female with low CEA and low amalyse?

Management?

A

Serous cystadenoma

No surveilance needed!

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34
Q

Difference in IPMN vs mucinous cystadenoma?

A

IPMN males+femals, MCA females only

IPMN more likely head

MCA more likely body/tail

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35
Q

Difference between AIP type I and type II?

Cell type differences?

Which one is associated with IgG4 elevation?

Which one associated with IBD?

A

Type I IgG4

Type I Lymphocytoplastic

Type II granulocytic and epithelial

IBD with type II

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36
Q

Why do celiac patients have chronic pancreatitis?

A

Effacement of duodenal cells leads to loss of CCK and secretic which stimulate enzyme secretion and production

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37
Q

Unresectable pancreatic mass with biliary obstuction?

A

EUS hepaticogastrostomy vs SEMS if >3 months to live

If <3 months, plastic is okay

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38
Q

Malignent gastroduodenal obstruction?

>6 months?

< 6 months?

A

>6 months, GJ

< 6 months, enteral stent

Biliary decompression first if hepatic obstruction present

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39
Q

What kind of gallstone?

Sickle cell, HHS

A

Black pigment (bilirubin)

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40
Q

What kind of gallstone?

Cirrhosis

A

Black pigment (bilirubin)

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41
Q

What kind of gallstone?

Recurrent pyogenic cholangitis

A

Brown pigment stones

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42
Q

What kind of gallstone?

TPN

A

Cholesterol

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43
Q

What kind of gallstone?

Pregnent, OCP, female?

A

Cholesterol

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44
Q

What kind of gallstone?

Neufibromatosis -

diarrhea, diabetes, biliary dyskenesia

A

Somatostatinoma with cholesterol stone

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45
Q

What helps cholestatsis in cystic fibrosis?

A

UDCA

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46
Q

What kind of gallstone?

Ceftriaxone

A

Crystal calcium ceftriaxone stones

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47
Q

Secretory diarrhea, dermatitis (necrolytic migratory erythema), diabetes

A

glucagonoma

Dx: glucagon >500

Tx: local surgical resection

mets octreotide

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48
Q

Mass in tail of pancreas with watery diarrhea with hypokalemia and hypochloremia?

A

VIPoma

>75

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49
Q

MCC mets to pancreas (2)?

A

RCC and melenoma

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50
Q

Stool gap and meaning

290 - 2(Na+K)

A

<50 secretory

>50 osmotic

(carb mal, laxatives)

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51
Q

How to differentiate hypoglyemia from insulinoma vs insulin administration?

What syndrome is it related to?

A

C-peptide is HIGH with insulinoma

MEN1 (AD; chrome 11 melin)

Hyperprolactonemia (gynecomastia), Hyperparathyroidism (elevated calcium),

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52
Q

What is related to von Hippel Lindau?

A

AD

PNETs

Pheos

Hemangioblastomas

RCC

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53
Q

What is related to Nuerofibromatosis 1?

A

Somatostatinoma (mild diabetes mellitus, steatorrhoea and gallstones, and achlorhydria, basic stomach contents)

Pheos

Cafe au lait

Neurofibromas

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54
Q

What is related to tuberous sclerosis?

A

Insulinoma

Angiolipoma

Renal cysts

Rhabdomyoma

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55
Q

Classic XR finding with annular pancreas?

A

“Double bubble” with dilation of duodenum and stomach

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56
Q

WHen would Peustow procedure be benificial for chronic pancreatitis patient?

A

If PD duct is dilated >6mm

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57
Q

Liver graft failure in patients with HCV not controlled?

A

Fibrosing cholestatic hepatitis

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58
Q

RUQ pneumatosis think…

A

Enphesematous cholecystitis

Tx: Abx and perc chole (same as acalculous cholecystitis)

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59
Q

Asian woman with round nodules in gallbadder and cholecysttis

A

Xanthogranulomatous cholecytits

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60
Q

All patients with porcelain gallbladder get what

A

Cholecystectomy

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61
Q

What is next step in transect bile duct?

A

Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram then surgical or endoscopic HJ

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62
Q

Difference between PSC and HIV cholangiopathy on MRCP?

A

AIDS cholangiopathy has ampullary stenosis

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63
Q

Air with pain in retroperitoneal space?

A

Duodenal perforation (can be from ERCP)

Tx: often can be treated conservatively

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64
Q

What injury is common when “shortening the scope” on ERCP?

A

Lateral wall perforation which needs to be treated surgically

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65
Q

Patient crashing with hypotension and hypoxia during ERCP?

A

Air embolism

Put in Trendelenburg and call emergency team

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66
Q

Oily skin lesions + weight loss + pantreatitis

A

Acinar cell carcinoma of pancreas

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67
Q

ALT:LDH level is what important number?

A

<1.5 is more likely shock or DILI

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68
Q

Giant hemangioma is associated with what?

A

DIC

Kasabach-Merritt syndrome

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69
Q

What is Kasaback Merritt syndrome?

A

DIC and giant hemangioma

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70
Q

Young women with fever, elevated LFTs and RUQ pain with normal US? Think of…

A

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis and Chlamydia PID infection

  • get pelvic US and IV ceftriaxone
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71
Q

Injury zone in Budd-Chiari?

A

Zone 3 portal lobules

Compensatory caudate lobe hypertrophy because of accessory hepatic vein drainage directly into IVC

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72
Q

Acute ascites and abdominal pain in pregnent woman?

A

Think Budd-Chiari

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73
Q

Diagnosis for Pa02 and A-a gradient in HPS?

and what level precludes transplant?

What about contrast TTE results?

What about TcMaa level?

an what level precludes transplant?

A

Pa02 <70 or Aa gradient >20

No transplant <50

Contrast in cardiac cycle >3 = intrapulm shunt

<3 = intracardiac shunt

TcMAA >5% = intrapulm shunt

>40% precludes transplant

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74
Q

What is routine screen on pregnent patient with cirrhosis?

What size for surgery?

What else should you screen for?

A

Doppler US to look for splenic artery aneurysm

>2cm

Varices

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75
Q

What type of delivery is best for cirrhotic patient with varices?

A

Vaginal

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76
Q

2 risks for HCV vertical transmission?

A

Fetal scalp monitoring

Prolonged laboring (membrane rupture)

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77
Q

Can you breastfeed in HepC? What about HepB?

A

Yes to both

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78
Q

Best HepB for pregnancy treatment?

A

tenofovir

Give if >200,000 at 28 weeks

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79
Q

What HBV genotype responds best to PEG and which one worst?

A

A best (african american)

D is worst (eastern european and asian)

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80
Q

Which HBV genotype has worst prognosis?

A

C

B is better, C is crummy in Asians

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81
Q

What test is validated to detect subacute encephalopathy?

A

Number connection test >30 is +

82
Q

What does Rifaximin due for encephalopathy?

A

Reduce hospital admissions

83
Q

Who can you not give PEG interferon to?

A

cirrhotics

84
Q

Genetic defect in Wilsons?

Classic lab finding in LFTs?

A

ATP 7B on chrome 13

ALP <40

85
Q

Wilsons diagnosis?

Treatment

A

Ceroloplasim <20

24 hr collection >100

Hepatic concentration >250 mcg/g

Tx: Trientine or penicillamine. Take Zinc. Liver transplant cures. Neuropsych symptoms persist. Check well water copper level

86
Q

How to diagnose portopulmoary pressure?

When cannot do transplant?

A

RHC showing PA pressure >25

>50

87
Q

Independent markers of varices presence?

A

Portal vein diameter >13

Plt <88

Elevated INR

Splenomegaly

88
Q

What disease rpesents with increased wedge and free pressure?

A

RHF

89
Q

Liver bx with phospholipd layden lysomal lamellar bodies

A

Amiodarine

90
Q

What abx has AIH type pattern?

A

Nitrofurantoin

91
Q

Which NSAID causes liver failure?

A

Diclofenac

92
Q

Other drugs with AIH injury?

A

Diclofenac

Nitrofuretin

Minocycline

Phenytoin

PPU

93
Q
A
94
Q

What can anabolic steroids and AIDS cause?

A

Peliosis - multiple blood filled cystic spaces throughout the liver

Elevated ALP/GGT but bilirubin normal

AIDS Bartonella infection (tx erythromycin 2g daily)

95
Q

Lipid-filled stellate cells

A

VitA toxicity

96
Q

What does phlebotomy NOT help with hemochromatosis?

A
97
Q

Two side main side effects of Riboviron?

A

Hemolytic anemia and rash

98
Q

Difference between fibrolamellar HCC and FNH?

A

Both have central scar

Calicifications with HCC

C in HCC

99
Q

ALT above what in pancreatitis is suggestive of gallstone panc?

A

150

100
Q

Complications of PBC?

A

Osteoporosis

HLD

Hypothyroidism

Nodular regeneative hyperplasia causing elevated portal pressures (screen for varices if platelets are dropping)

101
Q

Wilsons fact: what can happen after starting treatment?

A

Nuero symptoms and liver tests may initially worsen and improve after 6 months

Screen first degree relatives

102
Q

What are some signs of GOOD prognosis in acute liver failure?

A

Hypophosphetemia

Elevated FV Leiden

Elevated AFP

103
Q

Persistent unexplained hypotension in acute liver failure?

A

Think adrenal insufficiency

104
Q

ICP goal in acute liver failure?

A

<20

105
Q

Fibrous-obliteation of the bile duct with concentric connective tissue replacement

A

PSC

106
Q

New diagnosis of PCS what lab test should be checked?

A

IgG4 to rul eout IgG4 associated cholangitis

BECAUSE IT RESPONDS TO STEROIDS

107
Q

Liver parasite association:

Sheepherder

A

Fascioliasis

Echinococcosis

108
Q

Liver parasite association:

Strong male predominance

A

Amebiasis

109
Q

Liver parasite association:

Serum sickness

A

Schistisimiasis

110
Q

Liver parasite association:

Solitary lesion in R lobe

A

Echinococcosis

Amebiasis

111
Q

Liver parasite association:

Transverse myelitits

A

Schistosomiasis

112
Q

Liver parasite association:

Epilepsy

A

Scistosomiasis

113
Q

Liver parasite association:

Undercooked fish

A

Clonorchiasis

114
Q

Liver parasite association:

Gallstones and biliary ductal fibrosis

A

Clonorchiasis

115
Q

Liver parasite association:

Tortuous tracts on CT

A

Fasciolisasis

116
Q

Coffee protects you from what?

A

HCC, elevated AST/ALT and cirrhosis

117
Q

Dude eats mushroom and goes into liver failure.

Whats the treatment?

A

Amanita

PCN G and silymarin (milk thistle extract)

118
Q

Vitamins:

Problems balancing while ambulating

A

Vitamin E

119
Q

Vitamins:

Night blindness

A

Vitamin A

120
Q

Vitamins:

Persistent bleeding after polypectomy

A

VitK deficiency

121
Q

How are AMA+/AIH and AMA negative PBC/AIH (autoimmune cholangiopathy) treated differently?

A

Add UDCA to AMA NEGATIVE PBC

122
Q

AD polycystic kidney disease has what colonic complication?

A

Diverticulitis

123
Q

MCC skin cancer after liver transplant?

A

SCC

(normally it BCC in normal people)

124
Q

Three causes of high SAAG high protein?

A

Budd-Chiari

Hypothyroidism (myedema)

Cardiac

125
Q

Low AlkPhos + Macrocytosis + Early graying

A

Pernicious anemia

(anti-paritial cell antibody)

126
Q

Crohn’s and dry skin rash with low alk phos

A

Zinc deficiency

127
Q

Subcapsular liver lesion in female?

A

Hepatic adenoma

Resect if over 5cm or if symptomatic or if going to get pregnent

128
Q

3 liver things with pregnancy that are normal?

A

Small varices

Palmar erythema/spider angioma

Elevated ALP (from placenta)

129
Q

Can draw on skin + flushing with ETOH

A

mastocytosis

130
Q

Which Wilsons treatment is less tolerable but more potent?

A

D-Penicillimase

Can get early severe hypersensitivity reaction

131
Q

Nutmeg liver

A

Congestive hepatopathy or Budd-Chiari

132
Q

Ground glass hepatocytes

A

HepB infection

133
Q

How to tell primary hemochromatosis vs iron overload on liver biopsy?

A

HHE: iron in hepatocytes

Secondary: iron in Kupffer cells (eating up the iron)

134
Q

Cirrhosis with new TR and Loud P2 click

What pressures can you trasnplant?

A

think porto-pulmonary hypertension

Dx >25 with wedge <15

transplant between 25-35mmHg; def not >50

135
Q

Blood risk of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?

How to treat?

A

Vit K deficiency from steatorrhea from cholestasis

Tx: UDCA

136
Q

Why does acute fatty liver in preganncy occur?

A

Fetus homozygoud for LCHAD mutation and mother is heterozygous and can’t break down long chain fatty acids

(intramitochondrial fatty acid oxidation)

MONITER fetus for hypoglycemia

137
Q

When should you surgically remove echinococcosis cyst?

A

10cm

138
Q

Risky 6-MMP level for risk of hepatotoxicity

A

5700

139
Q

Heterogenous pancreatic mass:

Tail and body of young 30s Asian or AA woman?

A

Solid and Papillary Epithelial Neoplasm

Resect

140
Q

Pancreatic cyst:

Central fibrotic scar

A

Serous cystadenoma

141
Q

Pancreatic cyst:

Middle aged woman:

Ovarian-like stroma w/estrogen and progesterone receptors

A

Biliary cystadenoma

Tx: Surgical resection

142
Q

What cell is glucagonoma released?

A

alpha-2 cells

143
Q

Gallbladder get vascular supply from what two vessels?

A

R hepatic artery

GDA collaterals

144
Q

LDL uptake is stimulate by what two things?

A

Cholesterol diet

Estrogen

145
Q

4 drugs that increase cholesterol gallstone risk?

A

Clofibrate

Ceftriaxone

Octreotide

Estrogen

146
Q

What type of gallstone common in Crohn’s?

A

Black pigment stone

(calcium bilirubinate)

147
Q

Which PFIC has elevated GGT?

A

PFIC type III

ABC B4

148
Q

Defect ATP 7B?

A

Wilsons

149
Q

Defect in ATP8 B1?

A

PFIC I

150
Q

Defect in ACB11?

A

Type II PFIC

151
Q

Fatty liver gene defect?

A

PNPLA3

152
Q

Difference between Crigler-Najjar type I and II and how are they treated?

A

I: complete - liver transplant

II: partial - phenobarbitol

153
Q

Liver biopsy with lipid laden macrophages?

A

Gauchers disease

Increased HCC risk, cirrhosis rare

Hepatomegaly with bone pain and fractures

154
Q

Why is iron overload in HH?

A

Defect in hepcidin (which is low)

Normal if mutation is in ferroportin gene

155
Q

Severe SOS post BMT?

A

Defibrotide

156
Q

What kind of gallstone after ileum resection but colon intact?

How to treat?

A

Calcium oxylate stone

Decrease fat and increase calcium

157
Q

One drug to treat bulemia?

A

Fluoxetine

158
Q

Drug for binge eating disorder?

A

Vyanse amphetamine

159
Q

Chylous ascites and primary lymphangiectasa are treated the same, how?

A

Low fat high protein diet

Medium chain fatty acids

160
Q

Juvinille polyposis syndrome mutation?

Associated with what?

A

SMAD4

Hemorrhagic telectangias

161
Q

Dermatomyositis (weakness) + agancathiosis nigrans + mirgratory thrombophlebitis = what sign of?

A

Gastric cancer

162
Q

Peuta Jager surveilance?

A

Annual Pap, Breast, Pelvic US

MRCP/EUS q 2 years at 35

Colon EGD SB imaging q 3 years

163
Q

Lynch surveilance

A

Screen annually at 20-25 yo

Endometrial anual screen @30

EGD @ 30

Urinalysis @ 30

164
Q

FAP surveilance

A

APC mutation as infant: HCC screen til 5 years old hemangioblastoma

Sigmoid at 10

Side Viewing @ 30

165
Q

What is Croflelener used for?

A

Diarrhea in HIV patients

166
Q

Mechanism of bile acid diarrhea?

A

Decreased fibroblast growth factor 19 (FGF19) secretion by terminal ileum enterocytes can lead to dysfunctional feedback inhibition of CYP7A1, the rate limiting enzyme in bile acid synthesis in the liver. The result is an expanded bile acid pool that allows increased amounts of bile acids to reach the colon.

167
Q

Which bacteria chronic carrier in gallbladder increases risk of cancer?

A

Salmonella typhi

Abx don’t work.

168
Q

Adiponectin levels low?

A

Low levels of circulating adiponectin, accompanied by insulin resistance, characterize metabolic syndrome and non-alco - holic fatty liver disease

169
Q

Tell me about hepcidin?

A

Secreted by liver to downregulare intestinal iron absorption

Defective in HH (low blood levels)

170
Q

Tell me about Adiponutrin (PNPLA3)?

A

Associated with increaed liver fat deposit

171
Q

Tell me about bone morphogenetic protein 1?

A

up-regulation of hepatic hepcidin production and control of intestinal iron absorption. Hemojuvelin is a hepatic co-receptor for this peptide.

172
Q

Tell me about Ferroportin?

A

Transporter in intestine to uptake iron. Downregulated by hepcidin.

173
Q

Target of AMA?

A

lipoic acid moiety of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex in bile ductular epithelial cells

174
Q

Taget of AMLK?

A

hepatic cyto-chrome P450 2E6

175
Q

Who are candidate for early TIPS?

A

Candidates for early (preemptive) TIPS are patients with variceal hemorrhage who are Child C (score 10-13) or Child B (score 7-9) with active hemorrhage at endoscopy.

176
Q

What medications should be avoided for constipation in pregnancy?

A

Mineral oil and castor oil

(also avoid in elderly patients with aspiration)

177
Q

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy mechanism?

A

The G1528C and E474Q mutations of the mitochondrial trifunctional protein (MTP) are the cause of deficiency in long chain 3-hydroxyacylCoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD), which is the most investigated fetal fatty acid oxidation defect that causes acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP).

178
Q

Patients require a colon in continuity to develop calcium oxalate kidney stones as a consequence of fat malabsorption.

A

ie IC resection

179
Q

Anorexia nervosa stomach motility does what?

A

Decreases

180
Q

Leptin in obesity?

A

Obesity thought to be leptin resistant state

181
Q

When are obesity medications indicated?

A

Anti-obesity medications are appropriate for patients with BMI greater than or equals 27 kg/ m2 with obesity related complications, or BMI greater than or equal to 30 kg/m2

182
Q

When is surgical weight loss indicated?

A

Surgical weight loss treatment is appropriate for patients with BMI greater than or equal to 35 kg/ m2 with obesity related complications or BMI greater than or equal to 40 kg/m2

183
Q

When can you initiate anti-TNF therapy with latent TB?

A

Prefer to wai ttill after but emergently can use after 4 weeks

184
Q

What two mutations do SSA have?

A

BRAF mutations and CpG island methylation.

185
Q

Fundic gland polyps malignancy potential?

A

NONE EVEN WITH LOW GRADE DYSPLASIA

Common in FAP

186
Q

How can inappropriately stored food increase risk of HCC?

A

Aflatoxin B1 is a fungal toxin produced by certain Aspergillus species.

187
Q

Cyclical vomting syndrome for children <5 and >5 years old?

A

<5: cyproheptadine

>5: amitryptalene

188
Q

Antiretroviral HBV therapy in ALF?

A

Does not change mortality outcome, this patient needs a liver transplant

189
Q

Copper urine goal of WIlson with or without Zinc?

A

Urine copper: 200-500

WTH ZINC: 75

190
Q

What GI lesions do Cowdens disease produce?

A

hamartomas and ganglioneuromas

Also increase in breast cancer, thyroid cancer, endometrial cancer, renal cellcancer and melanoma

Non-malignant features of Cowden’s syndrome include glycogenic acanthosis of the esophagus (as in the endoscopy picture above), as well as macrocephaly and skin lesions called trichilemmomas.

191
Q

Pancreatic cyst with columnar epithelium surrounded by ovarian-type stroma

A

Mucinous cystic neoplasms

Once removed, no surveilance needed.

Surveilance is needed for IPMN

192
Q

Gastric hamartomas in JPS?

Mutation?

How different from Cronkhite-Canada syndrome?

A

glandular dilation with an inflammatory infiltrate

BMPR1A and SMAD4

Also at risk for hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasias

Cronkhite-Canada syndromehas hair loss and nail growth problems and is non-heriditary “Walter Kronkite had bad hair and brittle nails”

193
Q

What features of malignent polyp require surgery?

A

High risk features

a polyp with cancer invading through the muscularis mucosa and into the submucosa. Unfavorable histologic features of malignant polyps include: poorly differentiated, presence of angiolymphatic invasion and/or positive margin of resection (defined as tumor less than one to two mm from the transected margin or tumor cells present at the margin).

194
Q

What type of polyps in the stomach do have increase risk of malignancy compared to fundic gland polyps?

A

Hyperplastic

>1 cm and pedunculated have higher risks

Endoscopic removal

Adneomas in stomach should also be removed and follow p should occur in 1 year

195
Q

Eliquis (abixiban) holding for CCl

>60

>30

<30

A

1-2 days

3 days

4 days

196
Q

Timing of holding Xerelto (rivaroxiban) CCl

>90

>60

>30

<30

A

1

2

3

4

197
Q

Numbness and ataxia think of what dificiency?

A

Zinc

198
Q

What defieincy causes neutrapenia?

A

Copper

199
Q

Liraglutinide contraindications?

A

GLP-1

personal or family history of medullary thyroid carcinoma or MENII

Pancreatitis risk

200
Q

Lorcaserin (Belvique) contraindications?

A

Valolopathy

Attension or memory distrubance

201
Q

Phentiramine/ topiramate can cause what side effect?

A

Kidney stones

202
Q
A

GI Boards (4 decks)

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