PALS Flashcards

1
Q

In specific settings, when treating pediatric patients with febrile illnesses, the use of restrictive volumes of isotonic crystalloid leads to improved survival T/F

A

True

administration of IV fluid for children with septic shock

There is evidence that excessive fluid boluses given to febrile patients with shock can lead to complications, especially if there is no ICU unit ( mechanical vent,inotropic support)

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2
Q

There is no evidence to support the routine use of atropine as a premedication to prevent bradycardia in emergency pediatric intubations. T/F

A

TRUE, is controversial

It may be considered in situations where there is an increased risk of bradycardia.

There is no evidence to support a minimum dose of atropine when used as a premedication for emergency intubation.

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3
Q

If invasive hemodynamic monitoring is in place at the time of a cardiac arrest in a child, it is NOT reasonable to use it to guide CPR quality. T/F

A

False, it is reasonable!

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4
Q

Which is the recommended vasopressor in pediatric cardiac arrest?

A

Epi

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5
Q

In children with cardiac diagnoses and in-hospital arrest what do you consider?

A

If available, extracorporeal CPR

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6
Q

What is Extracorporeal cardiopulmonary resuscitation ?

A

method of cardiopulmonary resuscitation that passes the patient’s blood through a machine in a process to oxygenate the blood supply. A portable extracorporeal membrane oxygenation device is used as an adjunct to standard CPR

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7
Q

How is the management of fever in a comatose patient after cardiac arrest?

A

temperature should be monitored continuously and fever should be treated aggressively.

For comatose children resuscitated from OHCA,- maintain either 5 days of normothermia (36°C to 37.5°C) or 2 days of initial continuous hypothermia (32°C to 34°C) followed by 3 days of normothermia.

For children remaining comatose after IHCA, there are insufficient data to recommend hypothermia over normothermia.

IHCA- in hospital cardiac arrest

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8
Q

What do you do after return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) after cardiac arrest, in terms of fluids/inotropes ?

A

fluids and inotropes/vasopressors should be used to maintain a systolic blood pressure above the fifth percentile for age.

Intra-arterial pressure monitoring should be used to continuously monitor blood pressure and identify and treat hypotension.

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9
Q

What is the goal of systolic BP after ROSC post arrest?

A

above the fifth percentile for age.

70 mmHg+ (Age in years x 2)

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10
Q

What do you do after return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) after cardiac arrest, in terms of O2 ?

A

Target sat 94-99%
Hypoxemia should be strictly avoided

Targetin normoxemia improves outcomes

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11
Q

CAB sequence

A

compressions, airway and breathing

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12
Q

CPR- Rate of compressions?

A

100-120/min

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13
Q

CPR- how deep in chest?

A

~1/3 of the depth

In infants : 1.5in( 4cm)
In children: 2 in(5cm)

In children reached puberty at least 2 in but no more than 2.4 ( 6cm).

and allow complete chest recoil

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14
Q

compression ventilation ratio?

A

30: 2 for single
15: 2 for 2 or more rescuers

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15
Q

compression ventilation after an advanced airway is in place?

A

deliver 10 breaths per min ( 1 min every 6 seconds) while continuous chest compressions.

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16
Q

What is the drug of choice for treating shock refractory Vfib or pVT in children?

A

Amiodarone or Lidocaine. No benefit of one over the other.

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17
Q

BLS, where do you tap the children and infant to see if they are responsive?

A

Children: shoulder

Infant : heel

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18
Q

BLS algorithm

A
  1. Verify the scene is safe
  2. Check for responsiveness- “Are you OK”
  3. If unresponsive - shout for nearby help, ACTIVATE THE EMERGENCY RESPONSE SYSTEM VIA MOBILE IF POSSIBLE
  4. Assess the child breathing and pulse ( no more than 10 seconds)
    breathing: scan victims chest for rise and fall.
    if patient is breathing, monitor until additional help
    arrives.
    if patient is not breathing then he has respiratory or cardiac( .if no pulse) arrest.Check pulse:infant: brachial artery
    children: carotid or femoral pulseIf you dont feel pulse within 10 seconds start CPR
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19
Q

Where do you check pulse in infants and children?

A

Check pulse:

infant: brachial artery -
children: carotid or femoral pulse

if you feel it, attempt to feel the pulse for at least 5 sec

If you dont feel pulse within 10 seconds start CPR

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20
Q

If patient is not breathing, but has a pulse whats next?

A

1 breath every 3-5 seconds or about 12-20 breaths/min

Add compressions if pulse =< 60/min with signs of poor perfusion

Activate emergency response system after 2 min if not done already

Continue rescue breathing, check pulse every 2 min

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21
Q

signs of poor perfusion

A
TAPS
Temperature: cool extremities
Altered mental status: decrease in responsiveness
Pulses: weak pulses
Skine: paleness, mottling, cyanosis
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22
Q

No breathing/ No pulse

A

Activate the emergency response system - 911
Get the AED equipment , if there is someone else send them to get it
CPR- remove or move the clothing and do CPR

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23
Q

CPR in children and infant

A

infant: 2 fingers
Child: 1-2 hands

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24
Q

Infant 2 finger technique ( 1 rescuer)

A
  1. Place the infant on a firm flat surface
  2. Place 2 fingers in the center of the chest, just below the nipple line
  3. compressions 100-120/min
  4. At the end of each compression allow recoil
  5. After every 30 compressions, open airway give 2 breaths, each over 1 second. the chest should rise with each breath.
  6. After 5 cycles or 2 min ask for AED
  7. continue compressions until AED
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25
Q

Why do you have to allow for chest recoil?

A

Allows blood to flow into the heart.

Incomplete recoil–> less filling between compressions and reduces the blood flow created by chest compressions.

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26
Q

Infant 2 thumb-encircling hands technique ( 2 rescuers preferred)

A
  1. Place the infant on a firm flat surface
  2. Place thumbs side by side in the center of infants chest, on lower half of breastbone. (thumbs may overlap in very small children)
  3. compressions 100-120/min
  4. At the end of each compression allow recoil
  5. After every 15 compressions, open airway give 2 breaths, each over 1 second. the chest should rise with each breath.
  6. After 5 cycles or 2 min ask for AED
  7. continue compressions until AED
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27
Q

Why is the 2 thumb encircling hand technique the preferred when 2 rescuers? (3)

A
  1. produces better blood supply to the heart
  2. Helps ensure consistent depth and force of chest compressions
  3. May generate higher BPs
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28
Q

Methods for opening airway

A

head tilt-chin lift
jaw thrust manuevers

KEEP HEAD IN NEUTRAL POSITION

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29
Q

When there are 2 rescuers- how often they should switch roles?

A

Every 5 cycles or 2 min

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30
Q

Attenuator in the AED for children , how much reduces the dose of the shock

A

2/3.

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31
Q

Child vs. Adult pads of AED cutoff age.

A

Child pads : for infants and children < 8 years. If not available use adult.

Children> 8: adult pads

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32
Q

Location of adult pads/child pads

A

Adult pads: in the upper right chest and in the left lateral part

Child: in front and back ( most commonly for infants)

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33
Q

In infants why a manual defibrillator is preferred over an AED?

A

More capabilities than AED, and can provide lower energy doses

if this is not available and nor is an AED with attenuator , use the regular AED as is better to shock than do nothing.

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34
Q

PAT triangle ( Pediatric Assessment triangle)

A

ABC

Appearance - consciousness, TICLS ( tone, interactiveness, consolability, look/gaze, speech/cry)
breathing -
look patients position ( tripod or sniffing position)
retractions
stridor, sonorous respirations
color

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35
Q

Evaluate-Identify-Intervene approach

A

If no life-threatening condition

Evaluate
Primary assessment: rapid ABCDE approach, VS, oximetry
Secondary assessment: focused medical history and PE
Diagnostic assessments

Identify
Type and severity of the problem

Intervente

This cycle should be repeated over and over,:
with every single intervention or with any change ( improvement or deterioration) until the child is stable.

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36
Q

ABCDE approach

A
Airway
Breathing
Circulation
Disability 
Exposure
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37
Q

How do you determine airway patency ?

A
  • Look for movement of the chest and abdomen
  • Listen for air mov and breath sounds
  • Feel for movement of air at the nose and mouth
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38
Q

Breathing should be assessed as the same time as you check pulse - T/F

A

tRUE

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39
Q

Upper Airway Status

A
  • Clear
  • Maintenable
  • Non maintenable
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40
Q

Definition of clear, maintenable and non maintenable airway

A

Clear: airway is open and unobstructed for normal breathing

Maintenable: Airway is obstructive but can be maintaned by simple measures( e.g. head tilt chin lift)

Not-maintenable: Airway is obstructed and needs advanced intervations ( intubation)

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41
Q

Signs that suggest that the airway is obstructed?

A
  • increased inspiratory effort with retractions
  • Abnormal inspiratory sounds ( snoring, high-pitched stridor)
  • Episodes where no airway or breath sounds are present despite respiratory efforts ( complete upper airway obstruction)
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42
Q

Simple measures to maintain airway

A

POSITIONING:
If responsive child- allow him to assume a position of comfort or elevate the head of the bed.

If unresponsive:
Turn the child on his side if you dont suspect cervical injury or head tilt chin lift or jaw thrust .

If unresponsive and the jaw thrust is not open, use head tilt chin lift or jaw thrust with jaw extension because open airway is a priority.

SUCTIONING-nose and oropharynx , avoid overextending head and neck

Relief techniques if foreign object

AIRWAY ADJUNCTS: eg. oropharyngeal aiway ( to avoid the tongue from falling back) - NEVER RELY ON THIS ALONE, ALWAYS DO SOMETHING ELSE

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43
Q

Simple measures to maintain airway

A

positioning
suctioning
relief techniques for foreign body airway obstruction
airway adjuncts

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44
Q

If child suspected of aspirating foreign body and has complete airway obstruction? responsive/unresposive

A

responsive:
< 1 year: give 5 back slaps and 5 chest thrusts
>=1 year: give abdominal thrust

If unresponsive: activate or send someone to activate the emergency response system and start CPR

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45
Q

Advanced interventions to maintain airway patency

A

Endotracheal intubation
Application of continuous positive airway pressure or non invasive ventilation
Removal of foreign body requires direct laryngoscopy
Cricothyrotomy

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46
Q

5 things to assess breathing

A
  1. Respiratory rate and pattern
  2. Respiratory effort
  3. Chest expansion and air movement
  4. Lung and airway sounds
  5. O2 Saturation by pulse oximeter
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47
Q

Normal respiratory rate in

infant
toodler
preschooler
school-age

A
30-53
22-37
20-28
18-25
12-20
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48
Q

Abnormal breathing is RR< 10 and more than 60 is abnormal in any child T/F

A

True

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49
Q

How to determine RR

A

count the number of times the chest rises in 30 seconds and multipy by 2

*Normal sleeping infants may have irregular( periodic) breathing pauses lasting up to 10 or even 15 seconds.

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50
Q

Normal sleeping infants may have irregular( periodic) breathing pauses lasting up to 10 or even 15 seconds.

A

True

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51
Q

Irregular respiratory pattern may be a sign of?

A

Neurological condition

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52
Q

Tachypnea causes

A
  • respiratory distress ( particularly when accompanied of respiratory effort)
  • no respiratory causes - when there is just fast RR but no effort:
  • fever, pain, anemia, cyanotic heart disease, sepsis
  • Dehydration
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53
Q

Causes of bradypnea ( 7)

A
  1. respiratory muscle fatigue
  2. CNS injury or any problem that affects the respiratory control center
  3. Severe hypoxia
  4. Severe shock
  5. Hypothermia
  6. Drugs that repress respiratory drive
  7. Muscle disease that causes resp muscle weakness
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54
Q

What does bradypnea or irregular respiratory rate mean in a critically ill child?

A

signals of impending arrest

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55
Q

Definition of apnea

A

Cessation of breathing longer than 15 seconds

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56
Q

Classification of apnea

A

Central : no respiratory effort- abnormality or supression of the brain or spinal cord

Obstructive: inspiratory effort present without airflow. -ventilation is impeded , resulting in hypoxemia, hypercapnia or both.

Mixed apnea: periods of obstructive and periods of central apnea.

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57
Q

Why does increased respiratory effort occur?

A

In conditions where there is increased resistance to airflow ( asthma, bronchiolitis), or that causes lungs to be stiffer and difficult to inflate (pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pleural effusion)

Non respiratory conditi

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58
Q

Non respiratory conditions that cause increased respiratory effort

A

whatever that causes severe metabolic acidosis: shock, DKA, salicylate ingestion, inborn errors of metabolism)

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59
Q

Signs of increased respiratory effort?

A

nasal flaring
retractions( inward mov of the chest wall or tissues or sternum during inspiration)
head bobbing or seesaw respirations

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60
Q

location of retractions correlates to severity?

A

Yes

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61
Q

Location of retractions if mild-moderate?

A

subcostal, substernal, intercostal

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62
Q

Location of retraction if severe?

A

( may include same retractions than in mild-moderate) and

supraclavicular
suprasternal
sternal

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63
Q

retractions accompanied by stridor or inspiratory sound suggest..

A

upper airway obstruction

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64
Q

retractions accompanied by expiratory wheezing suggest..

A

lower airway obstruction ie.asthma bronchiolitis

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65
Q

retractions accompanied by grunting or labored resp suggest..

A

lung tissue disease

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66
Q

why does Head bobbing occur and what does it mean?

A

use of neck muscles to assist breathing

sign of increased deterioration/ respiratory failure

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67
Q

what are seesaw respirations and what do they mean?

A

when chest retracts and the abdomen expands during inspiration. During expiration the mov reverses.

Usually indicate UPPER AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION
May also be obseverd in sever lower airway obstruction
Characteristic of infants and chilren with NM weakness.

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68
Q

What respiratory effort pattern is Characteristic of infants and chilren with NM weakness.

A

seesaw respirations

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69
Q

Cause of seesaw breathing

A

NM disease, weakness of the abdominal and chest wall muscles.

Strong contraction of diaphragm that dominates the weaker abdominal and chest muscles.

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70
Q

Definition of tidal volume and normal value

A

volume of air inspired with each breath

Normal: 5-7 mL/kg

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71
Q

Ausculation lungs

A

anterior ( left and right to the sternum)
under the armpits ( best location to assess lower airway)
posterior: both sides of the back

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72
Q

Where is the best place to assess distal air entry?

A

auscultate below the axillae

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73
Q

What is minute ventilation

A

The volume of air that moves into or out of the lungs each min

Vmin= RR X Tidal volume

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74
Q

Causes of Low minute ventilation ( hypovent)

A

Since Vmin= RR X Tidal volume

low RR
Low Tidal volume ( stiff lungs, airway resistance)
Extremely fast RR that leads to low tidal volume

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75
Q

What is a stridor and what does it indicate?

A

Coarse, high pitched breathing typically on inspiration but can be heard in both inspiration and expiration.

upper airway ( extrathoracic) obstruction

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76
Q

Stridor causes

A

foreign body
infection ( croup)
congenital airway abnormalities ( eg, laryngomalacia)
acquired airway abnoramlities( tumor or cyst)
edema of upper airway

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77
Q

Snoring causes besides sleep

A

soft tissue swelling or decreased level of consciousness

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78
Q

What is grunting and when does it occurs

A

short, low-pitched sound heard during EXPIRATION
Sometimes misinterpreted as soft cry

Occurs as child exhales against a partial closed glottis
SIGN OF LUNG TISSUE DISEASE- small airway collapse, alveolar collapse or both.

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79
Q

Causes of grunting

A

progression of respiratory distress to failure
pneumonia
pulmonary contusion
acute respiratory distress syndrome
CHF resulting en pulmonary edema
sign of PAIN ( abdominal pathology: bowel obstruction, perforated viscus, appendicits)

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80
Q

What is gurgling and when does it occur

A

bubbly sound heard during inspiration or expiration

upper airway obstruction due to airway secretions, vomit, blood

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81
Q

Wheezing and causes

A

high or low pitched whistling most often during expiration

Indicates lower airway obstruction, especially of smaller airways( asthma, bronchiolitis)

Isolated inspiratory wheezing: foreign body aspiration or partial obstruction of the trachea.

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82
Q

Crackles and rales are the same T/F

A

True! word embedded

rub several hairs together

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83
Q

Crackles

A

moist crackles: accumulation of alveolar fluids ( pneumonia and pulmonary edema)

dry crackles : atelectasis and interstitial lung disease

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84
Q

Crackles are always present in pulmonary edema T/F

A

False, they may not be present

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85
Q

How do you describe crackles?

A

Type: fine, medium, coarse

when: inspiratory or expiratory
where: bilateral, unilateral, upper lobe, lower lobe etc.

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86
Q

Pulse oxymeter

A

tool to monitor the percentage of hemoglobin that is fully saturated with oxygen

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87
Q

Does oxyhemoblogin saturation indicate the amount of O2 delivered to the tissues?

A

NO!

Delivery is the product of the arterial O2 content ( O2 bound to Hb+ Dissolved O2) and CO.

ie. in anemia there is decreased hb and saturation can be 100%- and the delivery is still low.

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88
Q

O2 does not provide information about the effectiveness of ventilation T/F

A

True

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89
Q

Sat % that indicates hypoxemia?

A

< 94%, needs additional vent.

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90
Q

How does a pulse oximeter works?

A

has two parts that must be placed opposite to the other.
Lights of different wavelenghts are produced from one side of the probe and the light is captured on the other side of the tissue by the other probe.

A processor in the oximeter calculates the percent of each light that has been absorbed by tissues.

Hemoglobin that is fully saturated absorbs light different than if its fully saturated.

So the pulseoximeter can estimate the percent of hemoglobin that is fully saturated

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91
Q

Situations to keep in mind with pulseoximeter

A
  1. Anemia - sat can be 100%, but O2 delivery is low
  2. Carboxyhemoglobin-Methemoglob- 100% Sat – obtain ABGs.
  3. If it cant detect a consistent pulse or there is an irregular or poor waveform, the child may have poor distal perfusion or the oximeter may not be accurate
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92
Q

Signs of probable respiratory failure 7

A
  1. Very rapid or inadequate respiratory rate; possible apnea
  2. Significant, inadequate, or absent respiratory effort
  3. Absent distal air movement
  4. Extreme tachycardia or bradycardia
  5. Low O2 sat despite high flow supplementary oxygen
  6. Decreased level of consciousness
  7. Cyanosis
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93
Q

Circulation assessment components (5)

A
Heart rate and rhythm
Pulses ( both peripheral and central)
Capillary refill time
Skin color and temperature 
Blood pressure
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94
Q

Arrhythmia can result from shock or hypoxia T/F

A

True

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95
Q

Hypoxia ( delivery) is the most common cause of bradycardia in children

A

True

If you see sign of poor perfusion, support vent with bag and mask and give O2.

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96
Q

If patient is breathing and poor perfusion

A

check pulse, if =< 60 compressions despite good oxygenation and ventilation.

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97
Q

HR > 180 in infants and > 160 in toddlers/children is ABNORMAL.

A

Yes, require further assessment.

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98
Q

What do you consider in a kid with congenital heart disease, when evaluating the heart rate and rhythm?

A

consider its baseline, he may have conduction abnormalities.

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99
Q

Respiratory sinus arrythmia what is it?

A

HR increases with inspiration and slows with expiration

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100
Q

Central pulses-

A

Femoral
Brachial ( infants)
Carotid ( in older children)
Axillary

-felt stronger because of the increased vessel size and proximity to the heart

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101
Q

peripheral pulses

A

Radial
Dorsalis pedis
Posterior tibial

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102
Q

how do the pulses change in shock

A

peripheral vasoconstriction leads to exaggeration of the central pulses

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103
Q

pulsus paradoxus

A

is an abnormally large decrease in stroke volume, systolic blood pressure and pulse wave amplitude during inspiration. The normal fall in pressure is less than 10 mmHg. When the drop is more than 10 mmHg, it is referred to as pulsus paradoxus.

inspiration–> increased venous return–> increased blood in RV and leads to bulging towards the LV decreasing the size/volume.

asthma, pericardial tamponade

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104
Q

Capillary refill time definition and normal val

A

The time it takes for blood to return to tissue blanches by presssure

Normal: =< 2 seconds.

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105
Q

How do you evaluate capillary refill time?

A

lift the extremity slightly above the level of the heart, press and remove fast.

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106
Q

Causes of delayed capillary refill time

A

dehydration
shock
hypothermia

in septic shock it may be normal or even fast!

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107
Q

How do you measure temperature and why?

A

back of your hand, more sensitive.

palm has thicker layer of skin.

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108
Q

Acrocyanosis

A

hands, feet and around mouth- normal in newly born but not in older children

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109
Q

Causes of peripheral cyanosis

A

Shock
CHF
Peripheral vascular disease
Conditions causing venous stasis

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110
Q

Causes of central cyanosis

A

( lip or other mucous membranes)

Low ambient O2 tension
Alveolar hypoventilation ( TBI, drug overdose)
Diffusion defect ( pneumonia)
Ventilation/perfusion mismatch ( asthma, bronchiolitis, ARDS)
Intracardiac shunt

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111
Q

Central pallor suggests:

A

Anemia or poor perfusion

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112
Q

When does cyanosis occur?

A

is apparent when at least 5g/dl of Hb is desaturated.

The O2 saturation at which a child will appear cyanotic depends on the child hemoglobin concentration

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113
Q

Children with different hemoglobin levels will be cyanotic at different levels of O2 Sat.

A

True,

cyanosis may be detected at higher O2 sats if the Hb is high.

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114
Q

Accurate BP measurement

A

cuff bladder should cover about 40% of the mid-upper arm circumference. The BP cuff should cover 50-75% of the length of the upper arm.

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115
Q

Hypotension in term neonates, infants,children (1-10y), children(>10)

A
Is based on the SBP
-- the tresholds approximate just above the 5th percentile for age--
term neonates < 60
 infants < 70
children (1-10y) <70 +(age in years x 2)
 children(>10) < 90
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116
Q

What do you think when a patient with hemorrhage develops hypotension

A

~ has lost 20-25% of circulating volume

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117
Q

Hypotension in septic shock?

A

can occur due to loss of intravascular volume or

inappropriate vasodlation or severe vasoconstriction, or inadequate CO/CI

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118
Q

Why do we measure urine output?

A

Indirect measure of kidney perfusion- indicates blood flow and hydration

In critically ill children accurate measurement requires an indwelling catheter.

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119
Q

Normal value of urine output in infant and younger children

A

1.5 - 2 mL/kg per hour

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120
Q

Normal value of urine output in older children and adolescents

A

1 mL/kg per hour

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121
Q

Children with shock typically have decreased urine output. T/F

A

True

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122
Q

Disability assessment

A

AVPU ( Alert, responsive to voice, responsive to pain, unresponsive) Pediatric Response scale

GCS
Pupil response to light
Blood glucose test

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123
Q

AVPU Pediatric Response scale

A

To evaluate cerebral cortex function
Rates the level of consciousness in 4 states:
( Alert, responsive to voice, responsive to pain [sternal rub, pinching trapezius], unresponsive)

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124
Q

Causes of decreased level of consciousness

A
BRAIN: 
poor cerebral perfusion 
TBI
Seizure activity
Encephalitis/meningitis
OTHERS
severe shock 
hypoglycemia
hypoxemia
hypercabnia
drugs
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125
Q

GCS

A

EVM 456

Eye
Spontaneous, to voice, to pain, no eye opening

Verbal
Oriented, confused, inappropriate words, incomprehensible words, no response

Motor
Obeys commands
Localizes pain
Withdraws from pain
Abnormal flexion 
Abnormal extension 
No response
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126
Q

GCS classification

A

Mild head injury 13-15
Moderate 9-12
Severe < 9

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127
Q

Modified version of GCS for infants

A

see phone

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128
Q

When do you prefer AVPU vs. GCS

A

AVPU may be more appropriate in the pre-hospital setting

GCS in the hospital ED.

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129
Q

Correlation AVPU GCS

A

Alert 15
Response to verbal 13
Pain stimulation 8
Unresponsive to noxious stimuli 6

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130
Q

Pupil response to light should be done in any patient with altered mental status

A

True

useful indicator of brainstem status

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131
Q

Pinpoint pupils causes

A

narcotic ingestion - opioids

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132
Q

Dilated pupils causes

A
Predominant sympathetic activity
Sympathomimetic ingestion ( cocaine)
Anticholinergic ingestion ( atropine)
Increased intracranial pressure
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133
Q

Unilaterally dilated pupils

A

Inadvertent topical absorption of a breathing treatment ( ipratropium)
Dilating eye drops

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134
Q

Unilaterally dilated pupils with altered mental status

A

IPSILATERAL uncal herniation

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135
Q

Description of pupils

A

PERRL

Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to light.

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136
Q

Hypoglycemia values

A

In newborn =<45

In child=<60

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137
Q

Exposure is the last component of primary assessment:

A

Undress
Look for evidence of trauma ( bleeding, burns, abnormal markings)
petequia/purpura
deformities/bruises

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138
Q

Secondary assessment components

A

Focused history ( SAMPLE)
Focused PE
Ongoing reassessment

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139
Q

SAMPLE for focused history

A

Signs and Symptoms
Allergies - meds, food,latex/associated reaction
Medications- include overthecounter, vit, last dose and time of recent meds, meds that can be found in childs environment.
Past Medical History - born, Cxs/hospitalizations, illness, immunization
Last meal - time and nautre of last meal. elapsed time between last meal and presentation of current illness
Events - leading to current illness or injury ( sudden, gradual), hazards at scene, treatment during inteval from oset, time of onset.

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140
Q

Components of ongoing reassessment

A

PAT
ABCDE of primary approach with acquisition of VS and pulseoximetry
Assessment of abnormal anatomic and physiologic findings
Review the effectiveness of treatment interventions with each cycle

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141
Q

PaO2 indicates ..

A

O2 dissolved in plasma

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142
Q

PaO2 normal and Hb of 3, what can you say about the saturation and delivery to tissue

A

Saturation can be 100%, but due to the low Hb there is inadequate delivery to the tissues

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143
Q

Acid-Base algorithm

A

say it

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144
Q

serial ABGs are better than only once, because it just indicate a state in a time point.

A

true

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145
Q

What is hyperoxia

A

increased arterial O2 sat detected by direct measure in ABG .

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146
Q

what does increased base deficit means

A

accumulation of acid in the blood

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147
Q

When do you do venous blood gases, advantages/disadvantages

A

When there is no arterial sample available, usually not very useful for arterial oxygenation

there are differences based on where the same was taken from, so better central than peripheral.

There are some correlations of VBG to ABGs but not ideal.

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148
Q

Central venous O2 sat value and what does it reflect

A

indicator of the balance between delivery and O2 consumption

normal is 70-75%, considering an arterial Sat 100%

If sat is lower consider 30% less and that is the SVO2

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149
Q

Why does lactate is high in critically ill patients?

A

metabolic acidosis –> increase lactate

associated with tissue hypoxia and resultant anaerobic metabolism.

good prognostic indicator, and can be used to measure therapy response.

if no metabolic acidosis, some example of elevtion is stress hyperglycemia

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150
Q

Things to consider when measuring lactate

A

can be falsely elevated if not taken from a free flowing blood sample

Delayed testing of sample can affect accuracy

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151
Q

What is near infrared spectroscopy and how does it work?

A

non invasive optical technique to monitor tissue oxygenation in brain and other tissues

measures the concentration of oxyHb and desaturated Hb.

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152
Q

small heart in Xray causes

A

reduced cardiac preload, severe lung hyperinflation

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153
Q

large heart in Xray causes

A

normal or increased preload
pericardial effusion
CHF
or patient is unstable to take a deep breath

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154
Q

Heart size is different in the anteroposterior view compared to the posterior-anterior

A

Anteroposterior will look larger

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155
Q

Which are the most common scenarios of cardiac arrest in infants/children?

A

Usually result from progressive respiratory failure, shock or both. –HYPOXIC-ISCHEMIC ARREST

Less commonly result from an arrhythmia or ventricular tachycardia 5-15%

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156
Q

Respiratory failure without respiratory distress cant occur T/F

A

False
Respiratory failure without respiratory distress can occur
ASSOCIATED WITH DECREASED LEVEL OF CONSCIOUSNESS

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157
Q

The incidence of cardiac arrest from Vf/pVT increases with age and should be suspected in any patient with SUDDEN collapse T/F

A

TRUE

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158
Q

What is the rate of survival at hospital discharge if cardiac arrest occurs inhospital?

A

43%

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159
Q

What is the rate of survival at hospital discharge if cardiac arrest occurs out-of-hospital?

A

8%

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160
Q

Survival is higher if shockable rhythm vs. asystole

A

true

25-34% compared to 7-24%

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161
Q

What is cardiac arrest?

A

cessation of blood circulation resulting from absent or ineffective cardiac mechanical activity

no pulse, no breathing( cerebral hypoxia-> loss of consciousness-> stop breathing)

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162
Q

2 pathways for cardiac arrest in children

A
  1. Hypoxic ischemic- when there is respiratory failure or hypotensive shock there is progressive tissue hypoxia and acidosis
  2. Sudden cardiac arrest
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163
Q

Causes of sudden cardiac arrest, and predispositions

A

Vfib and pulseless Vtach

Predisposing conditions are:

  • HCM
  • anomalous coronary artery
  • Long QT syndrome or other channelopathies
  • Myocarditis
  • Drug intox ( digoxin, ephedra, cocaine)
  • Commotio cordis
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164
Q

Commotio cordis (Latin, “agitation of the heart”)

A

is an often lethal disruption of heart rhythm that occurs as a result of a blow ( chest impact) to the area directly over the heart (the precordial region), at a critical time during the cycle of a heart beat causing cardiac arrest.

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165
Q

Causes of cardiac arrest

A

< 6 months: SIDS

> 6 months: traumatic cardiac arrest- airway compromise, tension pneumothorax, brain injury

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166
Q

Reversible causes of cardiac arrests

A

6 Hs and 5 Ts

Hypoxia
Hypothermia
Hypovolemia
Hypoglycemia
H+ ( acidosis)
hypo/HyperK
Toxins
Thrombosis pulmonary
Thrombosis coronary
Tamponade
Tension pneumothorax
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167
Q

Arrest rhythms

A

PEA
Asystole

pulseless Ventriculat Tachycardia, including torsaides de pointes
Vfib

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168
Q

Which are the most common arrest rhythms based on age

A

in younger than 12 is PEA, asystole

In older is Vfib, pVT and is associated to sudden cardiac arrest and/or predisposing conditions.

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169
Q

What is an agonal rhythm

A

Slow wide QRS complex that immediately precedes asystole

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170
Q

What is PEA

A

There is some sort of activity ( organized cardiac activity) in the ECG but there is no pulse.

pulsations may be detected by an arterial waveform or doppler, but no PULSE.

EKG may show different things:

  • low or high amplitude T waves
  • prolonged PR and QT intervals
  • AV dissociation , complete heart block, ventricular complexes without p wave
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171
Q

Are there pulses in Vfib?

A

NO! Its a pattern of cardiac arrest.

Vfib- no organized rhythm and no coordinated contractions
electrical activity is chaotic
the heart is not able to pump blood– pulses are not palpable

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172
Q

Vfib may be preceded by a brief period of VT with or without pulses. T/F

A

True

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173
Q

Difference between Vfib and pulseless VTaq

A

Vfib- disorganized rhythm

pVT: organized, wide QRS complexes

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174
Q

Torsades de Pointes

A

polymorphic VT

seen in conditions with prolonged QT interval, including congential long QT syndrome, drug toxicity, hypomagnesemia

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175
Q

Causes of torsades des pointes

A

HypoMg, HypoK
Anti ABCDE+ opioids( methadone, oxycodone)+ HIV protease inhibitors
Arrhythmics ( IA,III)
Biotics (Macrolides, antimalarials, fluoroquinolones)
Cychotics ( haloperidol, risperidone)
Depressants ( SSRIs, TCAs)
Emetics ( ondansetron)

Congenital
Romano Ward- puRe heart
Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome: cardiac + sensorineural deafness

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176
Q

Antiarrhythmics type I and subtypes

A

Na+ channel blockers ( slow or block conduction)
IA: The Queen Proclaims Disos pyramide ( Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide)

IB: Lidia es Mexican, fea y toca en un restaurante ( Lidocaine, Mexiletine, phenytoin, tocamide

IC: Propon tener fleco
Propafenone, flecainamide

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177
Q

Antiarrhythmics type II

A

B blockers -lol

Prolong PR
Decrease SA and AV node activity

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178
Q

Antiarrhythmics type III

A

K channel blockers:

AIDS
Amiodarone
Ibutilide
Dofetilide
Sotalol 

Prolong QT

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179
Q

Antiarrhythmics type IV

A

Ca channel blockers

Verapamil, diltiazem

Prolong PR

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180
Q

Although hands only CPR is an option, the ideal in hypoxic asphyxial arrest is CPR ( hands and ventilation)!!!!

A

True

Hands ony can be done if the rescuer has no expertise or doesnt want to give breath. Better this than nothing.

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181
Q

What is the difference of the Activation of emergency response system step between infants/children and adolescents/adults?

A

In infants and children:
If witnessed and no phone, leave the victim and get AED before CPR
If unwitnessed and single rescuer: give 2 min CPR, then go for AED and activation of emergency system, return to kid give CPR and use AED

In adolescents and adults:
If single rescuer: Activate emergency system and look for AED before starting compressions.

Otherwise send someone for AED and begin CPR.

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182
Q

How are the rate of compressions without advanced airway different between adolescents/adults and infants/children ?

A

adolescents/adults: if 1 or more rescuers 30:2

children/infants: 2 rescuers 15:2
1 rescuer 30:2

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183
Q

How are the rate of compressions with advanced airway different between adolescents/adults and infants/children ?

A

SAME
continuous compressions at a rate of 100-120/min
Give 1 breath every 10 seconds.

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184
Q

Hand placement for CPR in adults/adolescents, children ( 1 year-puberty), infants

A

adults/adolescents: 2 hands on the lower half of the breastbone
children ( 1 year-puberty): 2 hands or 1 hand ( rescuer can use either method on a small child) on the lower half of the breastbone ( sternum)

infants: 1 rescuer: 2 fingers in the center of the chest just below the nipple line

2 rescuers: 2 thumb encircling hand in the center of the chest just below the nipple line.

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185
Q

Breaths in CPR

A

Each rescue breath should be given over about 1 second
Each breast should result in visible chest rise
After an advanced airway is in place: 10 breaths per min ( 1 breath every 6 seconds).

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186
Q

After an advanced airway is in place how are the breaths in CPR

A

After an advanced airway is in place: 10 breaths per min ( 1 breath every 6 seconds).

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187
Q

What is PETCO2? Why is it useful?

A

measures ventilation
End tidal CO2 - seen in capnography
a measure of the amount of carbon dioxide present in the exhaled air.

Indirect evidence of que quality of the compressions.

Normal value is same as PaCO2: 35-45

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188
Q

What does a PETCO2 > 10-15mmHg mean?

A

CO during CPR is low and not much blood is being delivered to the lungs

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189
Q

Capnography

A

is the monitoring of the concentration or partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO. 2) in the respiratory gases.

presented as a graph of expiratory CO

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190
Q

priority for drug delivery routes?

A

IV>IO>ET

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191
Q

Why is not very common to put a central venous access in cardiac arrest?

A

Although is the best option because of faster onset of meds and higher peak concentration of meds

Its placement requires interrumption of chest compressions

Complications: hematoma, vascular lacerations, pneumothorax, bleeding.

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192
Q

What is required when giving IV meds peripherally?

A
  1. Give them in boluses
  2. Give the drug while chest compressions are beign performed
  3. Follow with a 5 mL flush of normal saline to mode the drug from the peripheral to the central circulation.
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193
Q

IO access, why is a good option if the peripheral access doesnt work?

A
  1. BM provide access to a noncollapsible marrow venous plexus- so useful in profound shock, dehydration
  2. Followed by flush medications may reach central circulation
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194
Q

Contraindications and relative contraindications for IO access?

A

There are no absolute
Relative:
- trauma to the extremity- we dont know if there is damage of BM
-Overlying infection( cellulitis)

If an IO access stop working, change of bone. Its likely that if you try in same bone whatever you are inserting will leak through previous bone.

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195
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta or congenital bone diseases are CI for IO access. T/F

A

False.

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196
Q

Equipment for IO access

A
Towel roll 
Gloves
Antiseptic wipes
IO needle/drill
syringe/blood specimen containers for lab work
connector tube
saline flush
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197
Q

Location of IO access

A

In children: the proximal tibial site is approximately 2 cm below the tibial tuberosity and up to 1 cm medially on the tibial plateau

In skeletally mature adolescents and adults, the recommended site is 2 cm medial to and 1 cm above the tibial tuberosity.

198
Q

Procedure of IO access

A
  1. Gloves
  2. place towel roll below the knee or straight knee
  3. Antiseptic wipes
  4. Lidocaine at the site and inside the periostium if conscious
  5. Insert the IO needle ( has a trocar/stylet to avoid the core bone to get inside the hollow needle)
  6. Aspirate
  7. Flush saline and see signs of infiltration anteriorly and posteriorly
  8. med
  9. flush with saline after med.
199
Q

When does a IO access needs to be replaced

A

max 24 hrs

200
Q

Alternative locations of the IO access?

A

distal femur ( needs a larger needle)
distal tibia, above medial maleolus
proximal humerus

always in the flat , tuberosities have growth plates.

201
Q

Needles for the IO drill

A

3-39 kg: 15 gauge and 15 mm lenght
>40kg: 15 gauge and 25 mm lenght
obese: extralong

202
Q

Drugs that can be given ET?

A

Lipid soluble drugs

LEAN and vasopressin
Lidocaine
Epinephrine
Atropine
Naloxone
203
Q

What considerations exist when giving drugs by ET in cardiac arrest?

A
  • Drug absorption in the endotracheal tree is unpredictable - drug dose/effects unpredictable
  • optimal dose of most of the meds given by ET is unknown.
  • Recommended drug doses by ET are higher than for IV/IO
    • For epinephrine is 10x the dose given by IV/IO
  • For other drugs ~2-3x
204
Q

Technique for administering drugs via ET

A
  1. Instill the drug into the ET tube ( briefly pause compressions during instillation)
  2. Follow with a minimum of 5 mL normal saline flush, smaller volume may be needed for neonates
  3. Provide 5 rapid positive pressure breaths after drug is instilled
205
Q

depolarizing myocytes with AED and return to organized cardiac activity doesn’t ensure survival T/F

A

True, the organized cardiac rhythm must produce ROSC (defined as palpable pulse) – can be assessed with PETCO2 or intra arterial pressure.

206
Q

What do you do after AED shock?

A

resume compressions

207
Q

Goal of meds during cardiac arrest

A

Increase coronary and cerebral perfusion and blood flow
Stimulate spontaneous and forceful myocardial contraction
Accelerate heart rate
Correct and treat the possible cause of cardiac arrest
Suppress or treat arrhythmias

208
Q

Indication of epinephrine

A

cardiac arrest

high doses may be given for resuscitation in cases of B blocker overdose

209
Q

MOA epinephrine

A

alpha adrenergic mediated vasoconstriction –> increased aortic diastolic pressure and coronary perfusion

210
Q

Amiodarone indication

A

shock refractory Vfib or pVT

211
Q

MOA amiodarone

A

alpha adrenergic and b adrenergic blocking activity
blocks K channel
prolongs AV refractory period and QT interval
slows ventricular conduction ( Widens the QRS)

212
Q

Lidocaine indication

A

shock refractory Vfib or pVT

213
Q

MOA Lidocaine

A

Class IB antiarrhythmic

Decreases automaticity and suppresses ventricular arrhythmias

214
Q

Atropine indication

A

tto of bradycardia, especially if due to excessive vagal tone, organophosphates, complete AV block

215
Q

MOA atropine

A

Increases HR

216
Q

Calcium indication

A

not rutinely for cardiac arrest

indicated in :

  • ionized hypoCa ( can be present during sepsis or after cardiopulmonary bypass)
  • hyperkalemia, if hemodynamic compromise
  • Ca channel blocker overdose
  • hyperMg
217
Q

MOA Calcium

A

Restores Ca
Helps maintain the cell membrane action potential treshold
helps maintain gradient between intracel K and extracellular Na.

218
Q

Sodium bicarbonate indication

A

Not recommended in cardiac arrest

Recommended in:
hyperK
TCA overdose
Overdose with Na blocking channels

219
Q

MOA Sodium bicarbonate

A

helpful in TCA overdose

Rapidly reduces K concentrations.

220
Q

Why you have to avoid excessive ventilation during resucitation?

A
  • impedes venous return and decreases CO
  • increases intrathoracic pressure–RA pressure and decreases coronary perfussion
  • causes gastric distention- impeding ventilation and increases the risk of regurgitation
221
Q

How do you confirm and monitor ET tube placement?

A

capnography and clinical exam

222
Q

What if capnography doesnt show CO2 but clinical examination shows adequate position of the ET tube?

A

use direct laryngoscopy

223
Q

In the OHCA there was no difference in survival between ET tube and effective bag-mask ventilation.

A

True,

but this didnt address in-hospital, but suggest that immediate intubation may not be necessary.

224
Q

shockable rhythms

A

Vfib/pVT

225
Q

Non shockable rhythms

A

PEA/Asystole

226
Q

Cardiac arrest algorithm for both shockable and non shockable rhythms

A

say it

227
Q

Shock energy for defibrillator

A

First shock 2 J/kg
Second shock 4 J/kg
Subsequent shocks >= 4 J/kg, maximum of 10J/kg

228
Q

Dose and freq of epinephrine IO/IV

A

0.01 mg/kg repeat every 3-5 min

ET: 0.1 mg/kg

229
Q

Dose and freq of amiodarone IO/IV

A

5mg/kg bolus during cardiac arrrest max single dose of 300 mg. May repeat up to 2 times for refractory VF/pulseless VT

max 2.2g per 24 hrs.

230
Q

Dose and freq of lidocaine IO/IV

A

initial: 1 mg/kg loading dose

Maintenance 20-50 mcg/kg/min ( repeat bolus dose if infusion initiated > 15 minutes after initial bolus)

231
Q

Criteria for ROSC

A

Presence of pulse and BP

Spontaneous arterial pressure waves and intra-arterial monitoring

232
Q

What is the size for uncuffed ET for children 2-10yr ?

A

(age in years/4)+4

233
Q

What is the size for uncuffed ET for children 2-10yr?

A

(age in years/4)+3.5

234
Q

What should be the cuffed inflation pressure in the ET?

A

<20-25 cmH20

235
Q

Monophasic vs biphasic AED

A

monophasic - current delivered in one direction
biphasic- current delivered in both directions

monophasic:
has higher energeny use, higher risk of trauma, burns, myocytes damange
first success rate 60%

biphasic: less of all of the above, first success rate 90%.

236
Q

what do you need to consider when using paddles for AED shock delivery?

A

put conducting gel! to decrease impedance

dont put saline soaked gauze pads, alcohol pads.

237
Q

Paddle size for > 10 kg ( 1 year or older)

A

large adult paddles ( 8-13 cm)

238
Q

Paddle size for <10 kg (< 1 year )

A

small infant paddle (4.5 cm)

239
Q

Location of pad/paddle for DEA

A

1 electrode on the upper right side of chest below the right clavicle

the other to the left of the left nipple in the anterior axillary line directly over the heart.

they shouldnt touch! allow 3 cm between them

240
Q

What do you do before delivering a shock?

A

Revise that no one is near the child,
high flow 02 is not directed to the chest
Shout a warning message. “clear for shock, deliverying at the count of 3)

241
Q

Timing of epinephrine

A

There is no current recommendation for the adequate timing of epinephrine.

In a monitored setting it is reasonable to check the rhythm first before the second shock, to avoid unnecessary dose of epi.

242
Q

When should the IV/IO meds be administered in CPR?

A

During chest compressions because blood flow generated by compressions help circulate the drugs. immediately before or after the shock.

243
Q

Why epinephrine via ET is usually given like 10x the IV/IO dose?

A

low doses of epi ( because of not adequate absorption via ET) may cause B adrenergic effects –> hypotension, lower coronary artery perfusion pressure and flow
reduce the potential for ROSC

244
Q

CPR with advanced airway

A

1st rescuer: continuous CPR
the other team member: 1 breath every 6 seconds ( ~10 breaths per min)

rotate every 2 min

245
Q

Mg dose if torsades de pointes

A

25-50 mg/kg bolus IV/IO

max 2 g

246
Q

Prepare each drug prior to rhythm check, so that can be given with CPR after shock

A

T

247
Q

Management of traumatic cardiac arrest

A

CPR plus:

  1. control visible hemorrhage
  2. Suction airway
  3. Try not to movilize cervical spine, so airway with jaw thrust manuever
  4. Ventilate with bag mask device using 100%
  5. If advanced airway inserted stabilize head
  6. if tension pneumothorax- needle decompressions - thoracotomy
  7. FLUIDS- so peripheral access and fluids.
  8. vasopressor if spinal shock( loss of sympathetic innervation)
  9. NO PLACE OF IO IN A BONE WITH CONCERN OF FX.
248
Q

Management of cardiac arrest due to drowning

A

CPR +ADE plus:
bag mask, suction airway
Evaluate core body temperature ( rewarming if < 30)– the heart may be unresponsive to resucitative efforts until this core temperature is achieved.
- Extracorporeal circulation is the most rapid and effective technique for rewarming severly hypothermic cardiac arrest after submersion in icy water.

249
Q

When do you suspect spinal shock? What do you give?

A

-combination of areflexia/hyporeflexia and autonomic dysfunction that accompanies spinal cord injury.

loss of sympathetic outflow, resulting in refractory hypotension and bradycardia.

The initial hyporeflexia presents as a loss of both cutaneous and deep tendon reflexes below the level of injury

Give VASOPRESSOR

250
Q

What is the most rapid and effective technique for rewarming severly hypothermic cardiac arrest after submersion in icy water.

A

Extracorporeal circulation.

251
Q

What happens in anaphylaxis

A

airway edema and obstruction
profound vasodilation –> relative hypovol
bronchoconstriction –compromises oxygenation and O2 delivery

252
Q

4 things that are needed in cardiac arrest due to anaphylaxis

A
CPR
Establishment of adequate airway
bolus fluid administration - 
Epinephrine every 3-5  min during cardiac arrest 
   provide epi infusion as needed 

Post-cardiac arrest period – give methylprednisolone 1-2 mg/kg IV/IO

253
Q

What should you consider in ET intubation in anaphylaxis?

A

it is possible that due to airway edema you need to use a smaller ET tube than predicted by the child’s age or lenght.

254
Q

What medication should be given in the post-cardiac arrest care after anaphylaxis?

A

steroids, methylprednisolone 1-2 mg/kg IV/IO

255
Q

Cardiac arrest + hypoglycemic, what do you suspect?

A

B-blocker or alcohol overdose

normalize glucose

256
Q

What are single ventricule defects? Which are these?

A

A heart that has only one ventricle large and strong enough to pump blood

  • hypoplastic left heart syndrome
  • pulmonary atresia
  • tricuspid atresia
257
Q

In which patients with single ventricle defect is indicated standard resucitation?

A
  • single ventricular anatomy after stage I palliation ( Norwood)
  • univentricular heart and aortopulmonary shunt.
258
Q

Norwood Procedure

A

Treatment for hypoplastic left heart syndrome

three-step surgical procedure called staged palliation to create a new functional systemic circuit

Stage 1 of the Norwood procedure involves atrial septectomy and transection and ligation of the distal main pulmonary artery.

Stage 1
shortly after birth
It converts the right ventricle into the main ventricle pumping blood to both the lungs and the body. The main pulmonary artery and the aorta are connected and the main pulmonary artery is cut off from the two branching pulmonary arteries that direct blood to each side of the lungs.
Shunt between pulmonary arteries and the aorta to supply blood to the lungs.

Stage 2 (Bi-directional Glenn Operation)
 six months after the Norwood to divert half of the blood to the lungs when circulation through the lungs no longer needs as much pressure from the ventricle. 
The shunt to the pulmonary arteries is disconnected and the right pulmonary artery is connected directly to the superior vena cava, the vein that brings deoxygenated blood from the upper part of the body to the heart. This sends half of the deoxygenated blood directly to the lungs without going through the ventricle.
Stage 3 (Fontan Operation)
This is the third stage, usually performed about 18 to 36 months after the Glenn. It connects the inferior vena cava, the blood vessel that drains deoxygenated blood from the lower part of the body into the heart, to the pulmonary artery by creating a channel through or just outside the heart to direct blood to the pulmonary artery. At this stage, all deoxygenated blood flows passively through the lungs.
259
Q

Considerations for resucitation in single ventricular defects

A

standard CPR if indicated
Heparin in kids with aortopulmonary or right ventricular pulmonary shunt if the shunt patency is a concern.

PETCO2 may be not a reliable
ERCP may be considered.

260
Q

Resuscitation in pulmonary HTN

A
  • Correct hypercapnia/acidosis
  • isotonic crystalloid to maintain preload
  • if patient was receiving pulmonary vasodilator ( eg, NO, prostacyclin) continue giving
  • Consider inhaled Nitric oxide or prostacyclin to reduce pulmonary resistance
  • Consider ECPR
261
Q

What is Respiratory distress

A

condition of abnormal respiratory rate or effort

262
Q

What is the O2 consumption in infants vs. adults

A

infants 6-8mL/kg

adults: 3-4 mL/kg

263
Q

Define hypoxemia?

Permissive hypoxemia?

A

decreased arterial oxygen SATURATION detected by pulse oximeter or direct measurement in ABG

Permissive hypoxemia is a pulseoximetry < 94% which may be appropriate in certain conditions ( eg, congenital heart disease)

264
Q

Difference between hypoxemia and tissue hypoxia

A

hypoxemia: low arterial 02 saturation (Sat<94%)
hypoxia: body as a whole (generalized hypoxia) or a region of the body ( tissue hypoxia) is deprived of an adequate oxygen supply.

265
Q

hypoxemia does not necessarily lead to tissue hypoxia T/F

A

True

266
Q

tissue hypoxia may occur when arterial O2 sat is normal T/F

A

True , in chronic diseases like in cyanotic heart disease where compensatory mechanisms help maintain arterial O2 content near normal.

267
Q

In tissue hypoxia, what is the responding mechanism

A

hyperventilation pCO2< 35. ( dont let it be < 30)
tachycardia

can be due to increased respiratory rate, increased tidal volume

268
Q

What are the early and late signs of tissue hypoxia?

A
Early: 
Tachypnea
Increased respiratory effort
Tachycardia
Pallor, mottling, 
Agitation, anxiety, irritable

Late:
bradypnea, inadequate respiratory effort, apnea
increased respiratory effort/: head bobbing, seesaw respirations, grunting.
Bradycardia
mottling/pallor,cyanosis
decreased level of consciousness

269
Q

Arterial O2 content formula

A

[1.36 x Hb concentration x SaO2] + (0.003x PaO2)

Dissolved O2- (0.003 x PaO2)

270
Q

Mechanism of hypoxia in alveolar hypoventilation

A

increased tension of CO2 displaces alveolar O2–> so if alveolar O2 is low–> arterial O2 is low–> PaO2 low.

271
Q

Causes of alveolar hypoventilation

A

CNS lesion
TBI
NM disease
drug overdose/sedation/apnea

272
Q

Mechanism of hypoxia in diffusion defect

A

no exchange between CO2 and O2.

examples: pulmonary edema, alveolar proteinosis, interstitial pneumonia

273
Q

Mechanism of hypoxia in V/Q mismatch

A

blood flow through areas of the lung that are inadequately oxygenated -> incomplete oxygenation of the blood returning to the right heart.

There is decreased arterial O2 and Saturation , and to a lesser extent increased PaCO2.

274
Q

causes of V/Q mismatch

A
pneumonia
atelectasis
ARDS
Asthma
Bronchiolitis
Foreign Body
275
Q

Mechanism of hypoxia in R to left shunt

A

shunting of unoxygenated blood from the R side of the heart to the left ( or from the pulmonary artery into the aorta)– results in low PaO2

276
Q

Causes of R to left shunt causing hypoxia

A

Cyanotic congenital diseases
Extracardiac vascular shunt

PLUS SAME CAUSES OF V/Q MISMATCH

pneumonia
atelectasis
ARDS
Asthma
Bronchiolitis
Foreign Body
277
Q

Define Hypercabia and what does it mean

A

increased CO2 tension in the arterial blood ( PaCO2)

Means that ventilation is inadequate.

278
Q

Causes of hypercabia

A

airway obstruction ( lower or upper)
Lung tissue disease
Decreased or inadequate respiratory effort ( central hypoventilation)

279
Q

Best way to measure hypercapnia

A

ABG

Capnography showing the end tidal CO2 may be not identical to arterial CO2.

280
Q

What clinical sign makes you think of hypercabia?

A

decreased level of consciousness

281
Q

The Sat O2 can be normal in some cases with hypercabia T/F

A

True

282
Q

What are the factors associated with increased work of breathing?

A

Increased airway resistance
Decreased lung compliance
Use of accessory muscles
Disorder in CNS control of breathing

283
Q

Formula for resistance and meaning when airflow is laminar vs. turbulent

A

Normal breathing-> laminar flow ( organized,quiet)
Resistance is 1/r^4 ( means that small changes in diameter will increase significantly resistance and work of breathing.

Agitation, crying–> turbulent flow
Resistance is 1/r^5( meaning that in addition to small size this flow will increase the resistance .

So maintain patient calmed to decrease resistance.

284
Q

Definition of compliance

A

change in lung volume produced by a change in driving pressure across the lung

285
Q

Name the inspiratory muscles of respiration

A
diaphgram
intercostal muscles
accessory muscles( abdomen, neck)
286
Q

How does Inspiration occurs:

A

inspiratory muscles ( mainly diaphgram) increases intrathoracic volume–> decreases pressure

When intrathoracic pressure is less than the atmopsheric. air flows into the lungs.

287
Q

How does expiration occurs:

A

relaxation of inspiratory muscles and elastic recoil of the lung and the chest wall.

These changes increase intrathoracic pressure more than atmospheric leading to expiration.

288
Q

How is diaphgram contraction different if dome shape and flattened?

A

dome shaped- more forceful

flattened ( ie. lung hyperinflation in asthma)-contraction is less forceful and ventilation is less efficient.

289
Q

How is the control of breathing through central and peripheral chemoreceptors

A

centrally- respond to changes in H+ in CSF, PaCO2

peripherally (eg carotid body)- respong to decrease in PaO2 ; and some respond to increased PaCO2

290
Q

Mechanisms involved in breathing control

A

Brainstem respiratory centers
Central and peripheral chemoreceptors
Voluntary control (cerebral cortex)

291
Q

Mild vs. severe respiratory distress

A

Mild:
Tachypnea
Mild increase in respiratory effort ( eg.nasal flaring,retractions)
Abnormal airway sounds( strictor, wheezing, grunting)
Mottling

Severe  or possible respiratory failure:
Marked tachypnea, apnea
hypoventilation or bradypnea
abnormal airway sounds 
pale, cool skin, cyanosis
DECREASED LEVEL OF CONSCIOUSNESS.
292
Q

Respiratory failure

A
state of inadequate oxygenation, ventilation or both. 
abnormal appearance ( altered consciousness), poor color, and reduced responsiveness.
293
Q

Where do you auscultate during respiratory physical exam?

A

Anterior ( on either side of the breastbone)
Posterior
Lateral ( under the axilla)

294
Q

Which are the types of respiratory distress/failure?

A

Upper airway obstruction
Lower airway obstruction
Lung tissue disease
Disordered control of breathing

295
Q

Causes of upper airway obstruction

A

foreign body
infection
swelling of airway ( anaphylaxis, tonsillar hyperthrophy, croup, epiglottitis)
mass ( pharyngeal or peritonsilar abscess)
thick secretions
congenital abnormalities ( congenital subglotic stenosis)
decreased level of consciousness- muscles relax, tongue falls back and obstruct the oropharynx

296
Q

Common causes of lower airway obstruction

A

Asthma

Bronchiolitis

297
Q

Presentation of upper airway obstruction

A
respiratory distress
drooling, snoring, gargling sounds
stridor
poor air entry at auscultation
poor chest rise
298
Q

Presentation of low airway obstruction

A
increased RR, 
respiratory effort
possible decreased air movement on auscultation
Prolonged expiratory phase
wheezing 
cough
299
Q

Explain the mechanism of air trapping and lung hyperinflation

A

there is an increase in intrapleural pressure because of the forced expiration.

increased intrapleural pressure compresses airways proximal to the alveoli

So further expiratory obstruction.

  • children tend to breath slower to increase tidal volume
  • is different from infants ! (pg 125)
300
Q

Why does grunting occurs?

A

grunting produces early glottic closure during expiration– compensatory mechanism to maintain positive airway pressure and prevent collapse of the alveoli and small airways.

301
Q

In lung disease hypoxia occurs first than hypercapnia T/F

A

True, in lung tissue disease the kids have better ventilation than oxygenation.

302
Q

Causes of disordered control of breathing

A

neurologic ( seizures, CNS infections, head injury, tumor)
metabolic abnormalities
drug overdose

303
Q

Breath sounds in upper airway obstruction

A

stridor(typically inspiratory)
barking cough
hoarseness

304
Q

Breath sounds in lower airway obstruction

A

wheezing (typically expiratory)

prolonged expiratory phase

305
Q

Breath sounds in lung tissue disease

A

Grunting
Crackles
Decreased breath sounds.

306
Q

Rescue breathing in respiratory arrest

A
  • Give 12 to 20 breaths per min ( 1 breath every 3-5 seconds)
  • Give each breath in one second
  • Visible chest rise
  • check pulse every 2 minutes, if pulseless CPR
  • Use o2 as soon as possible
307
Q

How to do you know the size of the oropharyngeal airway in children?

A

it should extend from the corner of the patients lips to the tragus or the angle of the jaw

308
Q

How do you place an oropharnygeal airway?

A

use a tongue depressor and put the oropharyngeal airway in horizontal and then put it into place

check for adequate air exchange, place bag mask and see inflation

309
Q

How to do you know the size of the nasoopharyngeal airway in children?

A

it should extend from the nare to the tragus or the angle of the jaw

310
Q

How do you place a nasopharyngeal airway?

A

add lubricant and insert it into the patients nose

insert all the way into the disc

311
Q

Mac vs Miller blade for intubation

A

Mac is curved

Miller is straight

312
Q

When is Miller (straight) blade preferred over the Mac?

A

In children younger than 2 years
they have a floppy omega shaped epiglottis

with the miller you can put the blade on top of the epiglottis and facilitate view of vocal cords

313
Q

In which situations is preferred cuffed and uncuffed ET tubes?

A

uncuffed:
- young children

cuffed ET:

  • higher pressures
  • mechanical ventilation for prolonged time
  • aspiration concern
314
Q

What do you do if a patient is with respiratory distress or failure? (heart ok)

A

Airway

  • check patency- let children positioning or implement manuevers: head tilt chin lift, jaw thrust
  • airway suctioning if indicated
  • consider an oropharyngeal airway or nasopharyngeal to improve airway patency or openness ( usually in decreased consciousness, or patients with gag reflex loss)

Breathing

  • monitor SaO2
  • Provide O2. use a high concentration delivery device such as non rebreathing mask
  • Administer inhaled medication( albuterol or epinephrine) if needed - reduce airway swelling
  • Assist ventilation with bag mask device
  • prepare for advanced airway

Circulation
-Check heart rate, rhythm, blood pressure

315
Q

In which conditions of respiratory distress you have to be careful with suctioning?

A

in cases of upper airway edema from infection- this may lead to agitation in children and further respiratory distress.

316
Q

CROUP what is it? organism?

A

layngotracheitis
common in winter,infectious
characterized by inspiratory stridor, barking cough, and hoarseness
Parainfluenza type 1 (MC)

VERY less common:
RSV
Mycoplasma pneumoniae

317
Q

Classification of croup

A

Mild- occasional barking cough, little or no stridor at rest, absent or mild retractions.

Moderate- frequent barking cough, easily audible stridor at rest, retractions at rest, little or not agitation, good air entry by auscultation of the peripheral lung fields

Severe- frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory and occasional expiratory stridor, marked retractions, significant agitation, decreased air entry by auscultation of the lungs

impending respiratory failure:
all of severe plus lethargy/decreased level of consciousness and pallor/cyanosis despite supplementary O2

318
Q

Treatment of croup per severity degree

A

mild
dexamethasone

Moderate to severe:

  • NPO
  • Dexamethasone, humidified O2, NEBULIZED EPINEPHRINE
  • Observe for at least 2 hours after giving nebulized epinephrine to ensure no recurrence of stridor
  • consider heliox ( helium -oxygen mixture) for severe disease if the child requires no higher than 40% inspired O2 concentration

Impending respiratory failure

  • high [O2]- non rebreathing mask
  • assisted ventilation( bag masked ventilation timed to support child’s own inspiration) for peristent , severe hypoxemia despite O2 vent.
  • Dexamethasone IV/IM
  • Endotracheal intubation ( smaller ET tube than expected to reduce injury to subglottic area)
  • prepare for surgical airway if needed
319
Q

What ET tube size do you use in respiratory failure due to croup?

A

smaller ET tube than expected to reduce injury to subglottic area

320
Q

Anaphylaxis measures if mild and moderate/severe

A

Mild

  • remove offensive agent
  • ask caregiver or patient about history of allergies, look bracelent
  • consider antihistamine dose

Moderate/severe
-IM epinephrine each 15-20 minutes; repeated doses may be needed.
- Methylprednisolone or equivalent steroid IV
- If bronchospasm - give albuterol by meter dose inhaler or nebulized sln
- If severe bronchospasm, give nebulized solution
-Anticipate use of ET
- Anaphylaxis–>hypotension
Administer NSS or LR 20 ml/KG bolus ( repeat as needed)
- For hypotension unresponsive to fluids and iM epinephrine, administer an epinephrine infusion titrated to achieve adequate BP for age

321
Q

What do you do in anaphylaxis if patient has refractory hypotension?- not responding to fluids/epinephrine boluses?

A

epinephrine infusion titrated to achieve adequate BP for age

322
Q

Foreign body airway obstruction management in infants

A

If mild, do not intervene. Call for help and allow the infant to spill it out coughing

If severe:

  1. confirm airway obstruction
  2. Give up to 5 back slaps and up to 5 chest thrusts ( 2 fingers)
  3. repeat step 2 until objects comes out or kid unresponsive

If unresponsive activate emergency response system, CPR, and with each breath delivery check airway to see if object is there. NO blind FINGER

323
Q

Foreign body airway obstruction management in >1 yr to puberty

A

If mild, do not intervene. Call for help and allow the infant to spill it out coughing

If severe:

  1. confirm airway obstruction , ask are you choking?
  2. Stand or kneel– Heimlich manuever
  3. repeat step 2 until objects comes out or kid unresponsive

If unresponsive activate emergency response system, CPR, and with each breath delivery check airway to see if object is there. NO blind FINGER

324
Q

Complications of hyperventilation

A

-providing too many breaths or breaths with too much volume.
Complications:
- Gastric distention–>high risk of vomit/aspiration, can prevent adequate mov of diaphgram affecting ventilation
- pneumothorax: decreased blood return to heart, risk of lung collapse and complications ( hypoxemia, obstructive shock)
-severe air trapping - decrease oxygenation, decreased venous return to heart and CO.

325
Q

What is bronchiolitis?

A

lower airway obstruction secondary to airway edema, mucous and cellular debris. Impaired gas exchange can occur as a result of airway obstruction and ventilation- perfusion inequalities.

< 2 years
current or antecedent upper respiratory tract infection symptoms
late fall or winter months.

326
Q

What causes bronchiolitis?

A

MC- RSV

other viruses:
adenovirus, influenza, human metapneumovirus, and parainfluenza,

327
Q

Bronchiolitis Dx?

A

Clinical:
< 2 years
current or antecedent upper respiratory tract infection symptoms
late fall or winter months.
respiratory distress, such as tachypnea, intercostal retractions, and wheezing, are not necessarily correlated with the level of hypoxemia.

Labs:
Often not done, but PCR is the most accurate
Chest X ray
ABGs

328
Q

Treatment of bronchiolitis

A

Suctioning and supplemental oxygen
- if they persist with ss, trial with bronchodilators- if work they continue.

  • Pts with bronchiolitis dont respond to steroids so dont give them!
329
Q

Why pulsus paradoxus in severe asthma

A

airways start to tighten and swell. The lungs start to overinflate in response, which puts extra pressure on the veins carrying unoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.

As a result, blood backs up in the right ventricle which presses against the left side of the heart.

330
Q

Management of acute asthma

A
  • humidified O2 in high concentration via nasal cannula or O2 mask; titrate with pulseox > 94%
  • Albuterol by meter-dose inhaler or nebulizer solution
  • Oral corticosteroids
331
Q

Management of moderate/severe asthma

A
  • humidified O2 in high concentration to maintain SaO2 > 95%;use non-breathing mask if needed. If unsuccessful- noninvasive positive pressure ventilation or ET intubation
  • Albuterol by meter-dose inhaler or nebulizer solution. If wheezing or aeration not alleviated– continuous albuterol
  • Corticosteroids PO/IB

PLUS

  • Ipratropium by nebulizer solution
  • Magnesium sulfate by slow (15-30 min)IV bolus infusion , monitoring heart rate and BP
  • Perform ABGs, Chest Xray
332
Q

Peak expiratory flow in mild, moderate and severe asthma

A

mild: > 80%
moderate 60-80%
severe <60%

333
Q

Why giving magnesium in asthma?

A

produces smooth muscle relaxation

thought to act by enhancing calcium uptake in the sarcoplasmic reticulum(3) and/or as a calcium antagonist

334
Q

Management of impending respiratory failure in asthma?

A
  • O2 via nonrebreathing mask
  • Albuterol via continuous nebulizer
  • Corticosteroid
  • Terbutaline SC or IV infusion titrate but monitor for toxicity - b adrenergic so risk of seizures, angina, hypertension or hypotension, tachycardia with rates up to 200 beats per minute, arrhythmias, nervousness, headache,
  • bilevel positive airway pressure
  • Endotracheal intubation
335
Q

Examples of lung tissue disease

A
Infectious pneumonia
Chemical pneumonitis
Aspiration pneumonitis
Cardiogenic pulmonary edema 
Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema( ARDS)
336
Q

What is chemical pneumonitis,

A

inflammation of the lung tissue caused by inhalation or aspiration of toxic liquids, gases or particulate matter such as dust or fumes.

-can lead to pulmonary edema and increased capillary permeabilty

337
Q

Management of chemical pneumonitis

A

Albuterol

CPAP or noninvasive ventilation, potentially ET intubation

338
Q

Management of aspiration pneumonia

A

Consider CPAP or noninvasive ventilation, potentially ET intubation

Abcs if fever + infiltrate on chest x ray

339
Q

prophylaxis with Ab is indicated in aspiration pneumonia T/F

A

FALSE

Abcs only if fever + infiltrate on chest x ray

340
Q

What is the most common cause of acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema in children?

A

Left ventricular myocardial dysfunction

can be congenital heart disease, myocarditis, cardiomyopathy, inflammatory processes..

341
Q

Interventions besides airway, breathing and circulation for cardiogenic pulmonary edema

A

Ventilatory support ( noninvasive or mechanical ventilation with PEEP)
Diuretics
Normalize temperature.

342
Q

Indications for ventilatory support ( noninvasive vent or ET intubation) in cardiogenic pulmonary edema

A
  1. Persistent hypoxemia despite oxygen administration and noninvasive ventilation
  2. Impending respiratory failure
  3. Hemodynamic compromise ( hypotension, severe tachycardia)
343
Q

ARDS criteria

A
Acute onset ( within 7 days of insult)
PaO2/FiO2 300 or less
Oxygenation Index >=4
New infiltrate on chest xray
No evidence for a cardiogenic or fluid overload cause of pulmonary edema 

Oxygenation Index([FIO2 x mean airway pressure x100]/PaO2)

344
Q

Oxygenation Index FORMULA

A

([FIO2 x mean airway pressure x100]/PaO2)

345
Q

Medications to avoid in NM disease

A

syccynilcholine for intubation–> hyperK, malignant hyperthermia
amino glycosides: intrinsic neuromuscular activity that worsen respiratory muscle weakness.

346
Q

self-inflating bags vs. free flow bag

A

constant concentration of oxygen
refill even if the seal is poor or ventilation is inadequate
resucitation scenario
not as experienced personnel

if o2 source is empty is not connected,
snesthesia, ICU care team
depends on adequate sealing, and rate of squeezing to deliver adequate vol.

347
Q

Bag size

A

at least 450-500 mL or larger in infants and young child

in older children or adolescents 1000mL or larger

348
Q

The bag mask ventilation is for scenario were there are two rescuers, if one it should be mouth to barrier device technique T/F

A

True

In case there are 2 , there can also be two ventilating the patient. one rescuer does the E-C clamp technique with both hands while the other delivers O2.

349
Q

Situations in which 2 person bag mask ventilation may be necessary

A
  1. Difficulty making a seal
  2. providers hands are too small
  3. Significant airway resistance or poor lung compliance
  4. Spinal motion restriction is necesary
350
Q

Once you are giving oxygen through bag mask, how do you check is correct?

A
  • chest rise with each breath
  • O2 saturation
  • Exhaled CO2
  • HR
  • BP
  • Distal air entry
  • Signs of improvement of deterioration
351
Q

What do you think of when there is sudden increase in lung stiffness during ventilation with bag mask?

A

May indicate:
airway obstruction
decreased lung compliance
development of a pneumothorax

also- if there is excessive ventilation which leads to lung distention

352
Q

Types of suction devices

A

Portable suction devices (not very adequate force -80 to -120mmHg)

Bulb or syringe suction device ( no requirement of outside vacuum, but inadequate in large patients or copious secretions)

Wall mounted suction (higher suction force more than -300mmHg)

353
Q

Complications of suctioning

A
hypoxia
vagal stimulation resulting in bradycardia
gagging,vomiting
soft tissue injury
agitation
354
Q

use of soft vs rigid catheter for suctioning

A

soft- aspiration of thin secretions, suctioning in an advanced airway (ET tube)

rigid-suctioning of the oropharynx, particularly if thick secretions

355
Q

Why suctioning attempts should be 10 seconds or less?

A

reduces risk of hypoxemia.

And you can give short periods of Oxygen 100% immediately before and after.

EXCEPT in patients who have really copius secretions needed to be removed for breathing

356
Q

When do you use an oropharyngeal airway?

A

Unconscious child with no gag reflex
procedures to open airway didnt work

NEVER USE IN SEMICONSCIOUS OR CONSCIOUS- stimulates gagging reflex and vomit.

357
Q

What is the FiO2 and flow of a low flow nasal cannula?

A

FiO2- 20-60%

Flow 0.5-4L/min

358
Q

What is the FiO2 and flow of a low flow face mask?

A

FiO2- 35-60%

Flow 4-10 L/min

359
Q

What is the FiO2 and flow of a high flow non rebreathing mask with reservoir?

A

FiO2- 60-95%

Flow 10-15 L/min

360
Q

What is the FiO2 and flow of a high flow nasal cannula?

A

FiO2> 60%

Flow 4-40L/min

361
Q

Name parts of the nebulizer

A
Mouthpiece or face mask
T piece
spacer
nebulizer cup
nebulizer reservoir
tubing
compressor
362
Q

What is the gas flow you have to maintain for nebulizer

A

5-6 lts

363
Q

How long should be the treatment with neulizer

A

8-10 minutes

364
Q

For inhaled medications, why do you need a spacer?

A

to effectively deliver to the lungs. If no spacer, only 1/3 arrives to the lungs and the rest stays at the mouth

365
Q

How do you use a Metered Dose Inhaler with spacer device?

A

While the child is exhaling, activate the MDI by pressuring down.

Tell the child to take 5 slow, deep, breaths through the mouth piece and hold the last breath for 10 seconds.

366
Q

Pulse oximetry can accurately estimate oxygen saturation but does not provide evidence of oxygen delivery! It also doesnt directly evaluate the effectiveness of ventilation (CO2).

A

TRUE

367
Q

Sudden deterioration in an intubated patient causes

A

DOPE mnemonic

Displacement of the tube - out of trachea or into the R/L trachea

Obstruction of the tube- secretions( blood, pus, foreign body), kinking of the body

Pneumothorax

simple: decreased SAO2, breath sounds and chest expansion decreased in the affected sides.
tension: same as simple plus hypotension and decreased CO. Trachea is shifted away from affected side.

Equipment failure

  • disconnection of the O2 supply from ventilation system
  • Leak in ventilator circuit
  • failure of power supply to the ventilator
368
Q

Presentation of simple vs. tension Pneumothorax

A

Pneumothorax
simple: decreased SAO2, breath sounds and chest expansion decreased in the affected sides.

tension: same as simple plus hypotension and decreased CO. Trachea is shifted away from affected side.

369
Q

Management of intubated patient who has a sudden deterioration

A

In addition to DOPE

Observe for chest rise and symmetry
auscultate
check monitors (SaO2, HR, Capnography)
Suction ET tube if secretions
Use sedatives or analgesics to reduce agitation and control of ventilation; ONLY when you have ruled out a correctable cause
370
Q

Definition of shock

A

physiologic state characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion to meet metabolic demands and tissue oxygenation.
- is often but NOT ALWAYS characterized by inadequate peripheral and end organ perfusion)

371
Q

What are the consequences of inadequate tissue perfusion

A
tissue hypoxia
anaerobic metabolism
accumulation of lactic acid and CO2
irreversible cell damage
organ damage
372
Q

Goal for treating shock

A

improve systemic perfusion and O2 delivery

373
Q

Explain utility of Central Venous Oxygen Saturation (ScvO2) in shock

A

normally, arterial blood contains MORE O2 than what tissues need.
If demands increase-tissues extract more leading to reduced O2 saturation in the Scvo2

so it helps us identify when there are increased demands in the body.

If O2 content is normal and metabolic demands normal, and Scvo2, think of decreased CO

374
Q

Adequate tissue delivery depends on 3 things..

A
  1. Sufficient O2 content in the blood
  2. Adequate blood flow ( CO)
  3. Appropriate distribution of blood flow to tissues
375
Q

Arterial oxygen content formula

A

Saturated + unsaturated

1.34xHb x SaO2)+(0.003 x PaO2

376
Q

Oxygen delivery formula

A

CO + Arterial Oxygen content

CO X ( (1.34xHb x SaO2)+(0.003 x PaO2))

377
Q

Formula for CO

A

HR X SVR

378
Q

BP formula

A

CO x SVR

379
Q

O2 delivery may be normal despite hypoxemia if the CO increases commesurate with the decrease in 02 content

A

true!

O2 delivery=CO + Arterial Oxygen content

380
Q

Compensatory mechanisms for hypoxia

A

Increased CO initially

polycythemia if hypoxia is chronic

381
Q

Which is the compensatory mechanism if CO decreases

A

CO= SVx HR
So either one, or both can increase

HR increases is LIMITED-Otherwise arrythmia and less time of diastole and filling ventricle.

382
Q

How are the compensatory mechanisms for increasing CO different between infants and children/adolescents?

A

In infants, CO highly depends on HR. Their SV is small and has limited capacity to increase.

In child/adolescent is HR and SV but remember that HR is limited.

383
Q

How is the appropriate distribution of blood determined?

A

by the size of the blood vessels supplying a specific organ. – vascular resistance.

  • vessels large-> resistance is low
  • vessel small-> resistance high
384
Q

Vasconstriction = abnormally increased resistance

A

True

385
Q

Determinants of Stroke volume

A

Preload, contractility, afterload

386
Q

Indirect measure of preload?

A

Central venous pressure, but is partially true. Because this also depends on ventricle compliance and pressure and volume measures are different.

387
Q

Compensatory mechanisms of shock

A

First: Increase HR
When O2 delivery to tissues is compromised BLOOD FLOW IS REDIRECTED to VITAL ORGANS–> occurs through selective increase in SVR:
reduced peripheral perfusion (delayed capillary refill,
cool extremities, less easily palpable peripheral pulses)
and reduced perfusion to gut and kidneys (decreased
urine output)

Increased contractility
Increase in venous smooth tone– improving venous return and preload.

388
Q

As CO decreases in shock, BP can be normal or slighly elevated because increased SVR compensation

A

True

389
Q

Pulse pressure

A

SBP-DBP

390
Q

What happens with Pulse pressure in shock?

A

narrows, because an increased in SVR raises DBP.

In sepsis, SVR is low, so diastolic pressure decreases and pulse pressure widens.

391
Q

Compensated vs. decompensated shock

A

depends on the SBP.

Compensated: signs of inadequate tissue perfusion but bp IS within nom al range. SPB above fifth percentile of age ( 70+(agex2))

Decompensated: hypotension

SHOCK CAN BE PRESENT EVEN IF THE BP IS NORMAL.

392
Q

SHOCK CAN BE PRESENT EVEN IF THE BP IS NORMAL.

A

True, is a compensatory mechanism

393
Q

Hypotensive shock is the new name for Decompensated shock

A

True

394
Q

Hypotension is generally a late finding in most types of shock.

A

Partially true,

In sepsis can occur early because mediators of sepsis produce vasodilation and reduce SVR.

395
Q

When SVR is decreased hypotension will be an early rather than a late sign of shock

A

True, septic shock.

396
Q

Hypotension formula

A

SBP: 70 + [age in years x2]

397
Q

compensated shock–> hypotensive shock–> cardiac arrest

A

True

warning signs: loss of peripheral pulses and decreased level of consciousness
Bradycardia and weak central pulses- omnious signs of impending cardiac arrest

398
Q

What does third space mean

A

plasma loss into the interstitium or capillary leak

399
Q

Goals of shock treatment

A
Improve O2 delivery
Balance tissue perfusion and metabolic demand
Reverse perfusion abnormalities
support organ function
prevent progression to cardiac arrest
400
Q

Optimization of O2 content in shock

A

High flow O2 ( Nonrebreathing mask)
invasive or noninvasive ventilation to improve oxygenation
If Hb low, provide RBC

401
Q

Ionized serum Ca changes with ph

A

Acidosis–> increased Ca

402
Q

General management of shock

A
  1. Positioning
  2. Support airway, oxygenation and ventilation
  3. Establishing vascular access
  4. Provide fluid resuscitation
  5. Monitoring
  6. Performing frequent reassessment
  7. Obtaining labs
  8. Meds
  9. Consulting specialists.
403
Q

Fluid resuscitation in shock

A

In general, isotonic crystalloids in a 20mL/kg bolus over 5-20 min.

In severe hypotension, hypovolemic shock: over 5-10 min

In cardiogenic shock-smaller bolus ( 5-10 mL/kg given over 10-20 min)

Overall, reassess and repeat boluses as needed.

404
Q

Good urine output response after shock therapy in infants/young children, and older children and adolescents

A

infants and young children: 1.5-2 mL/kg/hr

older children and adolescents: 1 mL/kg/hr

405
Q

Possible etiology and intervention for decreased Hb and Hcto in shock

A

Hemorrhage
Fluid resuscitation (dilution)
Hemolysis

Possible interventions:
Administer O2
Control bleeding, transfuse blood
Titrate fluid administration

406
Q

Possible etiology and intervention for decreased or increased WBCs in shock

A

sepsis

obtain appropriate cultures
give Abcs

407
Q

Possible etiology and intervention for decreased platelets in shock

A

DIC
Decreased platelet production

Transfuse platelets if has serious bleeding
ibtain PT,PTT, fibrinogen, D-dimers

408
Q

Possible etiology and intervention for increased or decreased glucose in shock

A

stress
sepsis
decreased production ( liver failure)
adrenal insufficiency

give dextrose bolus and start infusion of dextrose-containing solution if needed.

409
Q

Possible etiology and intervention for increased or decreased K in shock

A
Renal dysfunction
Acidosis (increases K)
Diuresis ( decreased)
Adrenal insufficiency (increased)

correct acidosis
treat hypo or hyperK

410
Q

Possible etiology and intervention for decreased ionized [Ca] in shock

A

Sepsis
Transfusion of blood preserved with citrate phosphate dextran
Colloid administration
Buffering agents ( Sodium bicarbonate)

Give Ca.

411
Q

Possible etiology and intervention for increased Lactate in shock

A

increased as product of anaerobic metabolism from tissue hypoperfusion

  • tissue hypoxia
  • increased glucose production
  • Decreased metabolism( liver failure)

Increase tissue perfusion
Treat acidosis if end-organ dysfunction is impaired.

412
Q

Inotropes examples and MOA

A
  • Dopamine
  • Epinephrine
  • Dobutamine

MOA
Increase cardiac contractility, HR
Variable effect on SVR

-includes agents with both adrenergic and B adrenergic effects.

413
Q

PDE examples and MOA

A

Milrinone

Decrease SVR
Improve coronary artery blood flow
improve contractility

414
Q

Vasodilators examples and MOA

A

Nitroglycerin
Nitroprusside

Decrease SVR and venous tone

415
Q

Vasopressors examples and MOA

A

Epi ( doses>0.3 mcg/kg/min)
NE
Dopamine ( >10mcg/kg/min)
Vasopressin

Increase SVR
Increase myocardial contractility ( except vasopressin)

416
Q

Examples of isotonic crystalloid solutions

A

NS and lactate ringer

417
Q

isotonic crystalloid solutions are the first choice of resucitation fluid

A

True

418
Q

advantages isotonic crystalloid solutions

A

inexpensive, readily available, no sensitivity reactions

419
Q

disadvantages colloid solutions

A

not readily available, may cause sensitivity reactions,

use limmited to 20-40mL/kg

420
Q

Volume of fluid and rate for hypovolemic/distributive shock

A

20mL/kg bolus over 5-10 min ( repeat as needed)

421
Q

Volume of fluid and rate for Cardiogenic shock( non-poisoning)

A

5-10 mL/kg bolus over 10-20 min ( repeat as needed)

422
Q

Volume of fluid and rate for poisoning ( Ca channel blockers, B adrenergic blockers

A

same as cardiogenic shock,

5-10 mL/kg bolus over 10-20 min ( repeat as needed)

423
Q

Volume of fluid and rate for DKA with compensated shock

A

10-20 mL/kg PER LOCAL PROTOCOL~ 1-2 HRS

424
Q

Rapid fluid delivery system

A

2 large IV catheters
Place an in line 3 way stopcock
deliver fluid by using a 30- to 60 mL syringe to push fluids throught the stopcock

425
Q

Indication for blood product administration

A

Inadequate perfusion despite 2-3 boluses of 20 mL/kg OF isotonic crystalloid. administer 10 mL/kg of blood product.

426
Q

crossmatching meaning

A

is testing before a blood transfusion to determine if the donor’s blood is compatible with the blood of an intended recipient

427
Q

Priority for the blood type or blood products

A

Crossmatched
Type specific
Type O negative ( O negative preferred in females, O+/- in males)

*predered for females of childbearing age to avoid Rh sensitization

428
Q

Rapid infusion of cold blood or blood products, mparticularly in large vol, may lead to

A

hypothermia
myocardial dysfunction
ionized hypoCa

To minimize: warm blood and blood products
and if hypoCa is anticipated with a specific product administer Ca empirically

429
Q

Clinical signs of hypoglycemia

A
poor perfusion
diaphoresis
tachycardia
hypothermia
irritability or lethargy
hypotension
430
Q

Definition of. hypoglycemia

A

preterm/term neonates < 45

infants/children/adolescents < 60

431
Q

Management of hypoglycemia

A

minimal ss and normal mental status: oral glucose( eg,orange juice)

symptomatic- IV glucose 0.5-1 g/kg.
IV dextrose D25W(2-4mL/kg) OR D10W(5-10 mL/kg)

432
Q

IV dextrose solutions

A

IV dextrose D25W(2-4mL/kg) OR D10W(5-10 mL/kg)

433
Q

Why not routinely infuse dextrose containing fluids for volume resucitation -

A

hyperglycemia–> osmotic diuresis–> exacerbation of hypovolemia

434
Q

Children with hypovolemic shock who receive fluids within the first hour have better chance of recovery and survival.

A

True! Adequate timing is very important!

435
Q

Dehydration definition

A

loss of water with varying loss of electrolytes leading to a hypertonic ( hypernatremic) , isotonic, hypotonic ( hyponatremic) state.

436
Q

Clinically significant dehydration in children

A

at least 5% of volume depletion- corresponding to a fluid deficit of 50 mL/kg or greater.

437
Q

Degrees of dehydration and %(mL/kg)

A

Mild - 5% (50)
Moderate 10% (100)
Severe 15%(150)

438
Q

Failure to improve hypovolemic shock with at least 3 boluses of isotonic crystalloid solution indicates..

A

o The extent of fluid losses may be underestimated
oThe type of fluid replacement may need to be altered (eg, need for colloid or blood)
oThere are ongoing fluid lossess( occult bleeding)
oInitial assumption about the etiology may be incorrect

439
Q

Classification of blood loss

A

mild -< 30%
moderate 30-45%
Severe > 45%

440
Q

Management of hypovolemic shock

A
  • Rapidly infuse 20 mL/kg boluses of isotonic crystalloid
  • May repeat up to 3 boluses
  • If pt continues unstable consider transfusion of RBCs if hemorrhagic, or consider re-evaluate what is going on.
441
Q

3 mL to 1 mL route

A

In hemorrhagic shock, give about 3 mL of isotonic crystalloid for every 1 mL of blood lost.

442
Q

blood replacement in hemorrhagic shock

A

use PRBCs in 10mL/kg

443
Q

Indications for transfusion in hemorrhagic shock

A

Crystalloid refractory hypotension or poor perfusion

Known significant blood loss

444
Q

Any medication that can be administered IV can be given IO route T/F

A

True

445
Q

Contraindications to IO access

A

Fractures and crush injuries near the access site
Conditions withf fragile bones ( osteogenesis imperfecta)
Previous attempts to establish IO access in the same bone.

Avoid IO cannulation if infection is present in the overlying tissues

446
Q

Symptomatic bradycardia

A

bradycardia ( usually < 60/min) + cardiopulmonary compromise

cardiopulmonary compromise: hypotension, altered mental status, signs of shock

447
Q

Primary vs. Secondary Bradycardia

A

Primary: congenital or acquired heart conditions that slow the spontaneous depolarization rate of the hearts normal pacemaker cells or slow conduction through system

Secondary: result fo noncardiac conditions affecting the heart

448
Q

Causes of primary bradycardia

A

Congenital abnormality of the heart pacemaker or conduction system
Surgical injury to the pacemaker or conduction system
Cardiomyopathy
myocarditis

449
Q

Causes of secondary bradycardia

A
hypoxia
acidosis
hypotension
hypothermia
drug effects
450
Q

ECG characteristics of bradycardia

A

HR- slow
P waves- may or not be visible
QRS narrow or wide ( depending on the origin of the rhythm and/or location of injury to the conduction system)

451
Q

Conditions in which bradycardia may be normal

A
  • healthy children when metabolic demands are relatively low( ie sleep)
  • athletes
452
Q

why athletes have lower HR- Sinus bradycardia?

A

they have high SV and increased vagal tone

453
Q

AV block

A

disturbance of electrical conduction through the AV nose

454
Q

First degree AV block

A

Prolonged PR

asymptomatic

455
Q

Causes of First degree AV block

A
  • May be present in normal children
  • Increased vagal tone
  • myocarditis
  • MI
  • cardiac surgery
  • electrolytes( hyperK)
  • hypoxemia
  • acute rheumatic fever
  • intrinsic AV nodal disease
  • Drugs ( Ca channel blockers,digoxin, B adrenergic blockers)
456
Q

Second Degree AV block, Mobitz I

A

Occurs at the level of AV node

progressive prolongation of the PR interval until an atrial impulse is not conducted to the ventricles.

So until a p wave is not followed by a QRS

presyncope

457
Q

Causes Second Degree AV block, Mobitz I

A
  • Note: may be present in healthy children
  • Any condition that stimulates vasovagal tone
  • MI
  • Drugs ( Ca channel blockers,digoxin, B adrenergic blockers)
458
Q

Second Degree AV block, Mobitz II

A

Occurs below the AV node

Non-conduction of some atrial impulses to the ventricle without any change in the PR.

Often consistent ratio of atrial to ventricular depolarizations~ 2pwaves :1QRS

palpitations, syncope, pre-syncope

459
Q

Causes Second Degree AV block, Mobitz II

A
  • Intrinsic conduction normal abnormalities
  • Cardiac surgery
  • Myocardial infarction
460
Q

Third degree AV block (aka complete AV block)

A

None of the atrial pulses conduct to the ventricles

No relationship between P waves and QRS complexes
No atrial impulse reaches the ventricle
Ventricular rhythm maintained by a slower pacemaker.

fatigue, syncope, pre-syncope

461
Q

Causes Third degree AV block (aka complete AV block)

A
  • Extensive conduction system disease or injury, myocarditis
  • Cardiac surgery
  • Congenital complete heart block
  • MI
  • Increased parasympathetic tone, toxic drug effects or severe hypoxia/acidosis.
462
Q

Signs of hemodynamic instability associated with tachyarrythmias

A

hypotension
altered mental status
signs of shock

others: sudden collapse with rapid, weak pulses
respiratory distress/failure

463
Q

How tachyarrhythmia affects cardiac output and coronary perfusion?

A

decreased SV due to insufficient time of filling during diastole

no diastole–poor perfusion

Tachyarrhythmia increases myocardial O2 demand leading to myocardial dysfunction.

Inadequate CO–> cardiogenic shock

464
Q

What is sinus tachycardia

A

a sinus node depolarization rate faster than normal for the childs age.

in response to need for increased CO or O2 delivery.

Narrow tachycarida (=<0.09)- is not a tachyarrythmia.

465
Q

Causes of sinus tachycardia

A
  • exercise
  • fever
  • pain
  • anxiety
  • tissue hypoxia
  • hypovolemia
  • shock
  • fever
  • metabolic stress
  • injury
  • toxins/poisons/drugs
  • anemia
466
Q

Characteristics of sinus tachycardia

A

usually < 220 in infants
<180 in children

R-R variable
QRS narrow
P waves and PR normal

467
Q

Cause of SVT

A

Reentry mechanism through accessory pathway or within AV node

Other mechanisms that can cause SVT:
Atrial flutter
Ectopic atrial focus

468
Q

In infants SVT is often diagnosed when CHF develops

A

True,

common signs of CHF includes irritability, poor feeding, rapid breathing, unusual sleepiness, vomiting, pale

In order children signs may be shortness of breath, palpitations, chest pain, light headedness

469
Q

ECG characteristics SVT

A

infants > 220
children > 180

P waves may be absent or abnormal ( after P wave)
RR constant
QRS narrow

470
Q

Which is the most common type of SVT in children

A

Narrow QRS complex SVT , IN> 90%

471
Q

What are the types of SVT?

A

Narrow QRS complex SVT ( MC in ediatrics)

Wide QRS complex SVT

472
Q

What is Wide QRS complex SVT

A

SVT with aberrant intraventricular conduction ( uncommon in peds) produces a wide complex QRS

Occurs as a result of rate-related bundle branch block within the ventricles or pre-existing bundle branch block

-Can be also caused by accessory pathway ( different from AV node) from atria to ventricle, and then return through AV node or another accessory pathway

473
Q

Sinus tach vs. SVT

A

Sinus tach

  • Gradual onset
  • Hx compatible with ST- fever, pain, dehydration
  • PE: Signs of underlying condition( crackles, fever, hypovol)
  • HR in infants < 220/min, children< 180/min

SVT:
-Abrupt onset or termination, or both
Infant: symptoms of CHF ( rales, hepatomegaly)
CHild: sudden onset of palpitations
- HR in infants >=220/min, children>= 180/min

474
Q

Signs of instability in patient with arrhythmia

A
  • Respiratory distress or failure
  • Shock with poor end organ perfusion, which may occur with or without hypotension
  • Irritability or a decreased level of consciousness
  • Chest pain or vague feeling of discomfort in older children
  • Sudden collapse
475
Q

Algorithm for pediatric bradycardia with pulse and poor signs of perfusion

A

all.

476
Q

MOA epinephrine

A

b adrenergic activity: increases heart rate and cardiac contractility

alpha adrenergic: causes vasoconstriction

477
Q

In bradycardia, when do you prefer atropine over epinephrine

A

in bradycardia caused by increased vagal tone, cholinergic drug toxicity ( organophosphates) or complete AV bloc

478
Q

why do you use atropine over epi in AV block due to primary bradycardia?

A

epi can cause ventricular arryhtmias if the myocardium is abnormal or hypoxic/ischemic.

So first atropine, if not working then give epi

479
Q

synchronized vs unsynchronized cardioversion

A

synchronized: shock delivery is timed to coincide with the R wave of the patient QRS complex

Unsynchronized: delivered at any time in the cardiac cycle, used for cardiac arrest rhythms that have no QRS.

480
Q

When to you use synchronized vs. unsynchronized cardioversion

A

synchronized: in SVT and Vtaq with pulse

Unsynchronized: in cardiac arrest rhythm

481
Q

Defibrillation vs. Cardioversion

A

Defibrillation - is the treatment for immediately life-threatening arrhythmias with which the patient does not have a pulse, ie ventricular fibrillation (VF) or pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT).

Cardioversion - is any process that aims to convert an arrhythmia back to sinus rhythm.

482
Q

Indications for synchronized cardioversion

A

unstable patients ( poor perfusion, hypotension, or heart failure) with tachyarrthythmias (SVT, atrial flutter, VT) , but palpable pulses

Elective cardioversion, under direction of pediatric cardiologist, for children STABLE with SVT, Atrial flutter, VT with a pulse.

483
Q

Energy dose for cardioversion

A

less than defibrillation dose

Start with 0.5-1 J/kg for cardioversion of SVT or VT with pulse
If inefective, 2 J/kg

484
Q

Drug of choice for SVT

A

Adenosine

485
Q

Indications adenosine

A

SVT

486
Q

adenosine MOA and precautions

A

Blocks conduction through the AV node temporarily ( ~10 seconds)

a cause of failure is if its given too slowly or with inadequate IV flush.

A brief period of bradycardia ( asystole or complete AV block) may ensue, so warn the pt.

487
Q

Amiodarone MOA

A

Inhibits alpha and B adrenergic receptors, producing vasodilation and AV nodal suppression

Inhibits outward potassium current, prolonging the QT duration

Inhibits Na channels, slowing conduction in the ventricles and prolongs QRS.

488
Q

Amiodarone SE

A

are rare

bradycardia
hypotension
polymorphic VT

489
Q

Precautions of Amiodarone

A

be careful in prolonged QT conditions as it prolongs further the QT.

hepatic patients.

490
Q

Procainamide indications

A

SVT, atrial flutter, VT with pulse

491
Q

MOA Procainamide

A

Blocks Na channels so prolongs the effective refractory period of both atria and ventricles and depresses conduction within system

So by slowing intraventricular conduction, prolongs QT, QRS, PR intervals.