Palcho CFI Prep Flashcards

1
Q

Domestic student

A
  1. Verify identification (they are who they say they are)
  2. Scan in or record keep government photo ID and birth certificate OR passport
    only (records must be kept for 5 years)
  3. OR provide a one time endorsement stating that their records are verified and
    they are good to begin flight training
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Foreign student

A

TSA gets involved, liability is on TSA. What we do is must notify TSA that we were approached by someone. Do this by, 1552 states we go flight training security program online and register as a provider and fill it out. Then take a picture of the international student before flight training per 1552. Wait for TSA to give greenlight must start within 180 days after this.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Student Pilot certificate

A

Must be 16 for other than glider or baloon, then 14
RSWU englsih

No expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Application of Student Certificate

A

IACRA or paper application
Submit to FSDO, CFI, DPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Student pilot Privileges

A

● Used to earn Private Cert, flight training with CFI
● Log PIC when solo only
● Can only do what student is endorsed for

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Student Pilot limitations

A

61.89
● No passengers, comp/hire or furtherance of business flights
● 3sm vis during day or 5sm at night and visual ref to the surface
● Adhere to logbook endorsement limitations
● No PIC unless solo and endorsed
● Cannot fly at night unless properly trained on takeoff, landings, go around, and navigation
○ Must also be properly endorsed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Find an AME

A

Ask someone for a recommendation, or FAA website and they provide a AME locator based on your location and the designation needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Obtaining medical

A

Need to create a FAA MedXPress account, fill out the application and retrieve your code. On the date of medical appointment bring the code to AME so they can retrieve the application.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Disqualifying Factors

A

Part 67
Any medical: substance abuse, epilepsy, myocardial infarction (heart attack), angina
pectoris (reduced heart blood flow with chest pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

1st class disqualifications

A

1st Class:
○ Not having 20/20 vision with/without correction
○ Personality disorders (bi-polar, psychosis, substance dependence)
○ Vertigo
○ Color blindness
○ Epilepsy
○ Loss of consciousness
○ Loss of nervous system functions
○ Heart attack, pacemaker, heart replacement, angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

SODA

A

Statement of Demonstrated Ability
● (Statement of Demonstrated Ability (SODA))
● Complete a practical test with a federal air surgeon or an appointed representative (ASI) if
a disqualifying condition is non-progressive or stable
○ Ex: loss of fingers, hand, arms…
● Air surgeon will determine the class of medical to be granted ○ Can only receive 2nd or 3rd
● Applicant must be able to fly without endangering others
● SODAs are valid indefinitely unless the conditions worsen beyond what was examined for

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Required Maintenance

A

Aircraft operating under part 91 have required inspections to comply with
Progressive Inspections OR;
Hundred hour inspections (91.409)
When using an aircraft for hire this must be done every 100 tach hours. Can be exceeded by 10 hours if the overfly is to a place of maintenance. Can be done by A&P
Annuals
Every 12 calendar months this inspection must be completed and signed off by an A&P +IA

FAR 43, Appendix D, Scope and Detail of Items To Be Included in Annual and 100-Hour Inspections, contains a list of general items to be checked during inspections.

Airworthiness Directives
If a plane has ADs they are FAA required to be complied with at their designated hour markers and during annuals to be inspected
Altimeter and Static systems
The aircraft’s static system, altimeter, and automatic altitude-reporting (Mode C) system must have been inspected and tested in the preceding 24 calendar months before flying IFR in controlled airspace. FAR 43 Appendix E, Altimeter System Test and Inspection, lists the items that must be checked.
Transponder
The transponder must be inspected every 24 calendar months. FAR 43 Appendix F, ATC Transponder Tests and Inspections, lists the items that must be checked. To use a transponder, it must be inspected every 24 calendar months.

Encoder
This is what connects the altimeter to the transponder to give ATC altitude information. Part of the SATE 91.411 check, every 24 calendar months.
ELT

ELT’s must be inspected within 12 calendar months after the last inspection for proper installation, battery corrosion, operation of the controls/crash sensor, and sufficient signal strength. Not required during annuals, though usually paired together. 91.207

ELT battery
Every ELT has a battery, whether it’s chargeable or replaceable. With ELT batteries they must be changed or charged every 12 calendar months, 1 hour cumulative use, or 50% of its battery life is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Type certificate data sheet

A

A TCDS is an FAA document that records the type certification data of a product (such as control surface movement limits, operating limitations, placards, and weight and balance) that may also be available in the flight manual or maintenance manual in accordance with FAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Supplemental type certificate

A

received FAA approval to modify an aeronautical product from its original design. The STC, which incorporates by reference the related TC, approves not only the modification but also how that modification affects the original design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

337 form

A

The person who performs or supervises a major repair or major alteration must prepare FAA Form 337. The form is executed at least in duplicate and is used to record major repairs and major alterations made to an aircraft, airframe, powerplant, propeller, appliance, or a component part thereof

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Progressive Inspection

A

Progressive Inspections:
Unlike an annual or 100-hour inspection, a progressive inspection allows for more frequent but shorter inspection phases, as long as all items required for the annual and 100-hour are inspected within the required time

Planes that are opted to a progressive no longer follow annuals and 100 hours. The FAA grants a progressive plan to the owner or operator and that is now the only way that plane can be inspected to maintain airworthiness

How do they work?

Somebody has to come up with a proposed plan to give to the FAA. The maintenance is broken up into phases

Each phase is done at certain hour intervals, each phase has its own master task card on what needs to be done.

Kents Progressive Inspections with R-model and S-model

4 phases
100 hour intervals
The 4th phase or the 400th hour interval needs to be done within 12 calendar months to complete “cycle sign off”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where is the ELT battery expiration listed

A

On the battery itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Required on plane

A

Sups, Plac, Air cert, reg (state and fed), radio opp, owners manual, and weight & balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ADs

A

Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are legally enforceable rules issued by the FAA in accordance with 14 CFR part 39 to correct an unsafe condition in a product. 14 CFR part 39 defines a product as an aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ALl airplane parts need parts manufacturer approval to be put into the aircraft

A

PMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Airworthiness Certificate and location and experation

A

in cargo compartment no expiration as long as aircraft is airworthy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

preventive maintenance

A

Part 43 Appendix A letter C is what pilots can do: must log it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Service bulletins

A

Manufacturers issue aircraft Service Bulletins to inform owners and operators about critical and useful information on aircraft safety, maintenance, or product improvement. Compliance with Service Bulletins may or may not be mandatory, but you should never ignore them when it comes to safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Purpose of obtaining a special flight permit 21.197

A

A special flight permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight, for the following purposes:
(1) Flying the aircraft to a base where repairs, alterations, or maintenance are to be performed, or to a point of storage.
(2) Delivering or exporting the aircraft.
(3) Production flight testing new production aircraft.
(4) Evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger.
(5) Conducting customer demonstration flights in new production aircraft that have satisfactorily completed production flight tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Inspections Reg

A

91.409

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

SATE check

A

91.411

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Mode C transponder

A

Need a mode C transponder above 10,000 and within lateral limits of B and C airspace
In class B 250 and under shelf of B 200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

IMSAFE

A

■ Illness
■ Medication ■ Stress
■ Alcohol
■ Fatigue
■ Emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a fluid

A

a substance that has no fixed shape and yields easily to external pressure; a gas or (especially) a liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Airs 3 properties

A
  1. Exerts pressure
  2. Has mass
  3. Is compressible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Gas Laws

A

HBD CF (Happy Birth-Day Chief Fuzer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Henrys Law

A

At equilibrium, the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to gas pressure

Soda can example
CO2 is dissolved into soda to help it remain pressured
When opened, that gas escapes in the form of bubbles since the gas was dissolved into the soda
As altitude is increased and pressure decreases, gasses such as nitrogen will exit the body’s tissues
Scuba diving: as the diver descends, nitrogen starts to dissolve into the blood due to the increase pressure of oxygen breathed in from the gear.
As the diver ascends back to the surface pressure begins to decrease and nitrogen moves back to the alveoli in the lungs
It’s important for the diver to ascend slow other wise the nitrogen will begin to form bubbles in the veins and around other joints in the body
The bends occurs
Only symptom is pain, occurs around major joints
Pain can be mild to incapacitating
Can be remedied to decreasing altitude
Decompression sickness
Pressure rapidly reducing results in large amounts of gas in a solution to come out
Nitrogen
Release of gas into the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Boyles law

A

With a constant temperature, the gas is inversely proportional to the pressure
Increase in volume equals a decrease in pressure
When you let go of a balloon, it climbs. As altitude increases, the volume will increase because the pressure is decreasing the higher the balloon floats
Works vice versa
If you fill a balloon in Colorado and drive it to Ohio the balloon volume will decrease
This is because you took the balloon from an area of decrease pressure to an area of increased pressure
With a increase in pressure, volume will decrease
As pressure decreases with altitude, the volume of gas will expand
Pressure decreases with an increase in altitude (1 inch per 1000’)
Volume of gas will increase
How can the volume increase?
Earth is a sphere and the atmosphere widens with altitude
With altitude, gravity is imposing less of a force than at sea level which allows the molecules to then move and space out due to the increase of volume
Many parts of the body store gas which can cause pain in ears, sinuses, teeth, and digestive tract
Ascents affect teeth, and sinuses the most
Chew gum to open Eustachian tubes
Descents affect the middle ear
Valsalva maneuver, yawning..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Daltons law

A

Total pressure of gas mixture = sum of partial pressures (21% atmo O2, hypoxic hypoxia)
The proportion of oxygen (21%) remains constant at any altitude
However, there is a decrease in pressure even though you still have 21% oxygen in the atmosphere
Molecules are spread out because, with altitude, the air becomes less dense so the pressure will decrease as a result
Less air is present with low-density air allowing for the molecules to spread out immensely
This is why hypoxic hypoxia occurs (lack of pressure)
Oxygen molecules are very spaced out opposed to sea level when they are most compact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Charles Law

A

Gas is proportional to its temperature when pressure is constant
For example being a balloon will shrink in cold weather and expand in warmer weather.
Without changing altitude (no change in pressure) put a balloon in a room temperature room and one outside in the winter weather to see how each shrinks and expands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Ficks law

A

The rate of gas diffusion through tissue is proportional to tissue area and the partial pressures on each side, inverse to tissue thickness.
Diffusion of gas across a membrane
How the gas exchange takes place in the lungs
Respiration : Get it, move it, use it
As you climb in altitude and the partial pressure of oxygen decreases, less of it can diffuse across the membranes into the lungs. This may result in hypoxia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hypoxia

A

Lack of sufficient oxygen to meet the needs of body tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Hemoglobin

A

protein of a red blood cell that is responsible for transferring oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Hypoxic hypoxia

A

Insufficient oxygen to the body. Dalton’s/Fick’s Law:
Oxygen % is the same but reduction in pressure with altitude inhibits the lungs from using the needed oxygen
Half of the atmosphere exists below 18,000’
Daltons: 21% of oxygen exists from sea level to space but with an increase in altitude, the pressure decreases. There is less gravitational pull holding down the atmosphere so the molecules are able to spread out
Ficks: the diffusion of oxygen across the body is difficult with a partial pressure
Diffusion is dependent on the membrane (tissue) area and membrane thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Hypemic Hypoxia

A

Blood can’t transport enough O2 to the cells due to a lack of hemoglobin
Anemia, CO poisoning…
Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs because carbon monoxide binds with the iron in the hemoglobin 255 times stronger than oxygen
Anytime you are exposed to CO, oxygen doesn’t stand a chance of being transported to the cells
Headache
Unconsciousness
Dizziness
Confusion
Nausea
Oxygen does NOT reverse the problem but will alleviate over time
Can take several hours/days to remove all CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Stagnant Hypoxia

A

O2-rich blood is not flowing to the lungs due to malfunction of circulation in the body
Body part falling asleep
Occurs when the circulation is cut off
Blood is not able to reach the area which is why the tingling sensation is felt
G-lock
Blood rushes to the lower half of the body
No oxygen-rich blood is reaching the brain which is why many pilots experience blackouts, passing out..
Blood is unable to move

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Histotoxic Hypoxia

A

There is plenty of oxygen however the cells are unable to use it
Due to alcohol, drugs, and poison.
Red blood cells clump together and block the smaller blood vessels
Cyanide poisoning (combustion of plastics) is a common way to see histotoxic hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Stages of hypoxia 1

A

Indifferent Stage
Sea level to 10,000’
98-87% O2
Mild hypoxia symptoms for long durations near 10,000’
Per the FAA during the day
Mild hypoxia and decreased night vision at or above 5,000’
FAA during night
Why? You need to use more oxygen at night to see and process
Rods are working harder since cones are useless at nighttime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Stages of hypoxia 2

A

Compensatory Stage
10,000’-15,000’
87-80% O2
Drowsiness, poor judgment, impaired coordination and efficiency
The body can help protect itself up until the disturbance stage
The body increases its breathing rate
Pumping blood faster
Widening blood vessels around vital organs
Supplemental oxygen is required for crew for flights above 12,500’ up to 14,000’ longer than 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Stages of hypoxia 3

A

Disturbance stage
15,000’ to 20,000’
80-65% O2
The body no longer has protection against hypoxia
Impaired flight controls, handwriting, speech, vision, judgment, and intellectual function
Decreased coordination, memory, sensation to pain
Supplemental oxygen is required for the crew above 14,000’ (14,001)
Supplemental oxygen is required for crew above 15,000’ (15,001) and must be offered to each aircraft occupant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Stages of Hypoxia 4

A

Critical stage
20,000-25,000’
65-60% O2
Little to no warning of hypoxia symptoms 3-5 minutes
Unconsciousness from circulatory or central nervous system failure
Convulsions
Cardiovascular collapse
Death
Supplemental oxygen should be in use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Symptoms of hypoxia

A

Rapid breathing
Cyanosis
Impaired judgment
Mental confusion
Unconsciousness
Euphoria
Anxiety
Headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Decompression Sickness (The Bends)

A

Henry’s Law - more altitude decreases pressure on the body, painful nitrogen bubbles form anywhere, 60% of them are usually joint pain. Boyle’s Law - more gas = less pressure because the area cannot handle the pressure
Give 100% O2, emergency descent/land.
Scuba: 12 hours/8000 feet max for uncontrolled ascent. 24 hours controlled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Eustachian tubes

A

an opening that connects the middle ear with the nasal-sinus cavity

Equalize pressure between the middle and outside ear is

fluid is drained (from inside ear to throat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Valsalva maneuver

A

(hold nose and attempt to blow nose) corrects simple blockages, forcing air through the tube

Tubes only open during chewing/yawning/swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Ears when climbing

A

When climbing, inner ear pressure is greater than outer, causing clearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Ears when descending

A

In descent, inner pressure is less than outer, causing the eardrum to bulge inward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What can hinder ear equalization

A

Cold/ear infection/sore throat congestion can hinder pressure equalization. Fluid from infection can swell the eustachian tube to where it cant open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Ear tubes

A

Can be inserted into the eardrum to bypass the eustachian tube. pressure can equalize and fluid can drain out the ear rather than down the throat.

55
Q

Sinus block

A

sinus cavities on cheek bones and above the eyes and are connected to the nasal passage. mucous that is produced becomes blocked and can be infected

56
Q

Point of the sinus

A

hallowed cavity, less mass on the skull

warm and humidfy air we breath

produce mucous to help the nose from drying out and remove bacteria

resonate sound we hear

57
Q

Where is the vestibular system

A

The vestibular system is in the inner ear, allowing movement sensation/orientation/balance

58
Q

Inner ear is made up of

A

3 semi circular cannals anterrior, posterrior, lateral, all at right angles of eachother (have hairs and fluid in it can tell us what plane we are rotating around

cochlea (how we hear) spiral snail thing

otolith organs(utricle and saccule) - sensory organs of hair/crystals for gravity/linear acceleration

59
Q

3 systems used for spatial orientation

A
  • Vestibular system—organs found in the inner ear that
    sense position by the way we are balanced
  • Somatosensory system—nerves in the skin, muscles,
    and joints that, along with hearing, sense position
    based on gravity, feeling, and sound
  • Visual system—eyes, which sense position based on
    what is seen
60
Q

Carbon Monoxide

A

-carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin and reduces oxygen supply to tissues
-cannot be seen. smelled, or tasted
-s/s include: nausea, vomiting, headache, weakness, and unconsciousness
-death may occur with prolonged exposure

61
Q

Prevent carbon monoxide poisoning

A

by ensuring proper ventilation when using fuel-burning devices
gas-burning devices should be inspected annually
-flues and chimneys should be unobstructed
-carbon monoxide detectors should be installed and inspected regularly

62
Q

The leans

A

caused by a sudden return to level flight
following a gradual and prolonged turn that went unnoticed by
the pilot. The reason a pilot can be unaware of such a gradual
turn is that human exposure to a rotational acceleration of 2
degrees per second or lower is below the detection threshold
of the semicircular canals. [Figure 17-4] Leveling the wings
after such a turn may cause an illusion that the aircraft is
banking in the opposite direction. In response to such an
illusion, a pilot may lean in the direction of the original turn
in a corrective attempt to regain the perception of a correct
vertical posture.

63
Q

Coriolis illusion

A

pilot has been in a turn
long enough for the fluid in the ear canal to move at the same
speed as the canal. A movement of the head in a different
plane, such as looking at something in a different part of the
flight deck, may set the fluid moving, creating the illusion
of turning or accelerating on an entirely different axis. This
action causes the pilot to think the aircraft is performing a
maneuver it is not. The disoriented pilot may maneuver the
aircraft into a dangerous attitude in an attempt to correct the
aircraft’s perceived attitude

64
Q

Graveyard Spiral

A

As in other illusions, a pilot in a prolonged coordinated, constant rate turn will have the illusion of not turning. An observed loss of altitude during a coordinated constant-rate turn that has ceased stimulating the motion-sensing system can create the illusion of being in a descent with the wings level. During the recovery to level flight, the pilot will experience the sensation of turning in the opposite direction (leans). The pilot may return the aircraft to its original turn and, in doing so, continue to lose altitude. Instruments will likely indicate a descent at this point, causing the pilot to try to correct for the illusion of a level descent. The pilot pulls back on the yoke, tightening the spiral and increasing a loss in altitude
Graveyard spin is an abrupt stop of a spin that simulates spinning in the opposite direction
Correction of the fake spin can reinduce the original spin

65
Q

Somatogravic illusion

A

A rapid acceleration, such as experienced during takeoff,
stimulates the otolith organs in the same way as tilting the
head backwards. This action may create what is known as
the “somatogravic illusion” of being in a nose-up attitude,
especially in conditions with poor visual references. The
disoriented pilot may push the aircraft into a nose-low or
dive attitude. A rapid deceleration by quick reduction of the
throttle(s) can have the opposite effect, with the disoriented
pilot pulling the aircraft into a nose-up or stall attitude.

66
Q

Inversion illusion

A

An abrupt change from climb to straight and level will make the pilot feel like he is tumbling backward. The disoriented pilot will push the nose forward (low) and possibly intensify the illusion

67
Q

Night Illusions

A

False Horizon
AutoKineses
Vertigo
Black Hole Approach

68
Q

Runway Illusion

A

Sloping runway
Down slope= lower
Up slope= higher

wide/narrow runway
Wider= higher
narrower=lower
Lower on narrow runways to have the same sight picture as the wider runway

69
Q

Elevator illusion

A

An abrupt upward vertical acceleration, usually by an updraft, can create the illusion of being in a climb. The disoriented pilot will push the aircraft into a nose low attitude. An abrupt downward vertical acceleration, usually by a downdraft, has the opposite effect, with the disoriented pilot pulling the aircraft into a nose up attitude (vestibular)

70
Q

False Horizon

A

Sloping cloud formations, an obscured horizon, a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars, and certain geometric patterns of ground light can create illusions of not being aligned correctly with the actual horizon. The disoriented pilot will place the aircraft in a dangerous attitude. (visual)

71
Q

Category class of Airmen

A

Airmen:
Category - Broad classification of aircraft
Airplane, glider, rotorcraft

Class - SEL, MEL, MES,

72
Q

Category class of aircraft

A

Aircraft:
Category - Grouping based on intended use or operating limitations
Normal, utility, aerobatic
Normal: -1.52 to 3.8 (flaps down=3)
Utility: -1.76 to 4.4 (flaps down=3)
Aerobatic: -4 to 6

Class - Group having similar characteristics of flight
Airplane, rotorcraft, landplane, seaplane

73
Q

What my certificate says and airplane says

A

As a pilot, what does your certificate say? Airplane (cat) Single engine-land (class)
The aircraft you’re flying though is a Normal (cat) Airplane (class)

74
Q

LAHSO

A

Land and hold short operations are an air traffic control procedure intended to increase airport capacity without compromising safety

Saves ATC and pilots time and money

A LAHSO clearance does not preclude a rejected landing
If a rejected landing becomes necessary after accepting a LAHSO clearance, the pilot should maintain safe separation from other aircraft or vehicles, and should promptly notify the controller.

PIC has the final authority to accept or decline

75
Q

LAHSO weather mins

A

The weather must be at least 1000 agl ceiling and 3sm vis

76
Q

LAHSO sign

A

LAHSO runway sign has white letters/black border with a red background

77
Q

Who can do LAHSO

A

Not authorized for solo students, wet runway, or at night

78
Q

How to become a CFI

A

Certificate Reqs:
18 y/o
RSWU English
Commercial or ATP, with IRA
FOI endorsement
FIA/FOI knowledge tests passed
Practical test passed/endorsed
Spin endorsed
Log 15 hours PIC in cat/class
Endorsed for deficient knowledge exam areas
Received training in last two calendar months for practical test

79
Q

CFI privileges

A

Issue endorsements for students, pilots, flight reviews, knowledge/practical tests. Also verify/accept certificate applications

80
Q

CFI Limitations

A

Only 8 hours of dual flight training in 24 hours

Only conduct flight training in applicable category and class

May not endorse a student pilot for solo training UNLESS given flight instruction and determined the flight can be performed safely

May not endorse a solo XC UNLESS flight planning has been checked and the flight can be made within the pilots limitations

May not endorse a student for flight in class B UNLESS flight and ground training has been provided and the flight can be made safe

Endorse a flight review UNLESS I am the CFI that conducted the flight review and deemed all parts satisfactory

Endorse an IPC UNLESS I conducted the IPC and completed all required sections

Cannot teach in a plane that requires a type rating UNLESS i have a type rating on my certificate

No ME training unless I have completed 5 hours PIC time

81
Q

Renewing CFI Certificate

A

Pass practical again
FIRC
121/135 captain/check airman/etc
⅘ and 80% of 5 or more students passing practical on first attempt with previous 24 cal months
Additional CFI rating

82
Q

Expired Certificate

A

Add rating or pass the practical again

83
Q

ZERO to HERO PPL

A

A14 (Endorsement of Citizenship-TSA)
A3 (Pre-Solo Aeronautical Knowledge) 61.87(b)
Parts 61/91, airport/airspace procedures
Flight characteristics/limitations of make/model
Review/grade test to 100%
A4 (pre-Solo Flight Training) see 61.87(c)
A6 (Solo Flight) 90 day 61.87(n)
A7 (Solo Flight Additional 90 days)
A8 (Solo t/o and landing at airport within 25 nm) one time per airport (KCAK)
A9 (Solo XC Flight)`
A10 (Solo XC Flight - Planning)
A11 (Solo XC not more than 50nm) doesn’t exp but needs current solo, A10 not needed
A12 (solo flight in Class B airspace) valid 90 days, ground/flight training for that class B
A13 (solo flight to from at airport in class B)
A5 (Pre-Solo flight training - Night) valid 90 days
A32 (Aeronautical Knowledge Test) valid 60 days, verified they are ready
A33 (Flight proficiency for practical test) valid 60 days see 61 regs
A1 (logged req’d training in previous 2 cal months)
A2 (Knowledge test deficient areas)

84
Q

Failing Practical or written

A

can reapply after retraining/re-endorsed
Review deficient areas, re-endorse, keep record of notice of disqualification and re-endorsement (3 yrs)
A73 (retesting after failure of either test)
Knowledge endorsement can also be completed on the bottom of the test report. For failed practical, CFI must also sign instructors recc on 8710

85
Q

Records that must be kept

A

Must sign logbook of anyone whom I given ground or flight training (61.51)

Hold solo, knowledge, and practical endorsements for 3 years

Hold TSA endorsement, with copy of birth cert and govt photo ID or passport, for 5 years

86
Q

Spins

A

Spins are an aggravated stall resulting in autorotation about the spin axis wherein the aircraft follows a corkscrew path

87
Q

Auto rotation

A

A combination of roll and yaw about the C.G. that propagates itself and progressively gets worse due to asymmetrically stalled wings (skid)

88
Q

CG

A

point on an aircraft in which it would balance if suspended

89
Q

Spiral

A

Characterized by low AoA, high airspeed and high rate of descent but neither wing is stalled and the aircraft responds to normal inputs
Not a spin because neither wing is stalled

90
Q

Phases of a spin 1

A

Entry :
The pilot either accidentally or intentionally provides the elements requiring a spin
A spin is a result of a stall and a yaw

91
Q

Phases of a spin 2

A

Incipient
Occurs from the time the aircraft stalls to the development of a spin
Typically takes 2 to 4 turns
The aerodynamic and inertial forces have not achieved a balance
Indicated airspeed will generally stabilize

92
Q

Phases of a spin 3

A

Developed
Begins when aerodynamic forces are in balance
Recovery procedures are necessary to break the spin
Occurs when the airplane’s angular rotation rate, airspeed, and vertical speed are stabilized in a nearly vertical flightpath
Spin is in equilibrium
Some training aircraft do not become a developed spin but rather a spiral

93
Q

Phases of a spin 4

A

Recovery
POWER IDLE
When you’re at a high power setting, airflow from your propeller strike your horizontal stabilizer, causing a tail-down force and pitching your nose up
Power idle makes spin recovery easier
AILERONS NEUTRAL
To help your wings reach the same angle-of-attack, which helps you reduce the rolling and yawing moments in the spin.
If you try to raise your inside wing using ailerons, you’ll actually make the spin worse, because you increase the angle-of-attack of the inner wing.
And what about rolling your ailerons into the spin? That’s not a good idea either, because as you start to recover, your outside wing is at a higher angle-of-attack, and you can inadvertently start spinning in the opposite direction during recovery.
RUDDER OPPOSITE
When you add opposite rudder, you stop the yawing moment of the spin to bring it back to just a stall
If you’re spinning to the left, you add right rudder. And if you’re spinning right? Add left rudder
ELEVATOR FULL FORWARD
Elevator full forward helps breaks the stall
Gets the plane back below the critical AOA so recovery can be made
Will feel weird but is the only way to regain control of the wings

94
Q

Types of spins

A

Progressive
Aircraft enters a second spin immediately following initial recovery from a spin
The direction of the rotation normally opposite to that of the original spin.
Occurs when opposite rudder is held in for too long

Crossover
An upright spin turn into an inverted spin

Flat
Center of gravity shifts too far aft (toward the tail), and the aircraft’s rotation becomes more horizontal.In this situation, the wings aren’t producing enough lift, and the aircraft essentially falls out of the sky while spinning.
Reduced airflow over the wings makes it extremely difficult to regain control of the aircraft

95
Q

Forward CG

A

More stable (longitudinal stability)
Less fuel efficient (more drag) and slower cruise speed
Higher stall speed (higher Angle of Attack)
Good stall recovery characteristics

96
Q

Aft CG

A

Less stable (longitudinal stability)
More fuel efficient (less drag) and faster cruise speed
Lower stall speed
Bad stall recovery characteristics

97
Q

Forward slip

A

dissipates altitude
Use normal landing power settings to maintain a desired sink rate

POINT RUDDER TO THE SKY
Left pattern = right rudder
Right pattern = left rudder

Left slip left aileron, right rudder

98
Q

Side Slip

A

maintains centerline
Crosswind correction
Use extra power to compensate for the increased sink rate

99
Q

Blocked Pitot tube

A

Airspeed -zero
Altimeter -works
VSI-works

100
Q

Blocked Pitot tube and drain hole
Open static

A

Airspeed - High in climb, Low in descent
Altimeter -works
VSI-works

101
Q

Blocked static port
open pitot

A

Airspeed - low climb, high descent
Altimeter - frozen
VSI- frozen

102
Q

Alternate static air

A

Airspeed - high
Altimeter -high
VSI-momentarily shows climb

103
Q

Broken VSI glass

A

Airspeed -high
Altimeter - high
VSI- reverses

104
Q

total usable fuel and kind

A

56
53
100LL (blue)
100 octane (green)

105
Q

Engine type

A

IO-360-L2A
10 BHP 2400 RPM
360 cubic inches between TDC and BDC

106
Q

propeller

A

2 blade McCauley 75 inch diameter fixed pitch

107
Q

Oil system

A

Oil drawn from sumps →oil suction strainer screen → engine driven oil pump → bypass valve → Cold oil bypasses the oil cooler straight to the oil filter → hot oil goes to a flexible hose to the oil cooler → returns to accessory housing →oil filter →pressure relief valve → excess oil is sent back to the sump while the rest is sent out for lubrication

Cooling and lubricating
9 quarts total
8 usable and 1 in the sump
Mineral oil first 50 hours
Ashless Dispersant after 50 hours

108
Q

HANDLE-F

A

Horizontally opposed
Cylinders lay flat and fire horizontally toward one another
Vertically opposed, Radial, V-line
Cylinders 1 and 3 on right side
Cylinders 2 and 4 on left side
Offset to allow full motion from connecting rods

Air-cooled
Air from outside cools the engine
Heat dissipation fins direct air right over the cylinders to cool them
Could be liquid-cooled with a water-based solution
Prevents freezing, rusting, and oxidation
Cylinder 3 is the hottest

Naturally aspirated
No super or turbocharger (PHAK pg 7-12)
Increases engine horsepower
Both compress intake air to increase the density
Maximizes performance of aircraft and allows aircraft to fly at higher altitudes (thinks it is lower than it is)
Turbocharger
Gets power from exhaust air that spins a compressor
Delayed power
Supercharger
Gets power from engine-driven air pump or compressor
Instantaneous power

Direct drive
The crankshaft is directly connected to the propeller
Propeller and crankshaft spin at the same speed

Lycoming
Engine manufacturer

Fuel-injected system

109
Q

Placards

A

12 in section 2 of POH

110
Q

Fuel System

A

Fuel Tanks
Selector Valve
Res tank
AUX pump
Fuel shutoff
Strainer
Engine Driven fuel pump
Fuel air control unit
fuel manifold
Fuel nozzle to cylinders

111
Q

Fuel Systems-Fuel pumps

A

Auxiliary
Used in priming/starting engine and is used as a backup pump (emergencies)

Engine Driven
A fuel pump attached to the engine allows for a pressurized flow of fuel through the system to the fuel-air control unit

112
Q

Fuel System-Res tank

A

Purpose is to always have fuel ready to go halfway through the system in the event full power is needed rapidly
Allows time for the tanks to catch up and refill the reservoir

113
Q

Fuel Systems-FACU

A

Replaces the carburetor
Proportions fuel flow to induction airflow amount
Controlled by the mixture setting
The throttle controls the speed fuel flows through the system
Air to fuel ratio should be 15 parts air to 1 part (grams) fuel
Weight NOT volume
Sent to the fuel distribution valve at a rate controlled by the throttle

114
Q

Fuel Systems- Fuel Distribution Valve(manifold)

A

Distributes the ready fuel/air mixture to each cylinder
Distributes based on the position of th fuel selector valve
Left, Right, or Both

115
Q

Fuel Systems- Distribution Nozzles

A

Inject the fuel/air mixture directly into the cylinder head intake port

116
Q

Advantages of Fuel Injection

A

No carb ice
Better fuel flow
Faster throttle response
Precise mixture control
Better fuel distribution
Easier cold weather starts

117
Q

Disadvantages of fuel injection

A

Hard to start a hot engine
Vapor lock during ground operations
Evaporation of fuel in fuel lines due to hot weather
Combat by priming engine prior to start to encourage fuel flow through lines to facilitate start
Expensive

118
Q

Steady Green ground

A

cleared for takeoff

119
Q

Steady Green air

A

cleared to land

120
Q

Flashing green ground

A

cleared to taxi

121
Q

Flashing green air

A

circle to land(followed by steady green)

122
Q

Steady red ground

A

stop

123
Q

Flashing red ground

A

taxi clear of runway

124
Q

steady red air

A

Give way continue circle

125
Q

flashing red air

A

Do not land

126
Q

Flashing white ground

A

return to start point

127
Q

Flashing white air

A

N/A

128
Q

Alternate red and green

A

Exercise Extreme Caution

129
Q

Plane weights

A

Normal
Ramp 2457
Takeoff/Land 2450

Utility
Ramp 2107
Takeoff/Land 2100

130
Q

Oil capacity

A

8 sump
9 total

131
Q
A
132
Q

CFI logbook entry 61.51

A

Nathan Jones1234567CFI Exp 01/26

133
Q

What is needed to send them to Kcak and back

A

Endorsements: “what do I have to do to send them to CAK?” - A14, A3, A4, A6/A7, A8

134
Q

Aerodynamics of spin

A

Need stall and a yaw
For a spin to occur both wings need to be stalled
One wing will be more stalled than the other
The first wing to stall will drop first
The other wing will rise, decreasing its angle of attack, and the aircraft will yaw toward the more deeply-stalled wing.
The difference in lift between the two wings causes the aircraft to roll
The difference in drag causes the aircraft to yaw
Over banking tendency?
In a bank, the up wing must travel at a faster speed than the down wing to maintain an equal radius (due to yaw)
The up wing is traveling fast hence producing more lift causing the up wing to want to continue