Palcho CFI Prep

Question 1

Domestic student

Answer 1

1. Verify identification (they are who they say they are)
2. Scan in or record keep government photo ID and birth certificate OR passport
   only (records must be kept for 5 years)
3. OR provide a one time endorsement stating that their records are verified and
   they are good to begin flight training

Question 2

Foreign student

Answer 2

TSA gets involved, liability is on TSA. What we do is must notify TSA that we were approached by someone. Do this by, 1552 states we go flight training security program online and register as a provider and fill it out. Then take a picture of the international student before flight training per 1552. Wait for TSA to give greenlight must start within 180 days after this.

Question 3

Student Pilot certificate

Answer 3

Must be 16 for other than glider or baloon, then 14
RSWU englsih

No expiration

Question 4

Application of Student Certificate

Answer 4

IACRA or paper application
Submit to FSDO, CFI, DPE

Question 5

Student pilot Privileges

Answer 5

● Used to earn Private Cert, flight training with CFI
● Log PIC when solo only
● Can only do what student is endorsed for

Question 6

Student Pilot limitations

Answer 6

61.89
● No passengers, comp/hire or furtherance of business flights
● 3sm vis during day or 5sm at night and visual ref to the surface
● Adhere to logbook endorsement limitations
● No PIC unless solo and endorsed
● Cannot fly at night unless properly trained on takeoff, landings, go around, and navigation
○ Must also be properly endorsed

Question 7

Find an AME

Answer 7

Ask someone for a recommendation, or FAA website and they provide a AME locator based on your location and the designation needed

Question 8

Obtaining medical

Answer 8

Need to create a FAA MedXPress account, fill out the application and retrieve your code. On the date of medical appointment bring the code to AME so they can retrieve the application.

Question 9

Disqualifying Factors

Answer 9

Part 67
Any medical: substance abuse, epilepsy, myocardial infarction (heart attack), angina
pectoris (reduced heart blood flow with chest pain)

Question 10

1st class disqualifications

Answer 10

1st Class:
○ Not having 20/20 vision with/without correction
○ Personality disorders (bi-polar, psychosis, substance dependence)
○ Vertigo
○ Color blindness
○ Epilepsy
○ Loss of consciousness
○ Loss of nervous system functions
○ Heart attack, pacemaker, heart replacement, angina

Question 11

SODA

Answer 11

Statement of Demonstrated Ability
● (Statement of Demonstrated Ability (SODA))
● Complete a practical test with a federal air surgeon or an appointed representative (ASI) if
a disqualifying condition is non-progressive or stable
○ Ex: loss of fingers, hand, arms…
● Air surgeon will determine the class of medical to be granted ○ Can only receive 2nd or 3rd
● Applicant must be able to fly without endangering others
● SODAs are valid indefinitely unless the conditions worsen beyond what was examined for

Question 12

Required Maintenance

Answer 12

Aircraft operating under part 91 have required inspections to comply with
Progressive Inspections OR;
Hundred hour inspections (91.409)
When using an aircraft for hire this must be done every 100 tach hours. Can be exceeded by 10 hours if the overfly is to a place of maintenance. Can be done by A&P
Annuals
Every 12 calendar months this inspection must be completed and signed off by an A&P +IA

FAR 43, Appendix D, Scope and Detail of Items To Be Included in Annual and 100-Hour Inspections, contains a list of general items to be checked during inspections.

Airworthiness Directives
If a plane has ADs they are FAA required to be complied with at their designated hour markers and during annuals to be inspected
Altimeter and Static systems
The aircraft’s static system, altimeter, and automatic altitude-reporting (Mode C) system must have been inspected and tested in the preceding 24 calendar months before flying IFR in controlled airspace. FAR 43 Appendix E, Altimeter System Test and Inspection, lists the items that must be checked.
Transponder
The transponder must be inspected every 24 calendar months. FAR 43 Appendix F, ATC Transponder Tests and Inspections, lists the items that must be checked. To use a transponder, it must be inspected every 24 calendar months.

Encoder
This is what connects the altimeter to the transponder to give ATC altitude information. Part of the SATE 91.411 check, every 24 calendar months.
ELT

ELT’s must be inspected within 12 calendar months after the last inspection for proper installation, battery corrosion, operation of the controls/crash sensor, and sufficient signal strength. Not required during annuals, though usually paired together. 91.207

ELT battery
Every ELT has a battery, whether it’s chargeable or replaceable. With ELT batteries they must be changed or charged every 12 calendar months, 1 hour cumulative use, or 50% of its battery life is used

Question 13

Type certificate data sheet

Answer 13

A TCDS is an FAA document that records the type certification data of a product (such as control surface movement limits, operating limitations, placards, and weight and balance) that may also be available in the flight manual or maintenance manual in accordance with FAA

Question 14

Supplemental type certificate

Answer 14

received FAA approval to modify an aeronautical product from its original design. The STC, which incorporates by reference the related TC, approves not only the modification but also how that modification affects the original design

Question 15

337 form

Answer 15

The person who performs or supervises a major repair or major alteration must prepare FAA Form 337. The form is executed at least in duplicate and is used to record major repairs and major alterations made to an aircraft, airframe, powerplant, propeller, appliance, or a component part thereof

Question 16

Progressive Inspection

Answer 16

Progressive Inspections:
Unlike an annual or 100-hour inspection, a progressive inspection allows for more frequent but shorter inspection phases, as long as all items required for the annual and 100-hour are inspected within the required time

Planes that are opted to a progressive no longer follow annuals and 100 hours. The FAA grants a progressive plan to the owner or operator and that is now the only way that plane can be inspected to maintain airworthiness

How do they work?

Somebody has to come up with a proposed plan to give to the FAA. The maintenance is broken up into phases

Each phase is done at certain hour intervals, each phase has its own master task card on what needs to be done.

Kents Progressive Inspections with R-model and S-model

4 phases
100 hour intervals
The 4th phase or the 400th hour interval needs to be done within 12 calendar months to complete “cycle sign off”

Question 17

Where is the ELT battery expiration listed

Answer 17

On the battery itself

Question 18

Required on plane

Answer 18

Sups, Plac, Air cert, reg (state and fed), radio opp, owners manual, and weight & balance

Question 19

ADs

Answer 19

Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are legally enforceable rules issued by the FAA in accordance with 14 CFR part 39 to correct an unsafe condition in a product. 14 CFR part 39 defines a product as an aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance.

Question 20

ALl airplane parts need parts manufacturer approval to be put into the aircraft

Answer 20

PMA

Question 21

Airworthiness Certificate and location and experation

Answer 21

in cargo compartment no expiration as long as aircraft is airworthy

Question 22

preventive maintenance

Answer 22

Part 43 Appendix A letter C is what pilots can do: must log it

Question 23

Service bulletins

Answer 23

Manufacturers issue aircraft Service Bulletins to inform owners and operators about critical and useful information on aircraft safety, maintenance, or product improvement. Compliance with Service Bulletins may or may not be mandatory, but you should never ignore them when it comes to safety

Question 24

Purpose of obtaining a special flight permit 21.197

Answer 24

A special flight permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight, for the following purposes:
(1) Flying the aircraft to a base where repairs, alterations, or maintenance are to be performed, or to a point of storage.
(2) Delivering or exporting the aircraft.
(3) Production flight testing new production aircraft.
(4) Evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger.
(5) Conducting customer demonstration flights in new production aircraft that have satisfactorily completed production flight tests

Question 25

Inspections Reg

Answer 25

91.409

Question 26

SATE check

Answer 26

91.411

Question 27

Mode C transponder

Answer 27

Need a mode C transponder above 10,000 and within lateral limits of B and C airspace In class B 250 and under shelf of B 200

Question 28

IMSAFE

Answer 28

■ Illness ■ Medication ■ Stress ■ Alcohol ■ Fatigue ■ Emotion

Question 29

What is a fluid

Answer 29

a substance that has no fixed shape and yields easily to external pressure; a gas or (especially) a liquid

Question 30

Airs 3 properties

Answer 30

1. Exerts pressure 2. Has mass 3. Is compressible

Question 31

Gas Laws

Answer 31

HBD CF (Happy Birth-Day Chief Fuzer)

Question 32

Henrys Law

Answer 32

At equilibrium, the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is proportional to gas pressure Soda can example CO2 is dissolved into soda to help it remain pressured When opened, that gas escapes in the form of bubbles since the gas was dissolved into the soda As altitude is increased and pressure decreases, gasses such as nitrogen will exit the body’s tissues Scuba diving: as the diver descends, nitrogen starts to dissolve into the blood due to the increase pressure of oxygen breathed in from the gear. As the diver ascends back to the surface pressure begins to decrease and nitrogen moves back to the alveoli in the lungs It’s important for the diver to ascend slow other wise the nitrogen will begin to form bubbles in the veins and around other joints in the body The bends occurs Only symptom is pain, occurs around major joints Pain can be mild to incapacitating Can be remedied to decreasing altitude Decompression sickness Pressure rapidly reducing results in large amounts of gas in a solution to come out Nitrogen Release of gas into the body

Question 33

Boyles law

Answer 33

With a constant temperature, the gas is inversely proportional to the pressure Increase in volume equals a decrease in pressure When you let go of a balloon, it climbs. As altitude increases, the volume will increase because the pressure is decreasing the higher the balloon floats Works vice versa If you fill a balloon in Colorado and drive it to Ohio the balloon volume will decrease This is because you took the balloon from an area of decrease pressure to an area of increased pressure With a increase in pressure, volume will decrease As pressure decreases with altitude, the volume of gas will expand Pressure decreases with an increase in altitude (1 inch per 1000’) Volume of gas will increase How can the volume increase? Earth is a sphere and the atmosphere widens with altitude With altitude, gravity is imposing less of a force than at sea level which allows the molecules to then move and space out due to the increase of volume Many parts of the body store gas which can cause pain in ears, sinuses, teeth, and digestive tract Ascents affect teeth, and sinuses the most Chew gum to open Eustachian tubes Descents affect the middle ear Valsalva maneuver, yawning..

Question 34

Daltons law

Answer 34

Total pressure of gas mixture = sum of partial pressures (21% atmo O2, hypoxic hypoxia) The proportion of oxygen (21%) remains constant at any altitude However, there is a decrease in pressure even though you still have 21% oxygen in the atmosphere Molecules are spread out because, with altitude, the air becomes less dense so the pressure will decrease as a result Less air is present with low-density air allowing for the molecules to spread out immensely This is why hypoxic hypoxia occurs (lack of pressure) Oxygen molecules are very spaced out opposed to sea level when they are most compact

Question 35

Charles Law

Answer 35

Gas is proportional to its temperature when pressure is constant For example being a balloon will shrink in cold weather and expand in warmer weather. Without changing altitude (no change in pressure) put a balloon in a room temperature room and one outside in the winter weather to see how each shrinks and expands

Question 36

Ficks law

Answer 36

The rate of gas diffusion through tissue is proportional to tissue area and the partial pressures on each side, inverse to tissue thickness. Diffusion of gas across a membrane How the gas exchange takes place in the lungs Respiration : Get it, move it, use it As you climb in altitude and the partial pressure of oxygen decreases, less of it can diffuse across the membranes into the lungs. This may result in hypoxia.

Question 37

Hypoxia

Answer 37

Lack of sufficient oxygen to meet the needs of body tissues

Question 38

Hemoglobin

Answer 38

protein of a red blood cell that is responsible for transferring oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body

Question 39

Hypoxic hypoxia

Answer 39

Insufficient oxygen to the body. Dalton’s/Fick’s Law: Oxygen % is the same but reduction in pressure with altitude inhibits the lungs from using the needed oxygen Half of the atmosphere exists below 18,000’ Daltons: 21% of oxygen exists from sea level to space but with an increase in altitude, the pressure decreases. There is less gravitational pull holding down the atmosphere so the molecules are able to spread out Ficks: the diffusion of oxygen across the body is difficult with a partial pressure Diffusion is dependent on the membrane (tissue) area and membrane thickness

Question 40

Hypemic Hypoxia

Answer 40

Blood can’t transport enough O2 to the cells due to a lack of hemoglobin Anemia, CO poisoning… Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs because carbon monoxide binds with the iron in the hemoglobin 255 times stronger than oxygen Anytime you are exposed to CO, oxygen doesn't stand a chance of being transported to the cells Headache Unconsciousness Dizziness Confusion Nausea Oxygen does NOT reverse the problem but will alleviate over time Can take several hours/days to remove all CO

Question 41

Stagnant Hypoxia

Answer 41

O2-rich blood is not flowing to the lungs due to malfunction of circulation in the body Body part falling asleep Occurs when the circulation is cut off Blood is not able to reach the area which is why the tingling sensation is felt G-lock Blood rushes to the lower half of the body No oxygen-rich blood is reaching the brain which is why many pilots experience blackouts, passing out.. Blood is unable to move

Question 42

Histotoxic Hypoxia

Answer 42

There is plenty of oxygen however the cells are unable to use it Due to alcohol, drugs, and poison. Red blood cells clump together and block the smaller blood vessels Cyanide poisoning (combustion of plastics) is a common way to see histotoxic hypoxia

Question 43

Stages of hypoxia 1

Answer 43

Indifferent Stage Sea level to 10,000’ 98-87% O2 Mild hypoxia symptoms for long durations near 10,000’ Per the FAA during the day Mild hypoxia and decreased night vision at or above 5,000’ FAA during night Why? You need to use more oxygen at night to see and process Rods are working harder since cones are useless at nighttime

Question 44

Stages of hypoxia 2

Answer 44

Compensatory Stage 10,000’-15,000’ 87-80% O2 Drowsiness, poor judgment, impaired coordination and efficiency The body can help protect itself up until the disturbance stage The body increases its breathing rate Pumping blood faster Widening blood vessels around vital organs Supplemental oxygen is required for crew for flights above 12,500’ up to 14,000’ longer than 30 minutes

Question 45

Stages of hypoxia 3

Answer 45

Disturbance stage 15,000’ to 20,000’ 80-65% O2 The body no longer has protection against hypoxia Impaired flight controls, handwriting, speech, vision, judgment, and intellectual function Decreased coordination, memory, sensation to pain Supplemental oxygen is required for the crew above 14,000’ (14,001) Supplemental oxygen is required for crew above 15,000’ (15,001) and must be offered to each aircraft occupant

Question 46

Stages of Hypoxia 4

Answer 46

Critical stage 20,000-25,000’ 65-60% O2 Little to no warning of hypoxia symptoms 3-5 minutes Unconsciousness from circulatory or central nervous system failure Convulsions Cardiovascular collapse Death Supplemental oxygen should be in use

Question 47

Symptoms of hypoxia

Answer 47

Rapid breathing Cyanosis Impaired judgment Mental confusion Unconsciousness Euphoria Anxiety Headache

Question 48

Decompression Sickness (The Bends)

Answer 48

Henry's Law - more altitude decreases pressure on the body, painful nitrogen bubbles form anywhere, 60% of them are usually joint pain. Boyle’s Law - more gas = less pressure because the area cannot handle the pressure Give 100% O2, emergency descent/land. Scuba: 12 hours/8000 feet max for uncontrolled ascent. 24 hours controlled

Question 49

Eustachian tubes

Answer 49

an opening that connects the middle ear with the nasal-sinus cavity Equalize pressure between the middle and outside ear is fluid is drained (from inside ear to throat)

Question 50

Valsalva maneuver

Answer 50

(hold nose and attempt to blow nose) corrects simple blockages, forcing air through the tube Tubes only open during chewing/yawning/swallowing

Question 51

Ears when climbing

Answer 51

When climbing, inner ear pressure is greater than outer, causing clearing

Question 52

Ears when descending

Answer 52

In descent, inner pressure is less than outer, causing the eardrum to bulge inward

Question 53

What can hinder ear equalization

Answer 53

Cold/ear infection/sore throat congestion can hinder pressure equalization. Fluid from infection can swell the eustachian tube to where it cant open

Question 54

Ear tubes

Answer 54

Can be inserted into the eardrum to bypass the eustachian tube. pressure can equalize and fluid can drain out the ear rather than down the throat.

Question 55

Sinus block

Answer 55

sinus cavities on cheek bones and above the eyes and are connected to the nasal passage. mucous that is produced becomes blocked and can be infected

Question 56

Point of the sinus

Answer 56

hallowed cavity, less mass on the skull warm and humidfy air we breath produce mucous to help the nose from drying out and remove bacteria resonate sound we hear

Question 57

Where is the vestibular system

Answer 57

The vestibular system is in the inner ear, allowing movement sensation/orientation/balance

Question 58

Inner ear is made up of

Answer 58

3 semi circular cannals anterrior, posterrior, lateral, all at right angles of eachother (have hairs and fluid in it can tell us what plane we are rotating around cochlea (how we hear) spiral snail thing otolith organs(utricle and saccule) - sensory organs of hair/crystals for gravity/linear acceleration

Question 59

3 systems used for spatial orientation

Answer 59

* Vestibular system—organs found in the inner ear that sense position by the way we are balanced * Somatosensory system—nerves in the skin, muscles, and joints that, along with hearing, sense position based on gravity, feeling, and sound * Visual system—eyes, which sense position based on what is seen

Question 60

Carbon Monoxide

Answer 60

-carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin and reduces oxygen supply to tissues -cannot be seen. smelled, or tasted -s/s include: nausea, vomiting, headache, weakness, and unconsciousness -death may occur with prolonged exposure

Question 61

Prevent carbon monoxide poisoning

Answer 61

by ensuring proper ventilation when using fuel-burning devices gas-burning devices should be inspected annually -flues and chimneys should be unobstructed -carbon monoxide detectors should be installed and inspected regularly

Question 62

The leans

Answer 62

caused by a sudden return to level flight following a gradual and prolonged turn that went unnoticed by the pilot. The reason a pilot can be unaware of such a gradual turn is that human exposure to a rotational acceleration of 2 degrees per second or lower is below the detection threshold of the semicircular canals. [Figure 17-4] Leveling the wings after such a turn may cause an illusion that the aircraft is banking in the opposite direction. In response to such an illusion, a pilot may lean in the direction of the original turn in a corrective attempt to regain the perception of a correct vertical posture.

Question 63

Coriolis illusion

Answer 63

pilot has been in a turn long enough for the fluid in the ear canal to move at the same speed as the canal. A movement of the head in a different plane, such as looking at something in a different part of the flight deck, may set the fluid moving, creating the illusion of turning or accelerating on an entirely different axis. This action causes the pilot to think the aircraft is performing a maneuver it is not. The disoriented pilot may maneuver the aircraft into a dangerous attitude in an attempt to correct the aircraft’s perceived attitude

Question 64

Graveyard Spiral

Answer 64

As in other illusions, a pilot in a prolonged coordinated, constant rate turn will have the illusion of not turning. An observed loss of altitude during a coordinated constant-rate turn that has ceased stimulating the motion-sensing system can create the illusion of being in a descent with the wings level. During the recovery to level flight, the pilot will experience the sensation of turning in the opposite direction (leans). The pilot may return the aircraft to its original turn and, in doing so, continue to lose altitude. Instruments will likely indicate a descent at this point, causing the pilot to try to correct for the illusion of a level descent. The pilot pulls back on the yoke, tightening the spiral and increasing a loss in altitude Graveyard spin is an abrupt stop of a spin that simulates spinning in the opposite direction Correction of the fake spin can reinduce the original spin

Question 65

Somatogravic illusion

Answer 65

A rapid acceleration, such as experienced during takeoff, stimulates the otolith organs in the same way as tilting the head backwards. This action may create what is known as the “somatogravic illusion” of being in a nose-up attitude, especially in conditions with poor visual references. The disoriented pilot may push the aircraft into a nose-low or dive attitude. A rapid deceleration by quick reduction of the throttle(s) can have the opposite effect, with the disoriented pilot pulling the aircraft into a nose-up or stall attitude.

Question 66

Inversion illusion

Answer 66

An abrupt change from climb to straight and level will make the pilot feel like he is tumbling backward. The disoriented pilot will push the nose forward (low) and possibly intensify the illusion

Question 67

Night Illusions

Answer 67

False Horizon AutoKineses Vertigo Black Hole Approach

Question 68

Runway Illusion

Answer 68

Sloping runway Down slope= lower Up slope= higher wide/narrow runway Wider= higher narrower=lower Lower on narrow runways to have the same sight picture as the wider runway

Question 69

Elevator illusion

Answer 69

An abrupt upward vertical acceleration, usually by an updraft, can create the illusion of being in a climb. The disoriented pilot will push the aircraft into a nose low attitude. An abrupt downward vertical acceleration, usually by a downdraft, has the opposite effect, with the disoriented pilot pulling the aircraft into a nose up attitude (vestibular)

Question 70

False Horizon

Answer 70

Sloping cloud formations, an obscured horizon, a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars, and certain geometric patterns of ground light can create illusions of not being aligned correctly with the actual horizon. The disoriented pilot will place the aircraft in a dangerous attitude. (visual)

Question 71

Category class of Airmen

Answer 71

Airmen: Category - Broad classification of aircraft Airplane, glider, rotorcraft Class - SEL, MEL, MES,

Question 72

Category class of aircraft

Answer 72

Aircraft: Category - Grouping based on intended use or operating limitations Normal, utility, aerobatic Normal: -1.52 to 3.8 (flaps down=3) Utility: -1.76 to 4.4 (flaps down=3) Aerobatic: -4 to 6 Class - Group having similar characteristics of flight Airplane, rotorcraft, landplane, seaplane

Question 73

What my certificate says and airplane says

Answer 73

As a pilot, what does your certificate say? Airplane (cat) Single engine-land (class) The aircraft you're flying though is a Normal (cat) Airplane (class)

Question 74

LAHSO

Answer 74

Land and hold short operations are an air traffic control procedure intended to increase airport capacity without compromising safety Saves ATC and pilots time and money A LAHSO clearance does not preclude a rejected landing If a rejected landing becomes necessary after accepting a LAHSO clearance, the pilot should maintain safe separation from other aircraft or vehicles, and should promptly notify the controller. PIC has the final authority to accept or decline

Question 75

LAHSO weather mins

Answer 75

The weather must be at least 1000 agl ceiling and 3sm vis

Question 76

LAHSO sign

Answer 76

LAHSO runway sign has white letters/black border with a red background

Question 77

Who can do LAHSO

Answer 77

Not authorized for solo students, wet runway, or at night

Question 78

How to become a CFI

Answer 78

Certificate Reqs: 18 y/o RSWU English Commercial or ATP, with IRA FOI endorsement FIA/FOI knowledge tests passed Practical test passed/endorsed Spin endorsed Log 15 hours PIC in cat/class Endorsed for deficient knowledge exam areas Received training in last two calendar months for practical test

Question 79

CFI privileges

Answer 79

Issue endorsements for students, pilots, flight reviews, knowledge/practical tests. Also verify/accept certificate applications

Question 80

CFI Limitations

Answer 80

Only 8 hours of dual flight training in 24 hours Only conduct flight training in applicable category and class May not endorse a student pilot for solo training UNLESS given flight instruction and determined the flight can be performed safely May not endorse a solo XC UNLESS flight planning has been checked and the flight can be made within the pilots limitations May not endorse a student for flight in class B UNLESS flight and ground training has been provided and the flight can be made safe Endorse a flight review UNLESS I am the CFI that conducted the flight review and deemed all parts satisfactory Endorse an IPC UNLESS I conducted the IPC and completed all required sections Cannot teach in a plane that requires a type rating UNLESS i have a type rating on my certificate No ME training unless I have completed 5 hours PIC time

Question 81

Renewing CFI Certificate

Answer 81

Pass practical again FIRC 121/135 captain/check airman/etc ⅘ and 80% of 5 or more students passing practical on first attempt with previous 24 cal months Additional CFI rating

Question 82

Expired Certificate

Answer 82

Add rating or pass the practical again

Question 83

ZERO to HERO PPL

Answer 83

A14 (Endorsement of Citizenship-TSA) A3 (Pre-Solo Aeronautical Knowledge) 61.87(b) Parts 61/91, airport/airspace procedures Flight characteristics/limitations of make/model Review/grade test to 100% A4 (pre-Solo Flight Training) see 61.87(c) A6 (Solo Flight) 90 day 61.87(n) A7 (Solo Flight Additional 90 days) A8 (Solo t/o and landing at airport within 25 nm) one time per airport (KCAK) A9 (Solo XC Flight)` A10 (Solo XC Flight - Planning) A11 (Solo XC not more than 50nm) doesn’t exp but needs current solo, A10 not needed A12 (solo flight in Class B airspace) valid 90 days, ground/flight training for that class B A13 (solo flight to from at airport in class B) A5 (Pre-Solo flight training - Night) valid 90 days A32 (Aeronautical Knowledge Test) valid 60 days, verified they are ready A33 (Flight proficiency for practical test) valid 60 days see 61 regs A1 (logged req’d training in previous 2 cal months) A2 (Knowledge test deficient areas)

Question 84

Failing Practical or written

Answer 84

can reapply after retraining/re-endorsed Review deficient areas, re-endorse, keep record of notice of disqualification and re-endorsement (3 yrs) A73 (retesting after failure of either test) Knowledge endorsement can also be completed on the bottom of the test report. For failed practical, CFI must also sign instructors recc on 8710

Question 85

Records that must be kept

Answer 85

Must sign logbook of anyone whom I given ground or flight training (61.51) Hold solo, knowledge, and practical endorsements for 3 years Hold TSA endorsement, with copy of birth cert and govt photo ID or passport, for 5 years

Question 86

Spins

Answer 86

Spins are an aggravated stall resulting in autorotation about the spin axis wherein the aircraft follows a corkscrew path

Question 87

Auto rotation

Answer 87

A combination of roll and yaw about the C.G. that propagates itself and progressively gets worse due to asymmetrically stalled wings (skid)

Question 88

CG

Answer 88

point on an aircraft in which it would balance if suspended

Question 89

Spiral

Answer 89

Characterized by low AoA, high airspeed and high rate of descent but neither wing is stalled and the aircraft responds to normal inputs Not a spin because neither wing is stalled

Question 90

Phases of a spin 1

Answer 90

Entry : The pilot either accidentally or intentionally provides the elements requiring a spin A spin is a result of a stall and a yaw

Question 91

Phases of a spin 2

Answer 91

Incipient Occurs from the time the aircraft stalls to the development of a spin Typically takes 2 to 4 turns The aerodynamic and inertial forces have not achieved a balance Indicated airspeed will generally stabilize

Question 92

Phases of a spin 3

Answer 92

Developed Begins when aerodynamic forces are in balance Recovery procedures are necessary to break the spin Occurs when the airplane's angular rotation rate, airspeed, and vertical speed are stabilized in a nearly vertical flightpath Spin is in equilibrium Some training aircraft do not become a developed spin but rather a spiral

Question 93

Phases of a spin 4

Answer 93

Recovery POWER IDLE When you're at a high power setting, airflow from your propeller strike your horizontal stabilizer, causing a tail-down force and pitching your nose up Power idle makes spin recovery easier AILERONS NEUTRAL To help your wings reach the same angle-of-attack, which helps you reduce the rolling and yawing moments in the spin. If you try to raise your inside wing using ailerons, you'll actually make the spin worse, because you increase the angle-of-attack of the inner wing. And what about rolling your ailerons into the spin? That's not a good idea either, because as you start to recover, your outside wing is at a higher angle-of-attack, and you can inadvertently start spinning in the opposite direction during recovery. RUDDER OPPOSITE When you add opposite rudder, you stop the yawing moment of the spin to bring it back to just a stall If you're spinning to the left, you add right rudder. And if you're spinning right? Add left rudder ELEVATOR FULL FORWARD Elevator full forward helps breaks the stall Gets the plane back below the critical AOA so recovery can be made Will feel weird but is the only way to regain control of the wings

Question 94

Types of spins

Answer 94

Progressive Aircraft enters a second spin immediately following initial recovery from a spin The direction of the rotation normally opposite to that of the original spin. Occurs when opposite rudder is held in for too long Crossover An upright spin turn into an inverted spin Flat Center of gravity shifts too far aft (toward the tail), and the aircraft’s rotation becomes more horizontal.In this situation, the wings aren’t producing enough lift, and the aircraft essentially falls out of the sky while spinning. Reduced airflow over the wings makes it extremely difficult to regain control of the aircraft

Question 95

Forward CG

Answer 95

More stable (longitudinal stability) Less fuel efficient (more drag) and slower cruise speed Higher stall speed (higher Angle of Attack) Good stall recovery characteristics

Question 96

Aft CG

Answer 96

Less stable (longitudinal stability) More fuel efficient (less drag) and faster cruise speed Lower stall speed Bad stall recovery characteristics

Question 97

Forward slip

Answer 97

dissipates altitude Use normal landing power settings to maintain a desired sink rate POINT RUDDER TO THE SKY Left pattern = right rudder Right pattern = left rudder Left slip left aileron, right rudder

Question 98

Side Slip

Answer 98

maintains centerline Crosswind correction Use extra power to compensate for the increased sink rate

Question 99

Blocked Pitot tube

Answer 99

Airspeed -zero Altimeter -works VSI-works

Question 100

Blocked Pitot tube and drain hole Open static

Answer 100

Airspeed - High in climb, Low in descent Altimeter -works VSI-works

Question 101

Blocked static port open pitot

Answer 101

Airspeed - low climb, high descent Altimeter - frozen VSI- frozen

Question 102

Alternate static air

Answer 102

Airspeed - high Altimeter -high VSI-momentarily shows climb

Question 103

Broken VSI glass

Answer 103

Airspeed -high Altimeter - high VSI- reverses

Question 104

total usable fuel and kind

Answer 104

56 53 100LL (blue) 100 octane (green)

Question 105

Engine type

Answer 105

IO-360-L2A 10 BHP 2400 RPM 360 cubic inches between TDC and BDC

Question 106

propeller

Answer 106

2 blade McCauley 75 inch diameter fixed pitch

Question 107

Oil system

Answer 107

Oil drawn from sumps →oil suction strainer screen → engine driven oil pump → bypass valve → Cold oil bypasses the oil cooler straight to the oil filter → hot oil goes to a flexible hose to the oil cooler → returns to accessory housing →oil filter →pressure relief valve → excess oil is sent back to the sump while the rest is sent out for lubrication Cooling and lubricating 9 quarts total 8 usable and 1 in the sump Mineral oil first 50 hours Ashless Dispersant after 50 hours

Question 108

HANDLE-F

Answer 108

Horizontally opposed Cylinders lay flat and fire horizontally toward one another Vertically opposed, Radial, V-line Cylinders 1 and 3 on right side Cylinders 2 and 4 on left side Offset to allow full motion from connecting rods Air-cooled Air from outside cools the engine Heat dissipation fins direct air right over the cylinders to cool them Could be liquid-cooled with a water-based solution Prevents freezing, rusting, and oxidation Cylinder 3 is the hottest Naturally aspirated No super or turbocharger (PHAK pg 7-12) Increases engine horsepower Both compress intake air to increase the density Maximizes performance of aircraft and allows aircraft to fly at higher altitudes (thinks it is lower than it is) Turbocharger Gets power from exhaust air that spins a compressor Delayed power Supercharger Gets power from engine-driven air pump or compressor Instantaneous power Direct drive The crankshaft is directly connected to the propeller Propeller and crankshaft spin at the same speed Lycoming Engine manufacturer Fuel-injected system

Question 109

Placards

Answer 109

12 in section 2 of POH

Question 110

Fuel System

Answer 110

Fuel Tanks Selector Valve Res tank AUX pump Fuel shutoff Strainer Engine Driven fuel pump Fuel air control unit fuel manifold Fuel nozzle to cylinders

Question 111

Fuel Systems-Fuel pumps

Answer 111

Auxiliary Used in priming/starting engine and is used as a backup pump (emergencies) Engine Driven A fuel pump attached to the engine allows for a pressurized flow of fuel through the system to the fuel-air control unit

Question 112

Fuel System-Res tank

Answer 112

Purpose is to always have fuel ready to go halfway through the system in the event full power is needed rapidly Allows time for the tanks to catch up and refill the reservoir

Question 113

Fuel Systems-FACU

Answer 113

Replaces the carburetor Proportions fuel flow to induction airflow amount Controlled by the mixture setting The throttle controls the speed fuel flows through the system Air to fuel ratio should be 15 parts air to 1 part (grams) fuel Weight NOT volume Sent to the fuel distribution valve at a rate controlled by the throttle

Question 114

Fuel Systems- Fuel Distribution Valve(manifold)

Answer 114

Distributes the ready fuel/air mixture to each cylinder Distributes based on the position of th fuel selector valve Left, Right, or Both

Question 115

Fuel Systems- Distribution Nozzles

Answer 115

Inject the fuel/air mixture directly into the cylinder head intake port

Question 116

Advantages of Fuel Injection

Answer 116

No carb ice Better fuel flow Faster throttle response Precise mixture control Better fuel distribution Easier cold weather starts

Question 117

Disadvantages of fuel injection

Answer 117

Hard to start a hot engine Vapor lock during ground operations Evaporation of fuel in fuel lines due to hot weather Combat by priming engine prior to start to encourage fuel flow through lines to facilitate start Expensive

Question 118

Steady Green ground

Answer 118

cleared for takeoff

Question 119

Steady Green air

Answer 119

cleared to land

Question 120

Flashing green ground

Answer 120

cleared to taxi

Question 121

Flashing green air

Answer 121

circle to land(followed by steady green)

Question 122

Steady red ground

Answer 122

stop

Question 123

Flashing red ground

Answer 123

taxi clear of runway

Question 124

steady red air

Answer 124

Give way continue circle

Question 125

flashing red air

Answer 125

Do not land

Question 126

Flashing white ground

Answer 126

return to start point

Question 127

Flashing white air

Answer 127

N/A

Question 128

Alternate red and green

Answer 128

Exercise Extreme Caution

Question 129

Plane weights

Answer 129

Normal Ramp 2457 Takeoff/Land 2450 Utility Ramp 2107 Takeoff/Land 2100

Question 130

Oil capacity

Answer 130

8 sump 9 total

Question 132

CFI logbook entry 61.51

Answer 132

Nathan Jones1234567CFI Exp 01/26

Question 133

What is needed to send them to Kcak and back

Answer 133

Endorsements: “what do I have to do to send them to CAK?” - A14, A3, A4, A6/A7, A8

Question 134

Aerodynamics of spin

Answer 134

Need stall and a yaw For a spin to occur both wings need to be stalled One wing will be more stalled than the other The first wing to stall will drop first The other wing will rise, decreasing its angle of attack, and the aircraft will yaw toward the more deeply-stalled wing. The difference in lift between the two wings causes the aircraft to roll The difference in drag causes the aircraft to yaw Over banking tendency? In a bank, the up wing must travel at a faster speed than the down wing to maintain an equal radius (due to yaw) The up wing is traveling fast hence producing more lift causing the up wing to want to continue