Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

physio science > PAL xmas quiz revision > Flashcards

PAL xmas quiz revision Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is inflammation?

A

The body’s response to infection

A localised physical condition in which part of the body becomes reddened, swollen, hot and often painful, especially as a reaction to injury or infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List the causes of inflammation

A

Physical injury

Chemical injury

Infection

Nutritional

Hypoxic (deprived of oxygen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 3 main purposes of inflammation?

A

Neutralise / destroy infection

Limit the spread of infection

Prepare tissue for repair

[Remember NLP}

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the cardinal signs of infection?

A

Pain

Redness

Swelling

Heat

Loss of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the difference between infection and inflammation

A

Infection: invasion/production of a reproducing pathogen

Inflammation: Immune response to presence of pathogen, trauma and other stresses to the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the stages of tissue repair (with time scales

A

Bleeding – 4-6 hours

Inflammation – Maximal reaction 1-3 days up to 2 weeks

Proliferation – Onset 24 hours to 2-3 weeks peek activity then 4-6 months post-trauma

Remodelling – Onset 1 week to 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does chronic inflammation differ from acute inflammation?

A

Chronic lasts more than 2 weeks

Persistence of infection

Autoimmune response

Unorganised granulation tissue, fibrosis/scaring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What must be done as early management of tissue repair?

A

Protect the area:

Elevate

Avoid anti inflammatories to allow inflammation and thus the healing process.

Compression:

Exercise – when is it not painful to do so

Load – when it is not painful to do so

Vascularisation – to get the blood flowing to the site of the injury which will aid healing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List 6 factors that affect healing of a fracture

A 
Blood supply 
Infection 
Mobility 
Nutrition 
Steroids 
Type of tissue 
Age 
Protein deficiency 
Vit c deficiency 
Prolonged inflammation 
Adhesion to bone 
poor blood supply  
Excessive movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name the 2 components of bones

A

Connective tissue = elastic

Mineral component = hardness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the main functions of bones

A

Surface for muscles/ligaments to attached to which enables movement.

Production of yellow bone marrow needed for fighting infections

Enables movement via articulating joint

Protection of organs (axial skeleton)

Support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 5 types of bone in the body (with examples)

A

Long bones – Femur, humerus, tibia, fibula

Flat bone – skull, sternum, scapula .

Short bones – carpal and tarsal bones

Sesamoid bone – Patella

Irregular shaped bones – Vertebra, cocycx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 5 stages of bone repair (include rough time scales)

A

Hematoma formation 1 week

Fibrocartaliginous callus formation 2-3 weeks

Callus Ossification 1-4 months

Bone remodelling 4-12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the definition of a fracture

A

An interruption in the continuity of the bone which may be a complete break or an incomplete break

or

A loss of continuity in the substance of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is avulsion

A

Where a muscle or tendon pulls a portion of a bone away from the rest of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name the 3 ways you can describe the displacement of a fracture?

A

Apposition (shift)

Angulation (tilt)

Rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does ORIF stand for

A

Open Reduction Internal Fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is IM?

A

Intramedullary nail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name 3 possible complications post-fracture

A

DVT

Malunion

Tetanus

Compartment syndrome

Shock

Adhesions

Avascular necrosis

Infection (wound and bone)

Non union

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the aims of therapy during fracture management

A

Reduce oedema

Maintain circulation to area

Muscle function

Joint range

Maintain function

Education (e.g. special appliances)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define osteoporosis

A

A progressive systemic skeletal disease, where bone formation is slower than reabsorption and results in decreased bone strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name 4 of the roles of a physiotherapist during management of osteoporosis

A

Exercise (load bearing to help bone)

Muscle strengthening

Education

Balance assessment / exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a joint?

A

Articulation of 2 or more bones where they meet/connect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does joint structure determine

A

Direction of movement

Distance of movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 2 classes of joint

A

Structural – based on connective tissue type that binds bones

Functional – Based on degree of motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the 3 types of functional joint

A

Fibrous

Cartilaginous

Synovial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the 3 functional classes of joint?

A

Synarthrosis = non moveable

Amphiarthrosis = slightly moveable

Diarthrosis = freely moveable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the 3 characteristics of a fibrous joint?

A

United by fibrous connective tissue

Has no joint cavity

Moves little or not at all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a cartilaginous joint?

A

2 bones united by a continuous pad of cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a synovial joint and what is it limited by?

A

Freely mobile joint

Allows considerable movement

Contains synovial fluid

Limited by:

Muscles

Ligament

Joint capsule

Shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are 3 types of synovial joint?

A

Uniaxial = 1 axis e.g. elbow

Biaxial = 2 axis at right angle e.g. MCPJ

Multiaxial – several axis e.g. shoulder, hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 3 types of movement that synovial joints produce and give an example

A

Gliding _flexion/extension of the spine

Angular – flexion/extension, DF/PF, Abduction/adduction

Circular – rotation, pronation/supination, circumduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the 6 types of synovial joint (with examples)

A

Plane/gliding – intervertebral

Saddle – thumb, sternoclavicular

Hinge – elbow

Pivot – Radioulnar AND C1 and C2 in the neck

Ball and socket – shoulder, hip

Ellipsoid/condyloid – atlantooccipital metacarpophalangeal joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q 
What is the main role of the following tissues? Synovial cartilage (hyaline) 
Synovial membrane 
Capsule  
Ligament 
Fat pad  
Bursa 
Muscle
Tendons
Tendon sheath
A

Synovial cartilage (hyaline) = absorbs shock and reduces friction of movement

Synovial membrane = lubrication of cartilage

Capsule = encloses joint

Ligament = limit joint range, stabilisation

Fat pad = shock absorption

Bursa = friction reduction

Muscle = primary movement force

Tendons = stabilisation

Tendon sheath = surround tendon as they pass over bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is avascular necrosis

A

Death of bone due to a lack of blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the difference between osteoarthrosis and osteoarthritis?

A

Osteoarthrosis: wear and tear; emphasises the mechanical damage rather than the inflammatory response

Osteoarthritis: emphasis the mechanical damage AND the inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Name 3 structural changes seen in osteoarthritis

A

Cartilage: thinning and cracking

Bone: sclerosis (thickening), osteophyte formation

Synovium/capsule thickening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Name 8 Treatments/Interventions used in treatment of OA

A

Reducing pain and inflammation

Education regarding behaviour and lifestyle

Exercises to improve mobility and strength

Analgesia

Non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs

Joint replacement surgery

Intra-articular steroid injection

Insoles, braces & supports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Define Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis is an autoimmune disorder whereby the immune system attacks the tissue of the joints which leads to swelling and pain primarily affecting joints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In what way does RA present differently to OA?

A

Symptoms tend to occur bilaterally

Rheumatoid nodules

Anaemia

Loss of appetite

Fever

Non joint issues (skin, eye, heart, kidney)

Relapsing and remitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle tissue and what are they responsible for?

A

Skeletal = locomotion, facial expressions, posture, respiration

Smooth = walls of organs, blood vessels, eye, glands and skin

Cardiac = involuntary control by endocrine and nervous system, controls heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Define the following

Fascicle
Fibre
Sarcomere
Myofilament

A

Fascicle = a discrete bundle of muscle tissue

Fibre = a muscle cell

Sarcomere = contractile unit of muscle

Myofilament = actin and myosin containing structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Describe the 3 types of muscle contraction

A

Isometric = no change in length but tension increases

Isotonic = change in length but tension constant

Muscle tone = involuntary constant tension of muscle for long periods of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the difference between concentric and eccentric contraction

A

Concentric = the internal force is greater than the external force. When applied muscle length shortens and origin and insertion move closer together.

Eccentric = external force is greater than internal force. Muscle lengthens whilst still maintaining tension. Origin and insertion move apart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

State and explain the 4 functional characteristics of muscle

A

Contractility = ability of muscle to shorten with force

Excitability = capacity of muscle to respond to stimulus.

Extensibility = muscle can be stretched to its normal resting length

Elasticity = ability of muscle to recoil to original resting length after being stretched.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Name and explain each stage of the Oxford Grading Scale

A

0 = no muscle movement

1 = muscle movement without joint motion

2 = moves with gravity eliminated

3 = moves against gravity but no resistance

4 = moves against gravity and light resistance

5 = normal strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

State 4 factors affecting muscle force generation

A

Length/tension relationship

Velocity/speed

Recruitment

Fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Explain the mechanical advantage of levers

A

The closer the load is to the fulcrum and the longer the lever, the lower the level of effort required to move the load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is hysteresis?

A

Energy loss associated with cyclic loading and unloading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is creep?

A

Gradual tissue deformation under constant load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is stress relaxation?

A

Sudden hard force = instant deformation

Constant deformation under gradually decreasing load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is rate of loading?

A

The speed in which a tissue is loaded. The faster it is loaded the stiffer it is.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is viscosity?

A

A fluids resistance to flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is elasticity?

A

The ability of tissue to return to its normal original length after stretch/deformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is sarcopenia and the 3 changes it causes?

A

Degenerative loss of skeletal muscle mass and strength associated with ageing

Loss of muscle fibre number

Loss of cross-sectional area

Preferential loss of fast twitch fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How many lobes in each lung

A

Right lung has 3 lobes

Left lung has 2 lobes

57
Q

What constitutes the upper respiratory tract?

A

External nose

Nasal cavity

Pharynx

58
Q

What constitutes the lower respiratory tract?

A

Larynx

Trachea

Bronchi

Lungs

59
Q

Where does the trachea start and end

A

C2 to T4

60
Q

What is the primary function of the alveoli?

A

Gas exchange

61
Q

What is minute ventilation?

A

Total amount of air passing in and out of the lungs in one minute

62
Q

What is normal respiratory rate?

A

12-20 breaths per minute

63
Q

What are the inspiratory respiratory muscles?

A

External intercostals

Pectoralis minor

Scalene

Sternocleidomastoid

Diaphragm (contracts)

64
Q

What are the expiratory muscles?

A

Internal intercostals

Abdominals

Diaphragm (relaxes)

65
Q

How would secretions sound on auscultation?

A

Crackles (can be fine or course)

66
Q

What is VQ mismatch?

A

Deficiency in blood supply to lungs (perfusion)

Or

Deficiency in supply of O2 to lungs (ventilation)

67
Q

What do cilia do?

A

Waft secretions/mucus to the throat, where it can be expectorated

68
Q

What 4 things effect the efficiency of the cilia?

A

Dehydration

Smoking

Hypoxia

Inflammation

69
Q

Why would you use humified oxygen?

A

Hydrating effect on cilia prevents dehydration and optimises cilia function

70
Q

What is the role of a cough?

A

Clear blockages and/or secretions, which helps to maintain a patient’s airway

71
Q

What is lung compliance?

A

The measure of ease of expansion of the lungs and thorax.

72
Q

What would low lung compliance suggest?

A

Stiff lungs – fibrosis or atelectasis (Collapse of the lung - partial or complete).

73
Q

What is external respiration

A

Exchange of oxygen in the lungs into the blood.

74
Q

What is internal respiration

A

Exchange of oxygen from the blood to the tissues.

75
Q

What is cyanosis?

A

Lack of oxygen in the blood

76
Q

How would someone with cyanosis present?

A

Blue lips / skin / fingers

77
Q

Name common obstructive lung diseases

A

Bronchitis

Bronchiectasis

Emphysema

Asthma

COPD

78
Q

What is pleural effusion?

A

Build-up of fluid within the pleura

79
Q

What does atelectasis mean?

A

Collapse or closure of the lung

80
Q

Kyphotic posture and obesity are what types of lung condition?

A

Restrictive lung conditions

81
Q

What does CHD/CAD stand for and what is it?

A

Coronary heart disease / coronary artery disease

The partial or full blockage of the coronary arteries by build-up of LDL proteins which form plaques, increase turbulence or completely stops flow of blood

82
Q

Name 8 risk factors to CAD

A

Smoking

Obesity

High blood pressure

Stress

Reduced exercise tolerance

Age

Glucose intolerance

High cholesterol

83
Q

What does MI stand for and what is it in layman’s terms

A

MI = myocardial infarction

Heart attack

84
Q

How long before lack of blood to the heart causes permanent damage?

A

20 minutes

85
Q

What is angina described as

A

Choking of the chest

86
Q

What are 6 symptoms of MI?

A

Retrosternal chest pain

Crushing, squeezing, tightness and radiating of the chest

Nausea / vomiting

Sweating, cold and clammy skin

Tachy/Brady cardia and irregular rhythms

Feeling of impending doom

87
Q

What are the 2 types of angina and how do they present differently?

A

Stable = comes on after exercise/exertion or increased emotion/stress. Eases with GTN medication and rest.

Unstable = no clear cause, can come on at rest. Takes increased amounts of GTN each time to resolve.

88
Q

What is AF? How might someone with AF present?

A

Atrial fibrillation

Faint or lightheaded

Palpations or irregular heartbeat

Chest pains / weakness

89
Q

What are some of the treatments for AF?

A

Rate control

Rhythm control

Anticoagulation

Treat the underlying cause e.g. valve problem

90
Q

What does LVSD stand for? What type of cardiac problem is it?

A

Left ventricular systolic dysfunction

Heart failure

91
Q

Name the heart valves

A

Mitral/bicuspid

Tricuspid

Aortic

Pulmonary

92
Q

What 3 things assist venous return

A

Valves

Muscular compression

Respiratory pump

93
Q

What is systole blood pressure measuring?

A

Ventricular contraction and ejection of blood (pressure on the artery.

94
Q

What is the sinoatrial node?

A

The heart’s pacemaker

95
Q

What is the CNS and. Its function?

A

Central nervous system.

Brain and spinal cord

Controls most of body’s function. The command centre

96
Q

What is the PNS and its function?

A

Peripheral nervous system.

12 cranial nerves, spinal nerves and root + autonomous nerves

Transmits information from peripheries to CNS

97
Q

What is the difference between afferent and efferent nerve signals

A

Afferent = to the CNS with sensory information

Efferent = from the CNS with motor commands

98
Q

What influences the speed of action potentials?

A

Myelin sheath (saltatory conduction)

Diameter of the axon

99
Q

What is the reflex arc

A

Sensory message is sent from the PNS to spinal cord.

Spinal cord sends a motor command straight back to affected tissue

Action potential transmission bypasses brain

E.g. pin in foot

100
Q

What is Golgi tendon reflex?

A

When you lift weights, the Golgi tendon organ is the sense organ that tells you how much tension the muscle is exerting. If there is too much muscle tension the Golgi tendon organ will inhibit the muscle from creating any force (via a reflex arc), thus protecting you from injury.

101
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves exist?

A

31 pairs

run from foramen magnum to L2

102
Q

Define a dermatome

A

Innervation from a single nerve root into the dermis

103
Q

In terms of myotomes, what movement does C5 innervate

A

Shoulder abduction

104
Q

What is a myotome?

A

a set of muscles innervated by a specific, single spinal nerve

105
Q

Name an ascending spinal tract and its function

A

Spinothalamic trace = pain, temperature, touch, pressure

Spinocerebellar tract = proprioception, balance and co-ordination

Fasciculi’s cutaneous tracts = discriminative touch

106
Q

What is the primary function of the brain stem?

A

Heart rate

Respiratory rate

Temperature regulation

Blood pressure

107
Q

Define 3 types of neurological conditions and give examples for each.

A

Sudden onset – stroke

Intermittent and unpredictable – epilepsy, early MS

Stable with changing needs – cerebral palsy

108
Q

What are the following acronyms:

SCI

PD

MND

MS

TBI

ABI

A

SCI – spinal cord injury

PD – Parkinson’s Disease

MND – Motor Neuron Disease

MS – Multiple Sclerosis

TBI – Traumatic Brain Injury

ABI – Acquired Brain Injury

109
Q

Define some common symptoms of neurological damage

A

Abnormal movement

Spasticity

Clonus

Hypo/hypertonus

Flaccidity

Rigidity

Weakness

Ataxia

Atrophy

Loss of function

Bradykinesia

Dyskinesia

Vertigo/dizziness

Lack of coordination

Reduced/absent sensation

Autonomic symptoms

Dysarthria

Dysphagia

Dysphasia

Tremor

110
Q

Define neuroplasticity

A

The ability of the brain to change its structure in order to facilitate or enhance a new/unpractised function

The brains’ ability to rearrange and form new synaptic connections in a response to learning or following injury

111
Q

Name 3 requirements for neuroplasticity to occur

A

Intact neuromusculoskeletal system

Intact sensory-motor control

Intact cognitive process

112
Q

Movement is an interaction of which 3 factors

A

Task

Individual

Environment

113
Q

What are the principles of neuroplasticity

A

Use it or lose it

Use it and improve it

Specificity

Repetition matters

Intensity matters

Time matters

Salience matters

Age matters

Transference

Interference

114
Q

What are the respiratory system functions?

A

Gaseous exchange - o2 enters CO2 exits

regulation of blood PH - alters by changing CO2 levels in the blood

Voice production - As air travels through past vocal cords sounds/ speech is produced

Olfaction (smells) - Airbourne molecules enter the nasal cavity

Protection - Against microorganisms entering the body, and expells/removes through the respiratory tract

115
Q

What are normal values for:

BP
RR - Respiratory rate
Pulse -
Temp -

A

BP - 120/80
RR - Respiratory rate = 12 - 20 breaths per minute
Pulse - 60 - 100 bpm
Temp - 36.1 - 37.2

116
Q

What is a nociceptor?

A

sensory receptors that are activated by noxious stimuli that damage or threaten the body’s integrity.

Nociceptors are specific receptors within the skin, muscle, skeletal structures, and viscera that detect potentially damaging stimuli.

117
Q

What is nocioception?

A

Nociception is the process by which noxious stimulation is communicated through the peripheral and central nervous system.

118
Q

What are the 4 basic steps involved in nocioception (in the correct order)

A
  1. Transduction
  2. Transmission
  3. Perception
  4. Modulation
119
Q

Definine transduction (nociceptive pain)

A

The process by which external stimuli are converted to electrical signals that can be perceived as pain.

Transduction begins when the free nerve endings (nociceptors) of C fibres and A-delta fibres of primary afferent neurones respond to noxious stimuli.

120
Q

What 3 stimuli can activate nociceptive pain?

A

Mechanical (pressure swelling, abscess, Tumor growth)

Heat (burn, scald)

Chemical (toxic substance, ischemia, infection)

121
Q

Where are nociceptors found / distrubuted?

A

Somatic structures (skin muscles, conective tissue, bones)

Visceral structures (e.g Gastro intestinal tract)

C fibre and delta A fibres are associated with different pain qualities.

122
Q

Explain the transmission process (nociception) 3 stages

A

from the site of transduction along the nociceptor fibres to the dorsal horn in the spinal cord;
from the spinal cord to the brain stem via spinothalamic tract;
through connections between the thalamus, cortex and higher levels of the brain where the signal is processed.

123
Q

Explain perception (nociception)

A

Perception of pain is the end result of the neuronal activity of pain transmission and where pain becomes a conscious multidimensional experience. The multidimensional experience of pain has affective-motivational, sensory-discriminative, emotional and behavioural components.

When the painful stimuli are transmitted to the brain stem and thalamus, multiple cortical areas are activated and responses are elicited which are:

The reticular system
Somatosensory cortex
Limbic system

124
Q

Explain modulation stage (nociception)

A

Changing or inhibiting transmission of pain impulses in spinal cord.

Decending modulating pain pathways either increase transmission of pain impulses (excitatory) or decreases transmission (inhibition)

125
Q

What are the categories of pain (5)

A
  1. Nociceptive
  2. Neuropathic
  3. Sypmathetic
  4. Nocioplastic (Centralised pain)
  5. affective
126
Q

Clinical features of nociceptive pain

A 
Small area 
easy to demarcate
clear aggs and eases behaviour 
Stress tissue =pain Remove stress = no pain
May have referred pain
127
Q

What is neuropathic pain?

A

initiated by primary leison or damage to the nervous system.

Pain is a direct consequence of a leison or disease effecting the somatosensory system (peripheral or central level)

128
Q

Neuropathic pain causes

A

Trauma - nerve injury / compression

viral infection

Cancer related disease or treatment

Surgical procedures / amputations

Exposure to drugs alcohol, toxic substances

129
Q

What is sympathetic maintained pain?

A

Sympathetic mediated pain, is a chronic neuropathic pain condition

The sympathetic nervous system inexplicably sends pain signals to the brain.

The pain associated with the condition is chronic and often debilitating, with even the slightest touch causing severe pain.

130
Q

How does sympathetically maintained pain present?

A

Chronic regional pain syndrome

Sympathetic nervous system involved

Swelling

glossy skin

Sweating

temp change

vascular changes

131
Q

What is nocioplastic pain / central sensitisation?

A

Pain that arises from altered nociception despite no clear evidence of actual or threatened tissue damage causing the activation of peripheral nociceptors or evidence for disease or lesion of the somatosensory system causing the pain.

132
Q

Nocioplastic clinical features

A

Wide spread pain

Less clear aggs and eases

Allodynia

Secondary hyperalgesia

spontaneous pain

133
Q

What is:

Hyper algesia 
Primary hyperalgesia 
Secondary hyperalgesia 
Nocioception 
Allodynia
A

Hyper algesia = increased sensitivity to feeling pain and an extreme response to pain.

Primary hyperalgesia - increased responsiveness to both heat and mechanical stimulation in the area of injury

Secondary hyperalgesia = increase in sensitivity to mechanical nociceptive stimuli delivered outside the area of tissue injury.

Nocioception = the process by which noxious stimulation is communicated through the peripheral and central nervous system

Allodynia = extreme sensitivity to touch. Activities that aren’t usually painful (like combing one’s hair) can cause severe pain.

134
Q

Dextrocardia - what is it?

A

When the heart is pointed to the right side of the chest.

135
Q

List three cardiovascular system changes in response to Exercise.

A

regional muscle vasodialation,
increased cardiac output,
Systolic blood pressure increases, diastolic blood pressure decreases

Heart mass and volume increase • Resting heart rate can decrease significantly • Cardiac output increases significantly during exercise • Stroke volume increase • Blood flow to skeletal muscle increases • Blood plasma volume increases in the majority of the blood vessels)

136
Q

What information is carried in the corticospinal pathway?

A

motor pathway from the brain’s motor cortex to lower motor neurons

responsible for voluntary movement of the muscles of the limbs and trunk.

137
Q

What is the cardiac cycle?

A

Period between the start of one heartbeat and the start of the next. • Alternating periods of contraction and relaxation

138
Q

What is MS?

A

Autoimmune response in which the myelin in the CNS is destroyed, this contributes to impaired connectivity in the impacted brain areas and tracts, this can happen in the brain and in the spinal cord

139
Q

Name 3 non physical causes of pain

A 
anxiety, 
depression, 
fear avoidance, 
patients beliefs, 
catastrophising, 
thoughts, 
emotions, 
stress, 
learned 
helplessness

physio science (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions