Page Summary Flashcards

1
Q

Which nerve is responsible for the larynx?

A

Vagus

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2
Q

2 nerves for motor of larynx?

A

External superior laryngeal and recurrent laryngeal

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3
Q

Where is external superior laryngeal nerve responsible for with motor?

A

Cricothyroid

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4
Q

Stimulation of which nerve causes laryngospasm?

A

Superior laryngeal nerve

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5
Q

Which 2 nerves are responsible for sensory of larynx?

A

Internal superior laryngeal and recurrent laryngeal

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6
Q

Where is internal superior laryngeal nerve responsible for with sensory?

A

Above vocal cords and cords

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7
Q

Where is recurrent laryngeal nerve responsible for with sensory?

A

Below vocal cords

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8
Q

Posterior cricoarytenoid movement?

A

Abduct
“You take it out back”

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9
Q

Lateral cricoarytenoid movement?

A

Adduct
“You bring it in from the side”

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10
Q

Cricothyroid does — to vocal cords

A

Tenses

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11
Q

Thyroarytenoid does — to vocal cords.

A

Relaxes

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12
Q

Which 2 nerves are responsible for pharynx?

A

Spinal accessory and glossopharyngeal

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13
Q

Which nerve controls motor in pharynx?

A

Spinal accessory

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14
Q

Which nerve controls sensory in pharynx?

A

Glossopharyngeal

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15
Q

Laryngeal cartilages from superior to inferior (6)

A

Epiglottis
Thyroid
Cuneiform
Corniculate
Arytenoids
Cricoid

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16
Q

Normal P50 value?

A

26-27mmHg

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17
Q

8 causes of left shift in oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

Decrease PCO2
Decrease H+
Increase pH
Decrease temp
Increase CO poisoning (carboxyhemoglobin)
Fetal hemoglobin
Methemoglobin (prilocaine, benzocaine, nitroprusside)
Smoking

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18
Q

6 causes of right shift in oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

Increase PCO2
Increase H+
Decrease pH
Increase temp
Increase 2-3 DPG
Sickle cell anemia

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19
Q

Right shift — O2 from blood

A

Unloads

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20
Q

Right shift of oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve=

A

Release

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21
Q

Left shift — O2 affinity

A

Increases

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22
Q

Left shift of oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve=

A

Locked

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23
Q

PaCO2 affects oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve

A

Bohr effect

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24
Q

PaO2 affects CO2 dissociation curve

A

Haldane affect

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25
Q

Cl- exchange for HCO3- in RBC’s

A

Hamburger shift

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26
Q

What is the hamburger shift?

A

HCO3- out, Cl- in ; non pulmonary

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27
Q

90% SaO2 =

A

60mmHg

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28
Q

70% SaO2 =

A

40 mmHg

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29
Q

Dissolved O2 =

A

.003 x PaO2

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30
Q

O2 bound to Hb =

A

1.34 x Hb x SaO2

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31
Q

Total O2 Content (CaO2) =

A

(1.34 x Hb x SaO2) + (.003 x PaO2)

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32
Q

O2 consumption ~

A

3-4 ml/kg/min ; 250ml/min

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33
Q

Dissolved CO2 =

A

.003 x PaCO2

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34
Q

CO2 produced and eliminated @

A

200ml/min ; 2.4-3.2ml/kg/min

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35
Q

CO2 is — more soluble than O2

A

20x

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36
Q

Anatomical dead space =

A

2ml/kg

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37
Q

Alveolar ventilation (VA) =

A

(TV - DS) x RR

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38
Q

PaO2 on O2 =

A

FiO2 x 5

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39
Q

PaO2 on RA =

A

102 - age/3

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40
Q

PAO2 on O2 =

A

FiO2 x 6

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41
Q

PAO2 on RA =

A

100 - (.4 x age)

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42
Q

PAO2 proper equation =

A

[FiO2 x (Patm - PH2O) - (PACO2/RQ)]

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43
Q

Pulmonary ventilation (VT) =

A

RR and TV

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44
Q

Net Filtration pressure =

A

Kf [(Pc-Pi) - (Oc-Oi)] x SA

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45
Q

Normal net filtration pressure

A

+1

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46
Q

Ficks law of diffusion proportional to

A

(Change in P x SA x diff. Coefficient) / membrane thickness

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47
Q

Poiseuille’s law =

A

R = 8nl/pie(r^4)

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48
Q

Tidal volume ml

A

500

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49
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume ml

A

3000

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50
Q

Expiratory reserve volume ml

A

1000

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51
Q

Residual volume ml

A

1200

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52
Q

Which PFT cannot be measure by spirometry?

A

Residual volume

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53
Q

Inspiratory capacity equation

A

TV + IRV

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54
Q

Inspiratory capacity ml

A

3500

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55
Q

Vital capacity equation

A

TV + IRV + ERV

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56
Q

Vital capacity ml

A

4500

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57
Q

Functional residual capacity equation

A

ERV + RV

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58
Q

Functional residual volume ml

A

2200

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59
Q

Total lung capacity equation

A

TV+ IRV + ERV + RV

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60
Q

Total lung capacity ml

A

5700

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61
Q

Total CO2 content of arterial blood

A

48 mlCO2/100ml blood

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62
Q

Total CO2 content of venous blood

A

52 mlCO2/100ml blood

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63
Q

Normal CO2 arterial-venous difference

A

4 mlCO2/100ml blood

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64
Q

2 primary respiratory centers

A

Dorsal respiratory group (DRG) pacemaker and ventral respiratory group

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65
Q

Which location of the brainstem can the primary respiratory centers be found?

A

Medulla

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66
Q

Dorsal respiratory group pacemaker is in charge of which muscles?

A

Phrenic and external intercostals

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67
Q

Ventral respiratory group is in charge of which muscles?

A

Internal intercostal

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68
Q

Secondary respiratory centers can be found where in the brainstem?

A

Pons

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69
Q

What 2 things make up the secondary respiratory center?

A

Apneustic center and pneumotaxic center

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70
Q

Apneustic center is in charge of what?

A

Deep and prolonged respiration

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71
Q

Pneumotaxic center is in charge of what?

A

Shuts off respiration (hering-Bering 1.5L)

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72
Q

Central chemoreceptors in medulla respond to what?

A

Increase H+, PCO2 in CSF

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73
Q

Peripheral chemoreceptors respond to what?

A

Decrease O2 <60 mmHg

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74
Q

Carotid body response to what?

A

Increase CO2

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75
Q

Aortic arch responds to what?

A

Increase H+

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76
Q

Which nerve is in charge of carotid?

A

Glossopharyngeal

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77
Q

Which nerve is in charge of aortic and stretch receptors?

A

Vagus

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78
Q

—: Partial pressure of CO2 in CSF

A

LeChatelier’s Principle

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79
Q

Vagus nerve, prevents overstretching (TV 1.5L)

A

Hering-Breuer reflex

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80
Q

Inspiration HR and intrathoracic pressure response?

A

Increase HR
Decrease intrathoracic pressure

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81
Q

Dead space vent and perfusion

A

Well vent/poor perfusion

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82
Q

Shunt perfusion and vent

A

Well perfusion/ poor vent

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83
Q

4 things to increase dead space?

A
  1. Age
  2. PP vent
  3. PE
  4. Lung disease
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84
Q

Compliance equation =

A

Change V / change P

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85
Q

Un-anesthetized V and Q in lateral decubitus?

A

Non dependent: decrease V and Q
Dependent: increase V and Q

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86
Q

Anesthetized V and Q in lateral decubitus?

A

Non dependent: increase V and decrease Q
Dependent: decrease V and increase Q

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87
Q

Jackson-Reese is which mapleson?

A

E

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88
Q

Jackson-Reese minimum — L/min (2.5-3xMV)

A

5

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89
Q

Bain circuit is which mapleson circuit?

A

D

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90
Q

Bain circuit minimum flow for CV and SV?

A

CV: 70 ml/kg
SV: 100-300 ml/kg

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91
Q

Normal A-a gradient on RA

A

5-15mmHg

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92
Q

Normal FEV1

A

4L

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93
Q

Normal FVC

A

5L

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94
Q

Normal FEV1/FVC

A

.8

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95
Q

FEV25-75

A

4.7 L/sec

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96
Q

Asthma, bronchitis, emphysema: FEV1, FVC, and FEV1/FVC

A

FEV1: decrease (<2.5L)
FVC: normal
FEV1/FVC: decrease (<.7)

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97
Q

What is the best test to access early stages of COPD?

A

FEV 25-75

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98
Q

Obstruction is — to get out

A

Hard

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99
Q

Restrictive is — to get in

A

Hard

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100
Q

Pulmonary fibrosis, pneumothorax, scoliosis FEV1, FVC, and FEV1/FVC?

A

FEV1: decrease
FVC: decrease
FEV1/FVC: normal to high

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101
Q

Moderate risk FEV1 and FEV1/FVC?

A

FEV1: <2L
FEV1/FVC: <50%

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102
Q

High risk FEV1, FVC, and FEV1/FVC?

A

FEV1: <1L
FVC: <1.5L or 20 ml/kg
FEV1/FVC: <35%

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103
Q

CO has — greater affinity for Hb than O2

A

200-250x

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104
Q

4 ways CO2 is carried in blood:

A
  1. Physically dissolved (5%)
  2. Carbonic Acid (<1%)
  3. Bicarbonate ion (HCO3-, 90%)
  4. Protein bound (5%)
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105
Q

Responsible for converting CO2 to HCO3-

A

Carbonic anhydrase

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106
Q

Central chemoreceptors response to —

A

Systemic CO2 & H+ in the CSF

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107
Q

Peripheral chemoreceptors respond mostly to —

A

Decrease PaO2

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108
Q

— is the primary stimulus for ventilatory response

A

PaCO2

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109
Q

Mast cells can cause — through histamine release

A

Bronchoconstriction

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110
Q

6 anatomical characteristics of a difficult intubation?

A
  1. Short,muscular neck
  2. Receding mandible
  3. Protruding maxillary incisors
  4. Unable to visualize uvula
  5. Limited TMJ (<40mm)
  6. Limited cervical mobility
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111
Q

Permanent dilation of a bronchus or group of small bronchi, airway resistance increase, compliance increases

A

COPD

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112
Q

Copious sputum, increase Hct, “blue bloater”

A

Bronchitis

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113
Q

Cough with exertion, scant sputum, “pink puffer”

A

Emphysema

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114
Q

COPD post op FEV1/FVC and preop CO2:

A

FEV1/FVC: <.5
CO2: >50mmHg

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115
Q

1 symptom to asthma?

A

Wheezing

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116
Q

Asthma acid-base:

A

Hypoxia and hypocarbia with alkalosis

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117
Q

2 most common reasons for pulmonary edema:

A

Increase pulmonary hydrostatic pressure
Increase in permeability of alveolar capillary membrane

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118
Q

Pulmonary edema colloid osmotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure:

A

Colloid osmotic pressure: 28mmHg
Hydrostatic pressure: 6-8mmHg

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119
Q

What is the #1 manifestation of ARDS?

A

Hypoxia

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120
Q

ARDS causes a which kind of shunt?

A

Right to left

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121
Q

Which syndrome has a increased risk of aspiration?

A

Mendelson’s syndrome

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122
Q

Earliest and most reliable sign of aspiration?

A

Hypoxemia

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123
Q

4 causes of pulmonary restrictive disease?

A
  1. Acute intrinsic (ARDS, aspiration, or CHF)
  2. Chronic intrinsic (sarcoidosis, drug induce)
  3. Chronic extrinsic (obesity, ascites, pregnant; “big bellies”)
  4. Disorders of the pleura or mediastinum
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124
Q

Intrinsic restrictive lung disease
Restrictive ♥ myopathy
↑ Ca++
Splenomegaly
Hepatic granulomas
Optic and facial nerve involvement

A

Sarcoidosis

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125
Q

Hypotension, Hypoxemia, Tachycardia, increase CVP, increase PIP, Absence of unilateral breath sounds, Tracheal shift, Asymmetric chest wall movement

A

S/S of tension pneumothorax

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126
Q

Transtracheal Jet Vent location?

A

Cricothyroid membrane

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127
Q

Barotrauma & pneumothorax, Mediastinal air (emphysema), Arterial perforation, DAMAGE TO TRACHEAL MUCOSA, Sub Q emphysema, Exhalation difficulty, Esophageal puncture, THICKENED SECRETIONS

A

Complications of transtrachael jet ventilation

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128
Q

Vent modes for — ventilation: IMV, SIMV, MMV, PSV & HFJV

A

spontaneous ventilation

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129
Q

Vent modes for — ventilation: CMV, AC, and PCV

A

Not supporting spontaneous

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130
Q

— is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor (PDEIII). Phosphodiesterase breaks down cAMP. When phosphodiesterase is inhibited, cAMP accumulates and bronchodilation occurs. It also improves diaphragmatic contractility. — cause release of NE from sym postganglionic neurons – avoid w/ halothane, adenosine receptors

A

Aminophylline ; Xanthines

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131
Q

— and— are both methylated xanthines.

A

Caffeine and Theophylline

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132
Q

— receptor stimulation activates adenylate cyclase which converts ATP to cAMP resulting in bronchodilation

A

Beta-2

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133
Q

— is a mast cell stabilizer that prevents the release of histamine, bradykinin. It prevents bronchospasm in asthmatics, but is not effective once bronchospasm develops. CHRONIC

A

Cromolyn sodium

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134
Q

—, a quaternary ammonium compound, is an antimuscarinic used to augment bronchodilation produced by beta-2 agonists. Blockade of the muscarinic receptor leads to a decrease of IP3 so less calcium is released form intracellular vesicles. Smooth muscle tone is reduced.

A

Ipratroprium

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135
Q

— is a non-xanthine central respiratory stimulant. It increases tidal volume and to a lesser extent respiratory rate. It is not good for newborns because it is dissolved in benzyl alcohol. It acts through peripheral chemoreceptors to stimulate central chemoreceptors.

A

Doxapram

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136
Q

ETT equation

A

Age/4 + 4 (uncuffed) (-) 0.5 cuffed

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137
Q

ETT length equation

A

12 + age/2

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138
Q

<6.5kg LMA

A

1

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139
Q

<20kg LMA

A

2

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140
Q

20-30kg LMA

A

2.5

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141
Q

> 30kg LMA

A

3

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142
Q

Normal adult LMA

A

4

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143
Q

Large adult/men LMA

A

5

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144
Q

Crazy large LMA

A

6

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145
Q

Sterilization temperatures:

A

275F & 135C

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146
Q

Aspiration steps:

A
  1. head down (#1)
  2. disconnect circuit
  3. Suction
  4. examine w/ bronchoscope
  5. x-ray
  6. abx (debatable)
  7. physiotherapy
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147
Q

What is a cleaner used?

A

Endozime

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148
Q

Differences in Neonatal Respiratory System:
— Lung compliance
— Chest wall compliance
— FRC
O2 consumption — ml/kg/min

A

Decrease, increase, decrease, 7

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149
Q

Neonatal decrease lung compliance 2nd to less —

A

Alveoli

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150
Q

Neonatal increase chest wall compliance shows — ribs

A

Floppy

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151
Q

Neonatal has decrease FRC to ~ — ml/kg

A

30

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152
Q

Thyro-mental distance

A

> 6.5 cm = ~3 fingerbreadths

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153
Q

Auto regulation:
Cerebral Perfusion Pressure = MAP — mmHg
Coronary Perfusion Pressure = MAP — mmHg
Renal Perfusion Pressure = MAP — mmHg

A

50-150
60-160
80-180

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154
Q

Four types of abnormal Cardiac wall motion:

A
  1. Hypokinesis (less than normal wall motion)
  2. Hyperkinesia (greater than normal wall motion)
  3. Akinesis (absence of wall motion)
  4. Dyskinesis (paradoxical outward motion)
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155
Q

Atrial contraction wave on CVP:

A

A wave on CVP

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156
Q

Ventricular contraction, tricuspid valve elevation wave on CVP:

A

C wave on CVP

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157
Q

Tricuspid closed, systolic atrial filling wave on CVP:

A

V wave on CVP

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158
Q

Ventricular systole, atrial relax, displace tricuspid valve wave on CVP:

A

X wave on CVP

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159
Q

Diastole, early ventricular filling, open tricuspid wave on CVP:

A

Y wave on CVP

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160
Q

RIJ or LIJ preferred and why?

A

RIJ because LIJ has the thoracic duct

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161
Q

CVP waveform: tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis, pulmonary HTN, ↓ right ventricular compliance

A

Large A waves

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162
Q

CVP waveform: tricuspid regurg, r vent papillary muscle ischemia, pericarditis, cardiac tamponade

A

Large V waves

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163
Q

Multiorifice catheter — below SVC

A

2cm

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164
Q

Single orifice catheter — above SVC

A

3cm

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165
Q

— interspace above level of 3rd rib

A

T4-T5

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166
Q

Right ventricular failure, tamponade, tricuspid stenosis, tricuspid regurgitation, pericarditis, pulmonary hypertension, chronic left ventricular failure, and hypervolemia : — CVP

A

Increased CVP

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167
Q

Increase CVP PEEP

A

may read high- need to d/c from vent 10-15 seconds

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168
Q

Where are the venous baroreceptors located?

A

RA and great veins

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169
Q

—: stretch of RA = increase HR with inspiration via vagus nerve

A

Bainbridge reflex

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170
Q

Where are the arterial baroreceptors located?

A

Aortic arch and carotid sinus

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171
Q

Which arterial barorecpetor: Vagus nerve afferent, stretch

A

Aortic arch

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172
Q

Which arterial barorecpetor: Glossopharyngeal (hering’s) nerve afferent

A

Carotid sinus

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173
Q

Action potentials (efferent) via —and — sympathetic cardio accelerators.

A

vagus and T1-T4

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174
Q

Swan-ganz catheter max ballon air

A

1.5ml

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175
Q

Swan-ganz catheter: RA pressure

A

1-8

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176
Q

Swan-ganz catheter: RV pressure

A

15-25/1-8

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177
Q

Swan-ganz catheter: PA pressure

A

15-25/8-15

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178
Q

Swan-ganz catheter: PCWP pressure

A

6-12

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179
Q

Swan-ganz catheter: LA pressure

A

2-12

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180
Q

Swan-ganz catheter: LV pressure

A

100-140/0-12

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181
Q

Swan-ganz catheter: RA depth

A

20

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182
Q

Swan-ganz catheter: RV depth

A

30

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183
Q

Swan-ganz catheter: PA depth

A

45

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184
Q

Swan-ganz catheter: PCWP depth

A

45-50

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185
Q

— is never higher than PADP

A

PAWP

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186
Q

When can PAWP be higher than PADP (3)

A
  1. MS
  2. Increase alveolar pressure
  3. Pulmonary venous obstruction
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187
Q

CVP and PCWP from pt status: hypovolemia

A

CVP: low
PCWP: low

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188
Q

CVP and PCWP from pt status: left ventricular failure

A

CVP: normal or high
PCWP: high

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189
Q

CVP and PCWP from pt status: Right ventricular failure

A

CVP: high
PCWP: normal

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190
Q

CVP and PCWP from pt status: PE

A

CVP: high
PCWP: normal

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191
Q

CVP and PCWP from pt status: chronic pulmonary HTN

A

CVP: high
PCWP: normal

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192
Q

CVP and PCWP from pt status: cardiac tamponade

A

CVP: high
PCWP: high

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193
Q

— = Pressure problem = same size SV

A

Concentric Hypertrophy

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194
Q

— = Volume problem = Larger SV

A

Eccentric Hypertrophy

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195
Q

Arterial wave number: anacrotic limb: contractility & SVR(ease of LV emptying)

A

1

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196
Q

Arterial wave number: dicrotic limb: blood flow to periphery

A

2

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197
Q

Arterial wave number: dicrotic notch: aortic valve closure, coronary artery perfusion

A

3

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198
Q

Pulse pressure greatest in — d/t ↑SBP & ↓DBP

A

pediatrics

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199
Q

High a line transducer = — BP
Low a line transducer = — BP

A

Low ; high

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200
Q

Invasive BP is — mmHg higher than non-invasice

A

20

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201
Q

Sitting position = transducer a line @ —

A

ear

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202
Q

Ventricular action potential:
0=
1=
2=
3=
4=

A

0= Na influx
1= Cl-in, K+out
2= Ca+ influx
3= K+ EF flux
4= Na-K pump

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203
Q

SA node action potential:
0=
3=
4=

A

0= Ca+ and Na+ influx (mostly Ca+)
3= K+ efflux
4= Na-K pump

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204
Q

SV equation

A

(CO x 1000)/HR

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205
Q

CI equation

A

CO/BSA

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206
Q

SI equation

A

CI/HR

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207
Q

SVR equation

A

(MAP-CVP/CO) 80

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208
Q

PVR equation

A

(MPAP-PCWP/CO) 80

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209
Q

CoPP equation

A

AoDBP-PCWP

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210
Q

MAP equation

A

(DBP x 2 + SBP) / 3

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211
Q

SV value

A

60-90 ml/min

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212
Q

CI value

A

2.5-3.5 L/min

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213
Q

SI valve

A

40-60

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214
Q

SVR valve

A

900-1500 dyn

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215
Q

PVR value

A

50-150 dyn

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216
Q

CoPP valve

A

60-160

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217
Q

MAP value

A

80-120

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218
Q

RBBB QRS V1 and V6

A

MARROW
V1: m shape; broad R wave
V6: w shape; broad S wave

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219
Q

LBBB QRS V1 and V6

A

WILLIAM
V1: W shape; no R wave, wide negative S wave
V6: M shape; no Q wave, wide notched R wave

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220
Q

II, III, aVF lead location

A

Inferior, posterior

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221
Q

I, aVL, V5-V6 lead location

A

Lateral

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222
Q

V1-V4 lead location

A

Anterior, septal

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223
Q

RCA supples blood to where

A

Inferior, posterior

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224
Q

Left circumflex supples blood where

A

Lateral

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225
Q

LAD supplies blood where

A

Anterior, septal

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226
Q

Obstruction of the — or — = SA & AV nodal dysrhythmias -sinus arrest, sinus pause, type I AV block, nodal rhythms, & complete heart

A

RCA or circumflex

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227
Q

Obstruction of the — = Wide complex rhythms- bundle branch block, complete heart block, mobitz type II block, idioventricular rhythms.

A

LAD

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228
Q

ECG electrodes have what type of voltage

A

Micro

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229
Q

Which lead: anterior axillary line at the level of 5th intercostal space

A

V5

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230
Q

Small positive wave following T wave

A

U wave

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231
Q

Which wave is associated w/ ↓ K, ↑ Ca, quinidine, digitalis, epinephrine, intracranial hemorrhage, or papillary muscle dysfunction

A

U wave

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232
Q

Increase Preload = increase SV, same ED vol =

A

Give fluids

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233
Q

Decrease Preload = decrease SV, same ED vol =

A

NTG, Lasix, tamponade

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234
Q

Increase Afterload = increase SVR, decrease SV, increase BP, increase ED vol =

A

phenylephrine

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235
Q

Decrease Afterload = decrease SVR, increase SV, decrease BP, decrease ED vol =

A

Sodium nitroprusside (SNP)

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236
Q

Increase Contractility = increase SV, decrease ED vol, increase BP =

A

Digoxin, Ca++

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237
Q

Decrease Contractility = decrease SV, increase ED vol, decrease BP =

A

CHF

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238
Q

CO to liver

A

27%

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239
Q

CO to kidney

A

22%

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240
Q

CO to heart

A

5% (225ml)

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241
Q

CO to CNS

A

15% (750ml)

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242
Q

CO to lungs

A

100%

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243
Q

Aortic and mitral stenosis HR and SVR: use what

A

SSS (slow, sinus, SVR); HR: low; SVR: high
Phenylephrine

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244
Q

Aortic and mitral regurgitation preload, SVR, and HR: come common cause

A

FFF (fast, forward, full); increase preload; decrease SVR; increase HR
Rheumatic fever

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245
Q

IHSS (HOCM) volume and SVR: use what?

A

Keep full, increase SVR
Phenylephrine

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246
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot SVR: and use what?

A

Increase SVR
Phenylephrine

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247
Q

PVR — with acidosis and hypercarbia

A

Increases

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248
Q

Increase PVR causes what kind of shunt?

A

Right to left shunt

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249
Q

SVR — with acidosis and hypercarbia

A

Decrease

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250
Q

Sepsis: PCWP, CO, and SVR

A

PCWP decrease, CO increase, SVR decrease

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251
Q

What 3 things is with becks triad?

A

Muffled heart sounds, JVD, hypotension

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252
Q

Becks triad is most common with what?

A

Cardiac tamponade

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253
Q

Inhibitors of HMG-CoA recluctase

A

Statins

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254
Q

2 side effects of statins

A
  1. Liver dysfunction
  2. Sever myopathy
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255
Q

Protamine dose

A

1 mg/100 U heparin

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256
Q

Heparin for bypass

A

300 U/kg

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257
Q

Initial dose of FFP

A

10-15 ml/kg

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258
Q

What to give for an antithrombin III deficiency?

A

FFP

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259
Q

Mnemonic for cranial nerves

A

Oh Oh Oh To Touch And Feel A Girls Vagina - So Heavenly

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260
Q

CN 1: name and function

A

Olfactory and smell

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261
Q

CN 2: name and function

A

Optic and vision

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262
Q

CN 3: name and function

A

Occulomotor and adduction of eye (medial), pupil size

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263
Q

CN 4: name and function

A

Trochlear and eye movements

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264
Q

CN 5: name and function

A

Trigeminal and chewing, mastication, facial sensory

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265
Q

CN 6: name and function

A

Abducens and abduction of eye (lateral)

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266
Q

CN 7: name and function

A

Facial and facial muscles, taste (anterior 1/3 tongue)

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267
Q

CN 8: name and function

A

Acoustic and balance (vestibular), hearing (cochlear)

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268
Q

CN 9: name and function

A

Glossopharyngeal and taste (posterior 2/3 tongue), carotid & sinus afferent

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269
Q

CN 10: name and function

A

Vagus and parasympathetic efferent, decrease HR

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270
Q

CN 11: name and function

A

Spinal accessory and motor control of larynx & pharynx

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271
Q

CN 12: name and function

A

Hypoglossal and tongue muscles

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272
Q

CBF amount

A

750 ml/min, 50 ml/100g/min, 15% of CO

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273
Q

CBF equation

A

CPP/CVR

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274
Q

CPP equation

A

MAP-ICP

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275
Q

Cerebral glucose consumption

A

5 mg/100g/min

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276
Q

Blood flow and vessel diameter to non ischemic and ischemic for cerebral steal:

A

Non ischemic: BF increase & diameter increase
Ischemic: BF decrease & diameter maxed dilate

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277
Q

Blood flow and vessel diameter to non ischemic and ischemic for inverse cerebral steal:

A

Non ischemic: BF decrease & diameter decrease
Ischemic: BF increase & diameter max dilated

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278
Q

2 things that cause cerebral steal?

A

Hypoventilation and vasodilators (nitro)

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279
Q

What causes inverse cerebral steal?

A

Hyperventilation

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280
Q

CN: Superior rectus- supraaduction “look up”

A

3

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281
Q

CN: Inferior rectus- infradduction “look down”

A

3

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282
Q

CN: Medial rectus- adduction “look in”

A

3

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283
Q

CN: Lateral rectus- abduction “look out”

A

6

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284
Q

CN: Supeiror oblique- look in & down

A

4

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285
Q

CN: Inferior oblique- look out and up

A

3

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286
Q

— pathway = Trigeminal nerve- V

A

Afferent

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287
Q

— pathway = Vagus nerve - X

A

Efferent

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288
Q

Oculocardiac relfex ECG manifestation: 3

A

↓ HR, Junctional Rhythm, PVC’s

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289
Q

Oculocardiac reflex triggered by:

A

traction on extraocular muscles- MEDIAL RECTUS, ocular manipulation, manual pressure on globe

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290
Q

Oculocardiac reflex Tx/Blockade:

A

antimuscarinic meds, retrobulbar block, IA

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291
Q

What 2 nerves are associated with oculocardiac reflex?

A

Trigeminal (5) and vagus (10)

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292
Q

Normal ICP

A

5-15

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293
Q

Focal ischemia ICP

A

25-55

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294
Q

Global ischemia ICP

A

> 55

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295
Q

IC volume: Brain matter & intracellular H2O

A

80%

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296
Q

IC volume: blood

A

12%

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297
Q

IC volume: CSF

A

8%

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298
Q

ICP waveforms: plateau waves, found in pts with increase ICP

A

A waves

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299
Q

What 3 s/s of Cushing’s triad ?

A

Bradycardia
Hypertension
Irregular respirations

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300
Q

8 treatments for increase ICP:

A
  1. Dehydrate brain w/ Mannitol (0.25-1g/kg) or Lasix 2. Give steroids- slowest but may restore BBB
  2. Hyperventilate PaCO2 25-30 mmHg (1/2 life 6hr)
  3. Restrict fluids
  4. Elevate HOB to 30degrees
  5. Administer cerebral vasoconstrictor (pentathol, etomidate)
  6. Control BP
    8.Cool pt to 34C for cerebral protection
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301
Q

—: above cerebellum= flexion upper & extension lower

A

Decordicate

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302
Q

—: at brainstem = extension arms & legs, arched body

A

Decerebrate

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303
Q

— = Frontal lobe
— = Temporal lobe
— = Brainstem & cerebellum

A

Anterior
Middle
Posterior

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304
Q

Time to Close of Fontanelles: Anterior, Posterior, Anterolateral, Posterolateral

A

18 mos.
2 mos
2 mos
2 years

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305
Q

Specific gravity of CSF =

A

1.003-1.009

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306
Q

Hyperbaric fluid =

A

D10

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307
Q

Isobaric fluid =

A

CSF

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308
Q

Hypobaric fluid =

A

NS/sterile H2O

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309
Q

CSF forms @ — in the choroid plexus

A

21 ml/hr or 500-700 ml/day

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310
Q

— is located specifically in temporal horn of each lateral ventricle, the posterior portion of the third ventricle, and the roof of the fourth ventricle.

A

Choroid plexus

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311
Q

CSF is reabsorbed mostly in the — (4/5), but also in spinal villi & lymphatics.

A

arachnoid villi

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312
Q

Total volume of CSF =

A

150 ml

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313
Q

CSF Pressure: —

A

10 & 20cm H2O

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314
Q

— is the most common site of CSF obstruction

A

Aqueduct of Sylvius

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315
Q

4 factors governing passage across BBB:

A

Size - smaller crosses easier
Charge- (ions do not cross- Na, K, Mag)
Lipid solubility- Cross
Degree of protein binding

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316
Q

Do Water & Gases cross BBB?

A

Yes

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317
Q

Do H2O soluble drugs & Proteins cross BBB?

A

No

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318
Q

What 2 areas have no BBB?

A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CRTZ) and area surrounding the posterior pituitary

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319
Q

4 electrolyte disorders that decrease Seizure threshold:↑Sz activity

A
  1. Hypocalcemia
  2. Hypomagnesemia
  3. Hyponatremia
  4. Hypernatremia
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320
Q

(2)Conditions & (3)Meds Likely to↓Sz Threshold:

A

Hypoglycemia
Alkalosis
Demerol is opioid most likely to cause seizures Aminophylline & ketamine together

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321
Q

2 causes of Acute Spinal Shock:

A
  1. Hypotension due to sympathetic blockade
  2. bradycardia due to blockade of cardiac accelerators
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322
Q

Autonomic Hyperreflexia spinal location =

A

T5 or T6

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323
Q

When do Cerebral Vasospasm occur:

A

4-12 days post op

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324
Q

S/S of cerebral vasospasm: 3

A

worsening headache, confusion, HTN

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325
Q

Triple H Therapy For treatment of cerebral vasospasm and med=

A
  1. Hypervolemia = CVP > 10 mm Hg, PCWP = 12-20
  2. Hypertension = SBP 160-200 mm Hg
  3. Hemodilution = Hct 33%
    -Medication - Nimodipine
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326
Q

Wake-up test monitors the anterior (ventral) spinal cord, which is supplied by the —. These are — tracts.

A

anterior spinal arteries ; motor

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327
Q

In Parkinson’s avoid: (4)

A

Reglan
Compazine
Droperidal
All meds that↓Dopamine

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328
Q

VAE steps: 9

A
  1. Notify surgeon so they can flood the field or pack
  2. Turn off N2O
  3. Administer 100% O2
  4. Aspirate central venous catheter to remove air
    5.↑CVP (Valsalva maneuver)
  5. CV drugs to support circulation
  6. Bilateral jugular vein compression
  7. PEEP
  8. Position- left lateral decub w/ 15 degree head down tilt
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329
Q

CSF pathway: (10)

A
  1. Choroid plexus
  2. Lateral ventricle
  3. Foramen Monroe
  4. 3rd ventricle
  5. Aqueduct of Sylvius
  6. 4th ventricle
  7. Foramen luschka & foramen magendie
  8. Subarachnoid space
  9. Brain
  10. Arachnoid Villi
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330
Q

4 main sources for circle of Willis:

A
  1. R internal carotid
  2. L internal carotid
  3. Basilar artery
  4. Vertebral artery
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331
Q

Slack Brain maneuvers= (4)

A

Mannitol/ Diuretics
Hyperventilation PaCO2 = 25-30mmHg
Hypertonic Saline
Head up position

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332
Q

1-4 Hz- greatest amplitude- sleeping adult, abn in wake

A

Delta

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333
Q

4-8 Hz- Amplitude- higher than alpha & beta, but lower than delta

A

Theta

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334
Q

9-14 Hz- higher in amplitude, alert but relaxed- eyes close

A

Alpha

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335
Q

15-40 Hz- low amplitude, frontal head, business activity; Variations seen w/ benzo & propofol – mu wave

A

Beta

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336
Q

Amplitude of EEG:

A

Delta >Theta >Alpha >Beta

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337
Q

Frequency of EEG:

A

Beta > Alpha > Theta > Delta

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338
Q

high-order activity like problem solving (> 25yo)

A

Gamma

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339
Q

beta wave variant- seen over motor areas- amplitude 1⁄2 of beta

A

Mu

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340
Q

awake patient that is staring, reading or looking @ objects

A

Lambda

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341
Q

GA:
— high frequency in Beta waves
— low frequency in delta & theta waves

A

↓ ; ↑

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342
Q

Surgical stimulation or light anesthesia:
— high frequency, low voltage activity

A

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343
Q

Cerebral compromise & deep anesthesia:
— frequency, — voltage activity

A

low ; high

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344
Q

Isoelectric at — MAC

A

1.5-2.0

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345
Q

Sevo & Enflurane: can accentuate — activity

A

epileptic

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346
Q

Barbiturates, etomidate, and propofol = — suppression

A

burst

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347
Q

Ketamine, opioids and etomidate- — produce a Δ in latency & amplitude

A

do not

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348
Q

— – Afferent – Dorsal Horn ; S.A.D. Posterior

A

Sensory

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349
Q

— – Efferent – Ventral Horn ; S.A.D. Anterior

A

Motor

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350
Q

MMEP: Peripheral- —, Central- —

A

popliteal ; anterior

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351
Q

Preganglionic SNS – —

A

Intermediolateral Horn

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352
Q

SSEP Monitoring (posterior spinal arteries)
-Touch, pressure, vibration
-Dorsal (posterior) cord – Cuneatus & Gracilis tracts
-Ascend ipsilateral side
-Decussate @ brainstem to contralateral thalamus & sensory cortex
-Goes to RAS where it percolates to sensory cortex
-Somewhat sensitive
-Tibial – electrodes midline scalp, Ulnar- electrodes lateral

A

Dorsal-Lemniscal (sensory)

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353
Q

— very sensitive to SSEP monitoring

A

Visual evoked potential- CN II

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354
Q

— barely sensitive (altered most by temp) to SSEP monitoring

A

BAEP – CN VIII

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355
Q

Ketamine, etomidate, & opioids, barbs, propofol = — Δ in latency or amplitude in SSEP

A

no

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356
Q

— – Myelinated, Fast “first” Pain & temp
Rexed’s lamina I & V, dorsal horn
Neurotransmitter - glutamate

A

A-sigma Fibers

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357
Q

— – Unmyelinated, Slow “dull” Pain & temp
Rexed’s lamina II (substantia gelatinosa) & III, dors Neurotransmitter – substance P
Interneurons go from II & III to V
Epidural steroids

A

C Fibers

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358
Q

Ascending Pain (—): Lateral Spinothalamic Tract (neopalatine)

A

Anterolateral

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359
Q

5 factors that alter the latency and/or amplitude of SSEP:

A
  1. Decrease Cerebral perfusion secondary to hypotension, decrease PaCO2, increase ICP
  2. Cerebral hypoxia
  3. Hypothermia (MOST)
  4. Hyperthermia
  5. Hemodilution; Hct < 15%
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360
Q

Descending Pain (—): Dorsolateral Funiculus – modulates pain

A

Dorsolateral

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361
Q

Originate in the periventricular and periaqueductal gray areas and terminate on enkephalin-releasing interneurons in Rexed’s lamina II (substantia gelatinosa). This inhibits the release of —. (Presynaptic inhibition)

A

substance P

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362
Q

—: physiologic pain, carried by A-delta-sharp, prickly & C fibers-dull

A

Nociceptive

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363
Q

—-sharp & well localized

A

Somatic

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364
Q

—-diffuse, dull & vague

A

Visceral

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365
Q

—: Caused by abnormal processing of painful stimuli. This pain may occur after injury to neural tissue secondary to systemic disease, infection, trauma, ischemia, deficiencies in metabolism or nutrition, or exposure to environmental toxins or neurotoxin medications.

A

Neuropathic

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366
Q

— tract- most important spinal tract for pain

A

Lateral spinothalamic (neo)

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367
Q

—: perception of an ordinarily non-painful stimulus as pain

A

Allodynia

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368
Q

— is a combined disorder consisting of hyperesthesia, allodynia, and hyperalgesia

A

Hyperpathia

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369
Q

Sub P, Bradykinins & serotonin released → arachononic acid released = —, —, and—

A

thromboxane, prostaglandins & leukotrines

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370
Q

Preganglionic Parasympathetic Nerves originate (craniosacral):

A

Cranial nerves III, VII, IX, & X (3,7,9,10)
Sacral segments S2-S4

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371
Q

—: (LA, ketamine, opiods, benzos) [- Charge/ Cl-, SO4-]

A

Weak Base

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372
Q

—: (Thiopental, other barbit, [+ Charge/ Na+, Mg++]

A

Weak Acids

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373
Q

— = H2O soluble

A

Ionized

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374
Q

— – lipid soluble (crosses BBB)

A

Non-Ionized

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375
Q

— = lipid solubility

A

Potency

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376
Q

— = protein binding & solubility

A

Duration

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377
Q

— = pKa

A

Speed of Onset

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378
Q

Fetus pH < maternal pH = —

A

↑ ion trapping

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379
Q

Blood flow highest to lowest- loss of LA d/t vascular reabsorb (9)

A

Intravenous
Tracheal
Intercostal
Caudal
Paracervical
Epidural
Brachial Plexus
Spinal
Subcutaneous

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380
Q

Mnemonic of LA reabsorption

A

In Time I Can Please Everyone But Susie & Sally

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381
Q

Mnemonic of brachial plexus:

A

Robert Taylor Drinks Cold Beer

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382
Q

Brachial plexus order:

A

Root, trunk, division, cord, branch

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383
Q

— block:
-for forearm & wrist, safest, miss the muscultaneous 30-40ml,
-musculocutaneous = 3-5 mL of LA into coracobrachialis muscle.

A

Axillary

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384
Q

— block =
-greatest risk of pneumo, most compact 40ml
-Less likely to miss the peripheral or proximal branches

A

Supraclavicular

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385
Q

— block =
-shoulder surgery, miss of ulnar nerve & targets TRUNKS, no hand 40 ml
-High incidence of ipsilateral hemidiaphragmatic paresis

A

Interscalene

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386
Q

— and — location = interscalene and Supraclavicular

A

Shoulder & humerus

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387
Q

— Block:
-C1 (motor), C2, C3, and C4 = 4ml
-some plastic surgery procedures, carotid endarterectomy tracheostomy and thyroidectomy.
-Complications: hiccups, Horner’s, hoarse

A

Cervial Plexus

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388
Q

Horners Syndrome=
-blockage of stellate ganglion @ —
-Least likely w/ — block

A

C7 ; axillary

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389
Q

S/S of —:
1.Ptosis (droopy eye lid)
2. Miosis (pupil constriction)
3. Facial & Arm flushing (d/t vasodilatation)
4. ↑ Skin Tem
5. Anhydrosis (lack of sweating on face)
6. Nasal Congestion

A

Horners Syndrome

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390
Q

— block:
-Minimum tourniquet time = 15-20 mins or 20-40
-Lidocaine 0.5% or Prilocaine 0. 5% -40 – 50ml
-No bupivacaine- ♥ tox or chloroprocaine- thrombophlebitis
-Contraindicated: severe crush injuries, uncontrolled hypertension, Raynaud’s disease PVD, Homozygous sickle cell

A

Bier Block

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391
Q

Nerves that Flex the Forearm:
— and —

A

Musculocutaneous & Radial

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392
Q

-Extension @ elbow, supination of FA, extension of wrist & fingers
-Damage = inability to ABDUCT thumb & wrist drop

A

Radial Nerve

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393
Q

-Pronation of FA, flexion of wrist
-To thumb, index finger, middle finger & lateral ring finger
-Innervates the medial aspects of FA: Pronator teres, Flexor carpi radialis, Palmaris longus, Flexor digitorum superficialis
-Damage = inability to ADDUCT thumb & Ape Hand

A

median nerve

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394
Q

-Flexion of wrist, adduction of all fingers
-The little finger & medial ring finger (C8) In the forearm: Flexor carpi ulnaris, Medial 1⁄2 of flexor digitorum profundus
-And in the hand: Palmaris brevis muscle, Abductor digiti minimi, Flexor digiti minimi
-Damage = Claw hand
-Innervates the adductor pollicis of the thumb

A

ulnar nerve

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395
Q

Flexion @ elbow

A

Musculocutaneous

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396
Q

Nerves of Lower extremity:

A
  1. Femoral - saphenous
  2. Sciatic - common peroneal to deep peroneal & superficial peroneal & tibial to sural
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397
Q

— = anteromedial foot, medial anterior calf and the dorsum of the foot

A

Saphenous

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398
Q

—= toe extension & sensation to medial 1⁄2

A

Deep peroneal nerve

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399
Q

— = sensation superficially to dorsum of foot & all 5 toes

A

Superficial peronal nerve

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400
Q

— – sensation to heel, medial sole & lateral sole

A

posterior tibial

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401
Q

— – sensation to lateral foot

A

Sural

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402
Q

— of foot= medial plantar & lateral plantar - tibial nerve

A

Flexion

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403
Q

— of foot – peroneal nerve

A

Extension

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404
Q

Superficial leg nerves :

A

saphenous, superficial peroneal, sural “S’s”

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405
Q

— Nerve:
L2, L3, L4
Anterior thigh & knee
Anterior muscles of the thigh

A

Femoral

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406
Q

Femoral nerve location mnemonic:

A

NAVEL (nerve, artery, vein, empty space, and lymphatics

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407
Q

Provides sensation to the medial aspect of the thigh and motor innervation to the adductor muscles located in the medial thigh

A

Obturator nerve

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408
Q

— surgeries: Femoral, Sciatic, Lateral Femoral, cutaneous obturator

A

On or above knee

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409
Q

L4, L5, and S1-S3
-innervates the muscles of the back of the thigh (biceps femoris, semitendinosis, semimembranosus, and adductor magnus).
-As it continues, it innervates the muscles of the lower leg and foot

A

Sciatic nerve

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410
Q

Popiteal Block = — nerve

A

sciatic

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411
Q

Nerve injury: Face mask ventilation

A

CN 5 & 7 (facial & tongue numbness)

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412
Q

Nerve injury: LMA

A

SLN or RLN

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413
Q

Nerve injury: Intubation

A

RLN, SLN, CN 10, CN 12

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414
Q

Is the most commonly injured peripheral nerve in patients undergoing anesthesia
More common in those with BMI > 38 & men

A

Ulnar nerve

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415
Q

Placement of shoulder braces = acromion

A

Brachial Plexus

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416
Q

Damaged = loss of the ability to supinate the extended forearm, wrist drop, abduct thumb, extend the metacarphophalaneal joints

A

Radial Nerve

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417
Q

Most commonly injured nerve of lower extremity
Most common injured nerve during lateral position
3 issues: Loss of dorsiflexion of the foot is consistent with injury to the Foot drop and inability to evert foot

A

Common Peroneal nerve

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418
Q

Protect w/ pillow under knees
Injured when patient rotated to semi supine (hips)

A

Sciatic

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419
Q

Inside of knee (litho with strap medially)
Numbness & tingling along medial aspect of the calves

A

Saphenous

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420
Q

Femoral Decreased sensation — thigh

A

LATERAL

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421
Q

Complications of — block: Stimulation of the oculocardiac reflex, retrobulbar hemorrhage, circumorbital hematoma, penetration of the globe, optic nerve trauma, optic nerve sheath injection, extraocular muscle injury, intra-arterial injection

A

retrobulbar

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422
Q

— : Blocking of RLN through cricothyroid membrane w/4% lido
Absorbed across mucous membranes (sim to sublingual)

A

Transtracheal

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423
Q

Isobaric =

A

CSF

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424
Q

Hyperbaric =

A

Dextrose solution

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425
Q

Hypobaric =

A

Sterile H2O

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426
Q

— in the epidural space communicates with the azygous system- important during times of engorgement which can cause engorgement of the vessels during instances of increased abdominal pressure

A

Batson’s plexus

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427
Q

Sacrococcygeal membrane (injected into epidural space)

A

Caudal

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428
Q

Caudal Anatomical landmarks:

A

2 sacral cornua, the coccyx, and the posterior superior iliac spines

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429
Q

Caudal Dose Bupivacaine:
— mg/kg
Infant test dose = — mcg/kg epinephrine
Max dose is — mg/kg

A

0.5-1.0 ; 0.5 ; 3 mg

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430
Q

Cutting needles:

A

Quinke, Pitkin

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431
Q

Non-Cutting needles:

A

Whitacre, Spotte, Greene

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432
Q

SAB needle — ga

A

27ga (normal), 25ga (used with 18ga introducer), 22ga (elderly & obese)

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433
Q

Epidural needle

A

17ga Toughy

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434
Q

Passage of Needle for spinal (8)

A

Skin
Subcutanous tissue
Supraspinous ligament
Interspinous ligament
Ligamentum flavum
Epidural Space
Dura
Subarachnoid

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435
Q

What will you not pass through on a para median approach for a spinal?

A

Supraspinous and interspinous ligament; rather paraspinous muscle

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436
Q

Dermatome Landmarks
—- Completely Motor
—- Clavicle
—- Nipples
—- Xiphoid
—- umbilicus
—-Tibia
—-Perineium

A

C1- Completely Motor
C4- Clavicle
T4- Nipples
T6- Xiphoid
T10- umbilicus
L4-L5-Tibia
S2-S5-Perineium

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437
Q

The tip of the 12th rib corresponds with —

A

L1

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438
Q

The origin of the scapular spine corresponds with —

A

T3

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439
Q

The most protuberant cervical vertebra is at the level of —

A

C7

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440
Q

The tip of the scapula corresponds with —

A

T7

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441
Q

level of the posterior superior iliac spine —

A

S2

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442
Q

Hydrophilic: —
Slow onset & prolonged DOA
Intrathecal
0 early respiratory depression
+ late resp depression d/t rostral spread (6-12 hrs)
Epidural
+ early respiratory depression after 2 hours
+ late resp depression d/t rostral spread (6-12 hrs)

A

Morphine

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443
Q

Lipophilic: —
Fast onset & short DOA
Intrathecal
+ early resp depression (2 hrs)
0 late respiratory depression
Epidural
+ early resp depression (2 hrs)
0 late respiratory depression

A

Fentanyl, Sufentanil, Alfentanil

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444
Q

4 common side effects of intrathecal opiods:

A
  1. Pruritus (most common)
  2. Urinary retention
  3. N & V
  4. Respiratory depression
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445
Q

4 common side effects of epidural opioids:

A
  1. urinary retention (bup/morphine)
  2. pruritus (morphine)
  3. weakness of hands
  4. HoTn
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446
Q

— = Stellate Ganglion- if blocked = Horner’s syndrome

A

C8-T1

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447
Q

S/S of — include: ipsilateral miosis, ptosis, enopthalamos, flushing,↑skin temp, anhydrosis, nasal congestion

A

Horner’s syndrome

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448
Q

— = numbness @ little & ring finger

A

C8

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449
Q

— = numbness @ middle fingers

A

C7

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450
Q

— = numbness @ thumb & index finger

A

C6

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451
Q

Progression of spinal blockade:

A

Autonomic>sensory>motor

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452
Q

Sensitivity to nerves with spinal block:

A

large mylenated > smaller mylenated > unmylenated

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453
Q

Fibers that are blocked with spinal:

A

Type B > Type Aδ = Type C > Aβ > Aα
C type = more resistant to blockade than A & B fibers

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454
Q

SAB additives that prolong the duration w/o resulting significant ♥ changes

A

Epinephrine 0.2 to 0.3 mg
Clonidine 75 to 100 mcg
phenylephrine 2 to 5 mg

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455
Q

Procedure and level of block:
TURP, hip arthroplasty, testicles, hysteroscopy

A

T10

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456
Q

Procedures & Level of Block:
ESWL

A

T4-6

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457
Q

Procedures & Level of Block:
Urinary bladder

A

S2-S4

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458
Q

Procedures & Level of Block:
Lower abdominal

A

T6

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459
Q

Procedures & Level of Block:
Kidney

A

T10-L1

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460
Q

Procedures & Level of Block:
Uterine and cysto

A

T8-T10

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461
Q

Procedures & Level of Block:
C section

A

T4

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462
Q

Procedures & Level of Block:
Tourniquet

A

T8

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463
Q

Procedures & Level of Block:
Upper abdominal

A

T4

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464
Q

—: transient radicular irritation, pain in the lower back or buttocks that may radiate to one or both legs after a spinal anesthetic

A

TNS

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465
Q

Absolute Contraindications to Regional Anesthesia: (8)

A

1.Infection @ site
2. Coagulopathy
3. Marked hypovolemia
4. True allergy to LA
5. Pt. refusal/inability to cooperate
6. Severe Stenosis
7. ↑ ICP
8. Abruption placentae

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466
Q

Relative contraindications to regional anesthesia (8)

A
  1. Preexisting neurological dz
  2. Back disorder (Ankylosis)
  3. Heart Disease
  4. Surgery above umbilicus
  5. Failure to obtain free flow
  6. Sepsis
  7. Mobitz type I or II
  8. 3rd degree w/o paceer
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467
Q

IV heparin;
–need normal — before regional
-Hold —hr after placement
-Cathetars removed —/hr AFTER last heparin dose -Heparinization — hr after catheter removal

A

PTT ; 1 ; 2-4 ; 1

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468
Q

LMWH
-first dose — hrs post op (2x daily dosing)
-—hs post op (daily dose)
-First dose — hours after catheter removal

A

24; 6-8 ; 2

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469
Q

Warfin- stop — days before surgery & INR —

A

4 ; < 1.5

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470
Q

Fibrinolytic or thrombolytic – — days

A

10

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471
Q

Ticlodipine – — days

A

14

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472
Q

Clopidorgrel- — days

A

7

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473
Q

GPIIb/IIIA – hold for — weeks post operative

A

4

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474
Q

↑potency of LA =↑—,↑DOA,↑affinity for Na channels,↑tendency of cardiac toxicity

A

protein binding

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475
Q

— local anesthetics are eliminated by plasma pseudocholinesterase except cocaine, which is eliminated by hepatic metabolism.

A

Ester

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476
Q

Metabolism of esters: greatest to least (3)

A

chloroprocaine > procaine > Tetracaine

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477
Q

Ester LA↑likely hood of allergic reactions d/t —

A

para-aminobenzoic acid

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478
Q

— local anesthetics are metabolized by hepatic metabolism.

A

Amide

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479
Q

Metabolism of amide LAs: greatest to least (5)

A

prilocaine >etidocaine > lido > Mepivicaine >Bup

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480
Q

— is the least toxic amide LA.

A

Prilocaine

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481
Q

Prilocaine is metabolized to —. It is an oxidizing agent capable of converting hemoglobin to methemoglobin

A

orthotoluidine

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482
Q

— is highly lipid soluble and dissociation form sodium channels are slow. Cardiac toxicity is high.

A

Bupivacaine

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483
Q

Mepivicaine, etidocaine, & bupivacaine = no enhancement w/ —

A

epi

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484
Q

—: an active metabolite of Lidocaine that contributes to toxicity even when lidocaine plasma levels are low

A

Monoethylglycinexylidide

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485
Q

Volatile anesthetics, propranolol, and cimetidine decrease hepatic clearance of —. (They inhibit Cytochrome P-450)

A

amides

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486
Q

Avoid Beta-blockers with amide LAs: & also…4

A

Labetalol & Propranolol ; Digitalis & Ca++ channel blockers

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487
Q

— is used to treat cardiac toxicity by amides.

A

Bretyllium

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488
Q

Max dose epi Subcutaneous or Submucosal infiltration: — mcg/kg for adults

A

2-3

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489
Q

Max Dose Epinephrine Subcutaneous or Submucosal infiltration: — mcg/kg for children

A

3

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490
Q

Max doses for chloroprocaine, cocaine, procaine, tetracaine:

A

12, 3, 12, 3

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491
Q

Duration for chloroprocaine:

A

.5-1 hr

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492
Q

Duration for tetracaine:

A

1.5-6hrs

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493
Q

Max dose with bupivicaine, lidocaine, mepivicaine, prilocaine, ropivicaine:

A

3, 4.5 (7 with epi), 4.5 (7 with epi), 8, 3

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494
Q

Cardiac Toxicity s/s of LA:

A

Hypoxia, hypercarbia, and acidosis

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495
Q

TNS: Transient Neurological Symptoms
-with — LA spinals
-Tx: —d/t sensory nature

A

Lidocaine ; NSAIDs

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496
Q

Lipid Rescue for LAST:

— ml/kg and then an infusion — ml/kg/min for 30-60 mins

A

20% Intralipid ; 1.2 to 2 ; 0.25

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497
Q

Benzocaine:
Ester, Weak —
May cause —

A

ACID ; methemoglobinia

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498
Q

Bld:Gas and Oil:Gas for N2O=

A

.47 and 1.4

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499
Q

Bld:Gas and Oil:Gas for sevo=

A

.65 and 53.4

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500
Q

Bld:Gas and Oil:Gas for iso=

A

1.4 and 90.8

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501
Q

Bld:Gas and Oil:Gas for des=

A

.42 and 18.7

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502
Q

Bld:Gas and Oil:Gas for Halo=

A

2.3 and 224

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503
Q

Vapor pressure for sevo=

A

170

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504
Q

Vapor pressure for iso=

A

239

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505
Q

Vapor pressure for des=

A

669

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506
Q

Vapor pressure for halo=

A

243

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507
Q

MAC for N2O=

A

104

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508
Q

MAC for sevo=

A

2.1

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509
Q

MAC for iso=

A

1.15

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510
Q

MAC for des=

A

6.3

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511
Q

MAC for halo=

A

.74

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512
Q

FA/FI for N2O=

A

.99

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513
Q

FA/FI for sevo=

A

.85

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514
Q

FA/FI for iso=

A

.73

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515
Q

FA/FI for des=

A

.91

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516
Q

FA/FI for halo=

A

.58

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517
Q

Increase potency = increase lipid solubility = — MAC

A

decrease

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518
Q

Oil/gas: measurement of —

A

solubility

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519
Q

Blood Solubility = — of uptake

A

speed

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520
Q

Inhalation agents:
Increase solubility = — speed of inhalation induction
Decrease solubility = — speed of inhalation induction

A

decrease ; increase

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521
Q

— = increase CBF, decrease CMR
— = increase CBF, increase CMR
— = decrease CBF, decrease CMR

A

Volatile ; Ketamine/N2O ; IV anesth

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522
Q

Vapor pressure of liquid dependent on SOLEY on —

A

temperature

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523
Q

Percentage of volatiles metabolized:
Halothane —%
Sevoflurane —%
Isoflurane —%
Desflurane —%

A

15-20, 2, .2, .02

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524
Q

CV side effects: sux

A

Decrease HR and histamine

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525
Q

CV side effects: mivacurium & atracurium

A

Histamine

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526
Q

CV side effects: d-tubocurarine & metocurine

A

Histamine, increase HR, decrease BP, ganglionic blockade

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527
Q

CV side effects: pancuronium & gallamine

A

Increase HR and increase BP

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528
Q

Sux elimination=

A

Metabolism

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529
Q

Atracurium, mivacurium, cisatracurium elimination:

A

Hoffman elimination

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530
Q

Vec and roc elimination:

A

Biliary primary, renal and metabolism secondary (vec has 20% in renal)

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531
Q

Brain uptake of anesthetics depends on: 4

A
  1. Blood solubility
  2. Cardiac output
  3. Alveolar ventilation
  4. Inspired concentration
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532
Q

Three ways to increase speed of equilibrium:

A
  1. Increase Inspired anesthetic concentration
  2. Second gas effect
  3. Increase Alveolar ventilation
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533
Q

Two most important factors for increase alveolar partial pressure:

A
  1. Inspired concentration
  2. Blood solubility
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534
Q

Partial pressures of gas during induction: 4

A

Inspired>Alveolar>Arterial blood>Brain
Note! This order is reversed during emergence when gas is turned off.

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535
Q

The — Theory explains that the anesthetic potency of anesthetic agents directly correlates with their lipid solubilities

A

Meyer-Overton

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536
Q

— of anesthetic at one atmosphere that produces immobility in 50% of patients exposed to a noxious stimulus. It is inversely proportional to potency.

A

MAC is the “Minimum Alveolar Concentration”

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537
Q

MAC ~ ED50 of —.

A

non-inhalational drugs

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538
Q

— MAC ~ ED95

A

1.3

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539
Q

There is approximately 1% — in MAC for every 1% of N2O delivery.

A

decrease

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540
Q

Highest Mac age is —

A

6mos-12mos

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541
Q

Seven factors that decrease MAC:

A
  1. Increasing age
  2. Hypothermia
  3. CNS depressants
  4. Acute ethanol intoxication
  5. Alpha-2 agonists (Clonidine)
  6. Pregnancy
  7. Decrease Levels of CNS neurotransmitters
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542
Q

Five factors that increase MAC:

A
  1. Hyperthermia
  2. Hypernatremia
  3. Increase Levels of CNS neurotransmitters
  4. Young
  5. Chronic alcohol use
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543
Q

Volatile anesthetics are metabolized in the — by — in hepatic microsomes.

A

liver ; cytochrome P-450

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544
Q

An oxidative trifluoroacetyl metabolite of — is thought to be responsible for acute hepatotoxicity in susceptible individuals. Reductive liver metabolism occurs with this volatile agent in the presence of hypoxia.

A

Halothane

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545
Q

— is the preservative in Halothane

A

Thymol

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546
Q

— is the most clinically important metabolite of Enflurane.

A

Fluoride

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547
Q

Inorganic — and — are common metabolites of Halothane and Enflurane.

A

fluoride and chloride

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548
Q

— is the only inhalational agent without a halogen.

A

N2O

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549
Q

Acceptable levels in the OR:
N2O & Volatile together:
N2O = — ppm
Volatile = — ppm

A

25 ; 0.5

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550
Q

Acceptable levels in the OR:
Volatile alone: Volatile = — ppm

A

2

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551
Q

N2O is metabolized to N2 in the intestine by — metabolism.

A

reductive anaerobic

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552
Q

Five contraindications to the use of N2O:

A
  1. Venous air embolism
  2. Ear surgery (middle ear)
  3. Closed pneumothorax
  4. Potential pneumocephalus
  5. Bowel obstruction
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553
Q

Four adverse side-effect of N2O:

A
  1. Aplastic anemia
  2. Congenital anomalies
  3. Spontaneous abortion
  4. CNS toxicity
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554
Q

↓ methionine synthetase- — = no N2O

A

B12 deficiency

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555
Q

N2O — BP and CO when added to high dose opioids.

A

decreases

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556
Q

N2O — PVR and PA blood pressure due to mild sympathomimetic effects.

A

increase

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557
Q

— will support fire, but is neither flammable nor explosive.

A

N2O

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558
Q

N2O — CBF and — CMRO2

A

Increase and increase

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559
Q

Three renal changes associated with volatile anesthetics:

A
  1. Decrease RBF
  2. Decrease GFR
  3. Decrease UO
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560
Q

— least potentiates NDMRs.

A

Halothane

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561
Q

— and — most decrease SVR, — has little effect on SVR.

A

Isoflurane and Desflurane ; Halothane

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562
Q

— and — produce the greatest myocardial depression.

A

Halothane and Enflurane

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563
Q

— and — most depress the baroreceptor reflex.

A

Halothane and Sevoflurane

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564
Q

— depresses the temperature-regulating center in the hypothalamus.

A

Isoflurane

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565
Q

Isoflurane, Desflurane, and Sevoflurane — cerebral metabolic rate.

A

decrease

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566
Q

N2O alone — cerebral blood flow & ICP.

A

increases

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567
Q

— and — most depress ventilation. — least depresses ventilation.

A

Enflurane and Desflurane ; Halothane

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568
Q

— is most degraded by soda lime and — least.

A

Sevoflurane ; Desflurane

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569
Q

— facilitates CSF absorption = favorable effect on CSF

A

Isoflurane

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570
Q

Point at which the plasma concentration of a drug is in equilibrium with all other tissues is the body

A

Steady-state

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571
Q

—: affinity and efficacy

A

Agonist

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572
Q

—: affinity for a receptor but lacks efficacy (cannot produce conformation Δ)

A

Antagonist

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573
Q

—: can be overcome by ↑ concentrations of agonist

A

Competitive

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574
Q

—: antagonism can’t be overcome by ↑ concern

A

Non-Competitive

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575
Q

—: bind with the receptor and has some efficacy, but it cannot elicit the maximal tissue response

A

Partial Agonist

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576
Q

—: but results in the opposite reaction of an agonist

A

Inverse Agonist

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577
Q

Constant AMOUNT of drug over a constant time ASA, phenytoin, ASA

A

Zero Order Kinetics

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578
Q

Constant FRACTION eliminated per time

A

First Order Kinetics

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579
Q

Dose response curve:
—: determined by the binding affinity of receptors for the drugs as well as the efficiency of coupling of binding to response

A

Potency

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580
Q

Dose response curve:
—: relationship between dose and effect

A

Slope

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581
Q

Dose response curve:
—: maximum drug effect

A

Efficacy

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582
Q

—: Alter the molecular structure of a drug by modifying an existing functional group of a drug.

A

Phase I biotransformation

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583
Q

Phase I biotransformation: 3 functions

A
  1. Oxidation
  2. Reduction
  3. Hydrolysis
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584
Q

Cytochrome P450 participates in most — and some —

A

oxidation ; reduction

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585
Q

—: Consists of a coupling or conjugation of a variety of endogenous compounds to polar chemical groups of the drug.

A

Phase II biotransformation

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586
Q

Biotransformation often makes drugs more — soluble and — for excretion in the urine or bile.

A

water ; inactive

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587
Q

Six groups of drugs metabolized by Cytochrome P450:

A
  1. Barbiturates
  2. Opioids
  3. Benzodiazepines
  4. Amide LA’s
  5. Tricyclic antidepressants
  6. Antihistamines
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588
Q

— Index = LD50/ED50

A

Therapeutic

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589
Q

— is the dose of drug that is effective in 50% of patients.

A

ED50

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590
Q

— dose that produce toxic effect in 50% of animals

A

TD50

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591
Q

— death to 50%

A

LD50

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592
Q

— = time taken for the plasma concentration to fall by one-half.

A

Elimination half-time (T 1⁄2)

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593
Q

T 1⁄2 is directly related to — and inversely related to —.

A

Vd ; Clearance (Cl)

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594
Q

Elimination half time equation =

A

Cl = Vd/ T 1⁄2

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595
Q

↑ Vd= ↑ T1/2

A

Fast CL=short T1/2

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596
Q

Small Vd=↓ T1/2

A

Slow CL= Long T1/2

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597
Q

—: Molecules that relay signals from receptors on the cell surface to target molecules inside the cell

A

Second messengers

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598
Q

Second messengers: 4

A

cAMP, cGMP, IP3, Ca++

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599
Q

Proteins
Albumin = —

A

acid

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600
Q

Proteins
Alpha-1 acid glycoprotein & Beta-globulins = —

A

Base

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601
Q

— is the major inhibitory transmitter of the CNS. It opens — ion channels. It hyperpolarizes neurons inhibiting action potential production.

A

GABA ; Cl-

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602
Q

—, —, —, and — work primarily on the GABA receptor.

A

Barbiturates, benzodiazepines, propofol, and etomidate

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603
Q

Opens Cl- channel- hyperpolarization

A

GABA receptor

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604
Q

Current research also indicates that inhaled anesthetics also work on — receptors.

A

GABA

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605
Q


Prolong the attachment of GABA to its receptor.
They work in the reticular activating system (RAS).

A

Barbiturates

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606
Q

— (acid) is 72-86% bound to albumin. It reduces the sensitivity of the central respiratory center to CO2. It’s onset is within 10-15 seconds. It’s elimination half-time is 11.6 hours. Metabolized by redistribution dependent on CO.

A

Sodium Thiopental

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607
Q

Sodium Thiopental: — CMRO2 & — CBF

A

Decrease and decrease

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608
Q

Sodium Thiopental: — steal

A

Inverse

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609
Q

Sodium Thiopental: reconstitute with — (no — bc precipitate)

A

Sterile saline ; LR

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610
Q

Sodium Thiopental: can cause this to pain

A

Hyperalgesia

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611
Q

S/S of intra-arterial Thiopental injection: 3

A
  1. Arterial vasospasm with intense pain down the arm
  2. Blanching of the skin with loss of distal pulses
  3. Eventual cyanosis and possibly gangrene
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612
Q

Intra-arterial Thiopental injection is treated with —.

A

Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)

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613
Q

pH of Barbiturates is > —, pH of — is often cited.

A

9.0 ; 10-11

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614
Q

— are contraindicated in status asthmaticus and porphyria.

A

Barbiturates

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615
Q

— is associated with a higher incidence of hiccups than other non-opioid induction drugs.

A

Methohexital

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616
Q

Benzos: acid or base

A

Base

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617
Q

Benzos:
Sedative: effects: the —
amnesia: — and —
anxiolytic effects: —, —, & —

A

cortex ; forebrain and hippocampus ; amygdala, hippocampus, & limbic system.

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618
Q

Benzos:
— swallowing reflex & upper airway reflexes
— CMRO2 & — CBF

A

↓; ↓; ↓

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619
Q

—- competitive antagonist of benzos

A

Flumazenil

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620
Q

Propofol: acid or base

A

Weak acid

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621
Q

Propofol: compound is —

A

2,6 diisoprorylphenol

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622
Q

Propofol: Liver metabolism —% & lung metabolism —%

A

70 ; 30

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623
Q

—: caution with soybean and egg allergy

A

Propofol

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624
Q

Etomidate: acid or base

A

Base

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625
Q

—: Maintains CV stability the best.

A

Etomidate

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626
Q

Etomidate: Directly depresses the —.

A

adrenal cortex

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627
Q

Etomidate: — cerebral blood flow, ICP, & CMRO2

A

Decrease

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628
Q

Venous thrombosis and phlebitis are most likely after —, —, & —.

A

etomidate, diazepam, & lorazepam

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629
Q

4 potential problems during recovery from etomidate:

A
  1. Suppression of adrenocortical response to stress 2. N & V
  2. Decrease Plasma cortisol concentration
  3. Depressed immune response
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630
Q

Ketamine: acid or base

A

Base

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631
Q

Ketamine: Causes dissociation between the — and — systems by antagonistic actions on the — receptors.

A

thalamocortical and limbic ; NMDA

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632
Q

Ketamine: Dysphoria is cause by misperception and/or misinterpretation of auditory and visual stimuli by stimulating the — receptor, antagonizing the — receptor, and stimulating the — receptor.

A

kappa ; muscarinic ; sigma

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633
Q

Ketamine: ♥ Effects: — MAP, CI, PAP, CVP, HR

A

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634
Q

Ketamine produces — airways

A

Bronchodilitation

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635
Q

Ketamine — airway secretions- give glyco

A

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636
Q

Ketamine — emergence delirium in kids & higher bioavailability in kids

A

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637
Q

Ketamine provides — for pain

A

Analgesia

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638
Q

Opioids: acid or base

A

Base

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639
Q

Opioids: shortest elimination 1/2 half (6)

A

Remi < alfent < morphine </= sufent < meperidine < fent

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640
Q

Opioids: potency (6)

A

Sufent > remi > fent > alfent > morphine > meperidine

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641
Q

—: Less is protein bound in the neonate secondary to decrease in alpha-1 acid glycoprotein

A

Morphine

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642
Q

— Metabolite: morphine-6-glucuronide- prolonged in RF & crosses BBB by mass action

A

Morphine

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643
Q

Meperidine (Demerol): — myocardial contractility and — HR

A

decrease ; increase

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644
Q

Meperidine (Demerol): — shivering - — receptors

A

↓ ; Kappa

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645
Q

Meperidine (Demerol): — sz threshold (— having a sz) d/t —

A

↓ ; ↑ ; Normeperidine

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646
Q

Meperidine (Demerol): should be avoided with — & —

A

MAO inhibitors & Imipramine

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647
Q

Adverse S/S of — & — combined:
1. Hyperpyrexia
2. HTN
3. Hypotension
4. Respiratory depression
5. Skeletal muscle rigidity
6. Seizures
7. Coma
♥ Effects:
↓ HR,↓SVR,↓ venous return,↓ BP

A

MAO inhibitors & Demerol

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648
Q

Most clinically used opioids are relatively selective for — receptors.

A

Mu

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649
Q

Spinal analgesia is mediated primarily by — receptors, but also by kappa and delta receptors. Besides the substania gelatinosa (Rexed’s lamina II), the periaqueductal and periventricular gray areas are important sites of spinal analgesia.

A

Mu-2

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650
Q

Supraspinal analgesia is primarily mediated by — receptors, but also by kappa and delta receptors.

A

Mu-1

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651
Q

— receptors produce:
1. Euphoria
2. Miosis
3. Bradycardia
4. Hypothermia
5. Urinary retention
6. Pruritus

A

Mu-1

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652
Q

low abuse potential & Supraspinal analgesia common with — receptors.

A

Mu-1

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653
Q
  • receptors produce:
    1. Respiratory depression
    2. Marked constipation
    3. Physical dependence
A

Mu-2

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654
Q

high abuse potential & Spinal analgesia common with — receptors.

A

Mu-2

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655
Q

— receptors produce:
1. Sedation
2. Dysphoria

A

Kappa

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656
Q

4 Ventilatory effects of opioids:

A
  1. Decrease Breathing rate
  2. Decrease Minute ventilation
  3. Decrease Response to CO2, secondary brainstem depression
  4. Increase Arterial CO2 tension
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657
Q

—, —, & — can reverse opioid-induced sphincter of Oddi spasm.

A

Naloxone, Nitroglycerine, and Glucagon

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658
Q

— is eliminated faster than all other opioids (except Remifentanil) because it has a small —. The elimination 1⁄2 time is 10-30 minutes.

A

Alfentanil ; Vd

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659
Q

— is metabolized by blood and tissue nonspecific esterases.

A

Remifentanil

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660
Q

Can remifentanil be used for neuroaxial? And if not, why?

A

DO NOT use in neuroaxial - Has glycine buffer

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661
Q

Agonist-antagonist opioids
—: provide analgesia
—: reverse respiratory depression

A

Kappa ; Mu

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662
Q

Agonist-antagonist opioids: 3

A

Naltrexone, naloxone, nalbuphine

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663
Q

Muscle Paralyzation order: 5

A

Eye muscles → extremities→trunk→abd muscles→ diaphragm.
Recovery is restored in reverse order

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664
Q

Facial muscle = — paralytic

A

diaphragm

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665
Q

— = readiness for intubation

A

Abductor pollis

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666
Q

Recovery from NMB = — nerve

A

ulnar nerve

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667
Q

MOA NMB:

A

Site of action is the motor end plate- nicotinic receptors

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668
Q

ALL MR resemble —

A

acetylcholine

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669
Q

Four NDMRs that release histamine:

A
  1. d-Tubocurarine
  2. Metocurarine
  3. Atracurium
  4. Mivacurium
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670
Q

— is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase. 25% spontaneous recovery is reached in 13 minutes in adults and 7 minutes in children.

A

Mivacurium

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671
Q

Method of anesthetizing a limb by IV injection while blood flow to extremity is occluded by a tourniquet

A

Bier Block

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672
Q

Bier Block:
Minimum: — mins (don’t release before- local in systemic)
Max: — min (usually d/t tourniquet pain)

A

15-20 ; 40-65

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673
Q

— is eliminated by ester hydrolysis and Hoffman elimination

A

Atracurium

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674
Q

— is only eliminated by Hoffman elimination.

A

Cisatracurium

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675
Q

Hoffman elimination is — & —dependent.

A

temperature and pH

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676
Q

Hoffman elimination: The rate of metabolism is slowed by — & — temperature.

A

acidosis or decrease temperature

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677
Q

— is a lipid-soluble metabolite of atracurium that can cause CNS stimulation in high concentrations.

A

Laudanosine

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678
Q

Four MRs that use renal excretion least:

A
  1. Succinylcholine 2. Atracurium
  2. Cisatracurium 4. Mivacurium
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679
Q

Three NDMRs not significantly excreted by kidneys:

A
  1. Atracurium
  2. Cisatracurium 3. Mivacurium
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680
Q

— is primarily eliminated by renal (70%) and secondarily by biliary (20%).

A

Pipecurium

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681
Q

What 5 things can augment NMB:

A
  1. Hypermagnesium
  2. Hypocalcemia
  3. Hypokalemia
  4. VA : des > sevoflurane > iso > N2O/fentanyl
  5. Hypothermia
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682
Q

Eleven possible complications of Succinylcholine administration:

A
  1. Hyperkalemia
  2. Bradycardia (@ ♥ SA Node)
  3. Increase HR and/or BP
  4. Skeletal muscle myalgia
  5. Allergic reaction
  6. Triggering of MH
  7. Sustained masseter muscle contraction
  8. Myoglobinuria
  9. Increase IOP (NOT prevented with defasculating dose)
  10. Increase Intragastric Pressure (prevented with defasiculating dose)
  11. Increase ICP (prevented with defasiculating dose)
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683
Q

Increase IOP (— prevented with defasculating dose)
Increase Intragastric Pressure (— prevented with defasiculating dose)
Increase ICP (— prevented with defasiculating dose)

A

NOT ; is ; is

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684
Q

Nine conditions that accentuate succinylcholine-induced hyperkalemia:

A
  1. Unhealed third-degree burns
  2. Denervation of skeletal muscle
  3. Severe skeletal muscle trauma
  4. Upper motor neuron injury (head injury, Parkinson’s, CVA)
  5. Muscular dystrophy
  6. Renal Failure w/ hyperkalemia
  7. Severe Sepsis
  8. Duchennes
  9. Guillian Barre
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685
Q

11 clinical manifestations of MH:

A
  1. Hypercarbia
  2. Tachycardia
  3. Tachypnea
  4. Hyperthermia
  5. Hypertension
  6. Cardiac dysrhythmias
  7. Acidosis (metabolic)
  8. Hyperkalemia
  9. Skeletal muscle rigidity
  10. Myoglobinuria
  11. Hypoxemia
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686
Q

The earliest sign of MH is —

A

increase ETCO2

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687
Q

Temperature may increase — C every — minutes

A

1-2 ; 5

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688
Q

— and — agents are triggering agents of MH.

A

Succinylcholine and volatile

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689
Q

— rigidity is an early sign of MH.

A

Masseter muscle

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690
Q

CPK > — confirms the diagnosis after masseter muscle rigidity following halothane and succinylcholine administration.

A

20,000

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691
Q

— contracture test is the standard diagnostic test for MH, but it has too many false positives.

A

Halothane-caffeine

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692
Q

Eight actions for initial management of MH:

A
  1. Discontinue inhaled agents & Sux
  2. Hyperventilate with 100% O2
  3. Administer Dantrolene
  4. Treat acidosis with NaHCO3 (1-2 mmoles/kg)
  5. Decrease Body temp to 38C
  6. Replace anesthesia circuit and CO2 absorber
  7. Monitor ETCO2 & ABGs
  8. Treat hyperkalemia and dysrhythmias if necessary
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693
Q

—: binds to the ryanodine-1 channel and inhibits the calcium channel in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Decreasing the release of Ca++ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle and causes skeletal muscle to relax.

A

Dantrolene

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694
Q

Dantrolene: The initial dose is — mg/kg followed by — mg/kg boluses to a maximum dose of — mg/kg. The therapeutic blood level is 2.5 mcg/ml.

A

2.5 ; 1-2 ; 10

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695
Q

Vials of Dantrolene contain — mg and each is mixed with — ml of sterile distilled H2O.

A

20 ; 60

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696
Q

How often should dantrolene be repeated?

A

It should be repeated every 10-15 hours for three days.

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697
Q

Five dantrolene complications include:

A
  1. Reoccurrence
  2. DIC
  3. Myoglobinuric renal failure
  4. Skeletal muscle weakness
  5. Electrolyte abnormalities
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698
Q

— is the best method to decrease Temp with MH.

A

Gastric lavage

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699
Q

—, 15 mg/kg is the best antiarrhythmic for MH.

A

Procainamide

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700
Q

The mortality rate of MH is —%

A

10

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701
Q

—: can mimic MH, but the onset and recovery are different. Patients treated with antipsychotic drugs such as Haldol, prolixin, or thorazine are susceptible to it.

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

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702
Q

— is the cardinal sign for neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

A

Fever

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703
Q

Anticholinergic: —, - most ↑ HR

A

Atropine

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704
Q

Anticholinergic: —- most sedative

A

Scopolamine

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705
Q

Anticholinergic: — - does not cross BBB d/t being a quaternary

A

Glycopyrrolate

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706
Q

—: Combine reversibly w/ muscarinic cholinergic receptors prevent acetylcholine from binding to the receptor.

A

Anticholinergic

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707
Q

Anticholinergic: Sedative effect

A

Scopolamine > atropine > glycopyrrolate

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708
Q

Anticholinergic: Antisialogogues effect:

A

Scopolamine > glycol > atropine

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709
Q

Anticholinergic: HR:

A

Atropine > glycopyrrolate >scopolamine

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710
Q

Do not use scopolamine in —

A

GLAUCOMA

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711
Q

Anticholinergic: Bronchodilatory effects:

A

Ipratropium

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712
Q

Anticholinergics: gastric effects: — gastric secretions, — peristalsis and intestinal motility, — gastric emptying time, & — lower esophageal sphincter tone

A

↓ ; ↓ ; ↑ ;↓

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713
Q

—: Scopolamine & atropine both cross the blood-brain barrier and block muscarinic cholinergic receptors in the CNS, producing restlessness, hallucinations, somnolence, and potentially, unconsciousness.

A

Central anticholinergic syndrome

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714
Q

Central anticholinergic syndrome both caused by — and —.

A

Scopolamine & atropine

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715
Q

Central anticholinergic syndrome: Predisposed patients: —, —, and —

A

Tricyclic antidepressants (like amitriptyline), antipsychotics, and antihistamines (antimuscarinic characteristics)

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716
Q

Central anticholinergic syndrome: treatment:

A

physostigmine

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717
Q

Xanthines: 2

A

Aminophylline & theophylline

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718
Q

—: drug that cause release of norepinephrine from sympathetic postganglionic neurons and should be avoided with Halothane.

A

Xanthines

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719
Q

Halothane should be avoided with patients intoxicated with cocaine or using imipramine, because they both block reuptake of —.

A

norepinephrine

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720
Q

Calcium channel blockers and volatile agents act —

A

synergistically

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721
Q

Chemotherapy Medications and Site of Toxicity: Bleomyocin – —

A

Lungs

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722
Q

Chemotherapy Medications and Site of Toxicity:
Cisplatin- —

A

Kidneys

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723
Q

Chemotherapy Medications and Site of Toxicity: doxorubicin -—

A

Heart

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724
Q

Chemotherapy Medications and Site of Toxicity: cyclophophains, streptozocin, Methotrexate-—

A

Liver

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725
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers work:
Phase —, plateau phase of ventricular action potential
Phase — of the pacemaker action potential

A

2 ; 4

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726
Q

4 Drugs to avoid with MAO inhibitors:

A
  1. Tricyclic antidepressants (imipramine)
  2. Opioids (especially Demerol)
  3. Indirect acting sympathomimetics (ephedrine)
  4. Fluoxetine
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727
Q

—:
-Enhances myocardial contractility, decrease HR, & slows impulse propagation through the AV node.
-Used to treat CHF & SVT

A

Digoxin: (Digitalis)

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728
Q

Digoxin: (Digitalis) MOA & phase

A

-Inhibits the Na+-K+ pump causing increasing intracellular Ca++ accumulation.
-Work by decreasing Phase 4 depolarization of the SA node

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729
Q

— should be avoided because it creates a relative hypokalemia. Hypokalemia causes binding of digitalis to myocardial cells, resulting in an excessive drug effect.

A

Hyperventilation

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730
Q

Digoxin (digitalis): Eliminated primarily by the —, 35% daily

A

kidneys

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731
Q

—, —, & — increase the likelihood of digitalis toxicity.

A

Hypokalemia, hypercalcemia, and hypomagnesemia

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732
Q

Three side effects of tricyclic antidepressants:
(Amitriptyline)

A
  1. Anticholinergic effects (dry mouth, blurred vision, tachycardia)
  2. Orthostatic hypotension
  3. Sedation
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733
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants interact with: 5

A
  1. Anticholinergics (atropine, scopolamine)
  2. Sympathomimetics (ephedrine)
  3. Inhaled anesthetics (increase dysrhythmias)
  4. Antihypertensives (rebound HTN)
  5. Opioids (increase analgesia & respiratory depression)
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734
Q

Anaphylactic Reaction: (Type I hypersensitivity reaction)
Antibody — is produced in response to an antigen (foreign protein). Upon a second exposure to the antigen, it on the surface of mast cells and basophils triggers the release of mediators including histamine. This causes bronchoconstriction, upper airway edema, vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, and urticaria. Life-threatening.

A

Ig E (immunoglobulin E)

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735
Q

Anaphylactoid Reactions — involve Ig E. Foreign substances (i.e. drugs, hetastarch) directly stimulate the emptying of — & —.

A

do not ; mast cells and basophils

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736
Q

Anaphylactic and Anaphylactoid reaction = — S&S

A

same

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737
Q

Top 5 Causative of Anaphylactic Reactions

A

NMB 60%
Latex 17%
Abx 15%
Colloids 4%
Hypnotics 3-4%

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738
Q

Latex Allergy: food allergies: 4

A

bananas, avocados, chestnuts, stone fruit

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739
Q

Intrinsic Path =

A

XII, XI, IX, VIII (12,11,9,8)

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740
Q

Vitamin K Dep:

A

II, VII, IX, X (2,7,9,10)

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741
Q

Extrinsic =

A

III, VII (3,7)

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742
Q

CFs Not in Liver:

A

III, IV, VIII (3, 4, 8)

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743
Q

Final CP =

A

V, X, I, II, XIII (5,10,1,2,13)

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744
Q

Heparin = — pathway = — & — labs

A

Intrinsic ; aPTT & ACT

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745
Q

Coumadin = — pathway = — & — labs

A

Extrinsic ; PT & INR

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746
Q

Bleeding time : — min : — measure

A

3-10 min ; platelet function

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747
Q

PT : —sec : — measure

A

12-15 sec - extrinsic pathway

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748
Q

PTT : — sec : — measure

A

25-35 sec. – Intrinsic pathway

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749
Q

ACT : —sec

A

80-150 sec.

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750
Q

TT : —sec : — measure

A

9-11 sec. – final common pathway

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751
Q

One PRBC = ↑ Hct —% 1g/dl

A

3-4

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752
Q

1cc/kg PRBC= ↑ Hct —%

A

1

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753
Q

1 unit plts = ↑ — mm3

A

5,000-10,000

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754
Q

— = 1 complete blood volume in 24 hours

A

Massive transfusion

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755
Q

PRBC: universal donor and universal recipient

A

Donor: O & recipient: AB

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756
Q

Platelets: universal donor & universal recipient

A

Donor: AB & recipient: O

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757
Q

— drugs competitively inhibit vitamin K so synthesis of Vitamin K-dependent factors (II, VII, IX, and X) is diminished.

A

Coumadin

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758
Q

— is the fraction of plasma that precipitates when FFP is thawed at 40 C. (The drug of choice for — disease)

A

Cryoprecipitate ; Von Willebrand’s

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759
Q

Cryoprecipitate contains factors —

A

I, VIII, XIII

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760
Q

— inhibits plasmin and therefore inhibits the breakdown of fibrin.

A

Aprotinin

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761
Q

—: Contains all clotting factors but plts

A

FFP

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762
Q

FFP uses: 4

A
  1. isolated coagulation factor deficiencies
  2. reversal of Coumadin
  3. liver dz- reverse coagulation issues
  4. after massive transfusion and still bleeding
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763
Q

Max allowable EBL = equation

A

EBV x [(Hbi-Hbf)/Hbi]

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764
Q

Hct = — x Hbg

A

3

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765
Q

Hct of PRBC = —

A

75

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766
Q

PRBC replacement= equation

A

[(blood loss - MABL) x desired Hct]/Hct of PRBC

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767
Q

Estimated Blood Volume (EBV):
Premie (<term)

A

95ml/kg

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768
Q

Estimated Blood Volume (EBV): term

A

90ml/kg

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769
Q

Estimated Blood Volume (EBV): infant (< 6wks)

A

80 ml/kg

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770
Q

Estimated Blood Volume (EBV): toddler (6wk-2yr)

A

75

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771
Q

Estimated Blood Volume (EBV): child (2yr-12yr)

A

72 ml/kg

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772
Q

Estimated Blood Volume (EBV): men

A

75 ml/kg

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773
Q

Estimated Blood Volume (EBV): women

A

65 ml/kg

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774
Q

Total Body Water (TBW): adult

A

60% ; 42 L

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775
Q

Total Body Water (TBW): neonate

A

80%

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776
Q

Total Body Water (TBW): premie

A

90%

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777
Q

ICF: % and L

A

60-66% ; 25-28 L

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778
Q

ECF: % and L

A

33-40% and 14-17 L

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779
Q

Interstitial fluid %

A

80%

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780
Q

Plasma water %

A

20%

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781
Q

—: pH 6.5 - contains K 4, Na 130,lactate 28– hypo (osm 273)

A

LR

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782
Q

Too much of this fluid = metabolic alkalosis

A

LR

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783
Q

— : Na = 154 meq/L = Isotonic (osmol = 308)

A

NS

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784
Q

Too much of this fluid = hyperchorlemic acidosis

A

NS

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785
Q

—: Hypotonic (osmolality 252 mOsm)

A

D5

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786
Q

—- colloid osmotic pressure of 20mmHg

A

5% Albumin

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787
Q

—- No Ca++ (osmol 294)

A

Normosol

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788
Q

—: 6% hydroxyethyl starch in NS =/> 20ml/kg/day = ↑ serum amalayse levels

A

Hespan

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789
Q

—- 6% hydroxyethy starch in solution w/ electrolytes, glucose and lactate

A

Hextend

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790
Q

Hypotonic ~ <— mOsm/L - — vascular volume

A

285 ; ↑

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791
Q

Hypertonic ~ > — mOsm/L - — cells shrink

A

305 ; ↓

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792
Q

—: Improves blood flow through the microcirculation presumably by decreased blood viscosity. Maximal dose = 20 ml/kg/day or about 58 ml/hr for 70 kg patient.
-Side effects: interference with blood typing, prolonged bleeding time, renal failure, and anaphylactoid reactions.

A

Dextran 40

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793
Q

Five adverse effects of Mannitol administration:

A
  1. Pulmonary edema and Cardiac decompensation
  2. Rebound increase ICP
  3. Hypovolemia
  4. Hyperkalemia
  5. Hyponatremia
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794
Q

Virchow Triangle:

A
  1. endothelial injury
  2. stasis or turbulent blood flow
  3. hypercoagulability of blood
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795
Q

—: A hereditary hemolytic anemia resulting from the formation of an abnormal hemoglobin (Hb S). Red cell survival is reduced to 10-15 days, compared with up to 120 days in normal individuals. It occurs only under extreme hypoxemia or in low-flow states.

A

Sickle Cell Disease

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796
Q

Avoid in Sickle Cell Disease: 6

A
  1. hypo- and hyperthermia
  2. acidosis
  3. mild degrees of hypoxemia
  4. hypotension
  5. hypovolemia
  6. avoid the use of tourniquets.
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797
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia is a mutation of the — globin chains – glutamic acid instead of valine

A

beta

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798
Q

Four diseases associated with thrombocytopenia:

A
  1. Chemotherapy or unrecognized cancer
  2. Liver disease and splenomegaly
  3. DIC
  4. Pre-eclampsia
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799
Q

—: Metabolic d/o affecting biosynthesis of heme = thick blood

A

Porphyria

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800
Q

Porphyria Signs & Symptoms: 3

A
  1. Acute abdominal pain, N & V
  2. Neurotoxicity: confusion, SIADH, difficulty swallowing, HTN & tachycardia
  3. Sensory & motor neuropathies
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801
Q

AVOID Triggering Agents for porphyria: “—”

A

KEPT MAN
Barbs, Nifedipine, Phenytoin, Benzos, Ketorolac, Hydralazine, Ketamine, Enflurane, mepivicaine, Etomidate, Sulfamides, lidocaine
GA- no regional

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802
Q

Hemophilia : x-lined recessive
—- Factor VIII Deficiency
—- Factor IX Deficiency

A

A ; B

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803
Q

Hemophilia :
Prolonged — & normal —

A

Prolonged PTT & normal PT

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804
Q

Heat loss:

A

Radiation >Convection >Evaporation >Conduction

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805
Q

The center for Heat Loss is located in the — hypothalamus

A

anterior (preoptic)

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806
Q

Heat Gain center is located in the — hypothalamus.

A

posterior

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807
Q

Greatest decrease of core temp occurs in — of surgery

A

1st hour

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808
Q

— – from atrial muscle in response to local wall stretch

A

ANP- atrial

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809
Q

—- ventricle muscle when distended

A

BNP- brain

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810
Q

—- endothelial walls natriuretic peptides

A

CNP

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811
Q

Natriuretic Peptides: Induces — of arterial and veins = — RBF & GFR

A

vasodilatation ; ↑

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812
Q

Natriuretic Peptides:
-Suppress actions of —, —, —
-Inhibit – —, —, —

A

NE, angiotensin, endothelin ; renin, angiotensin II, aldosterone

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813
Q

↑ — & — = mortality predicator in CHF

A

ANP & BNP

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814
Q

4 Reasons for difficulty breathing after Thyroidectomy:

A
  1. Laryngeal edema
  2. Bilateral cord paralysis
  3. Hematoma formation
  4. Hypocalcemia secondary to hypoparathyroidism
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815
Q

Six hormones of the Anterior Pituitary: (Adenohypophysis) (Blood flow through Hypothalamic-Hypophyseal Portal System)

A
  1. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
  2. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
  3. Growth hormone (GH)
  4. Prolactin
  5. Leutinizing hormone (LH)
  6. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
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816
Q

2 hormones of the Posterior Pituitary: (Neurohyphosis)

A

1.Anti-Diuretic hormone (ADH)
2. Oxytocin

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817
Q

Thyroid: Regulated by — release from anterior pituitary

A

TSH

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818
Q

Thyroid:
—% Thyroxine (T4)
—% Tri-iodothyronine (T3)

A

93 ; 7

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819
Q

About 80% of Tri-iodothyronine (T3) is produced outside the thyroid gland by — of thyroxine.

A

de-iodinazation

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820
Q

Tri-iodothyronine (T3) is —x — potent than thyroxine (T4).

A

four times more

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821
Q

T4 is converted to T3 in the —

A

tissues

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822
Q

Thyroglobulin = —

A

protein

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823
Q

Grave’s Disease: (—)

A

Hyperthyroidism

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824
Q

— is the drug of choice for treating hyperthyroid-related ventricular dysrhythmias.

A

Beta antagonist

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825
Q

S/S of —:
1. Intolerance to heat
2. Increase Sweating
3. Mild to extreme weight loss
4. Varying degrees of diarrhea
5. Muscular weakness
6. Nervousness
7. Extreme fatigue
8. Inability to sleep
9. Tremor of the hand
10. Exothlamous

A

Grave’s Disease: (Hyperthyroidism)

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826
Q

Four causes of Hypothyroidism:

A
  1. Subtotal lobectomy of thyroid
  2. Goiter
  3. Autoimmune disease (myxedema)
  4. Radiation therapy of thyroid (Can cause cretism in infant = large tongue)
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827
Q

S/S —:
1. Slow mental function
2. Slow movements (weight gain)
3. Dry skin
4. Cold intolerance
5. Depressed ventilatory responses
6. Abnormal cardiac conductivity (decrease cardiac function)
7. Renal disease

A

Hypothyroidism

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828
Q

—: ↓ Anesthesia requirements – however, no Δ in MAC

A

Hypothyroidism

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829
Q

—: Severe exacerbation of hyperthyroidism

A

Thyroid Storm

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830
Q

Thyroid Storm: S/S - — hrs. post-op

A

6-8

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831
Q

— s/s: 1. Hyperthermia 2. Tachycardia 3.CHF 4. Dehydration 5. Shock 6. Hyperglycemia

A

Thyroid Storm

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832
Q

Thyroid Storm Tx:4

A

Na Iodide, cortisol, propranolol, Propylthiouracil

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833
Q

—: Regulates Ca++ & Phosphate

A

Parathyroid

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834
Q

Parathyroid hormone increase [Ca++] by:
1. Increase Absorption of Ca++ from —
2. Increase Reabsorption of Ca++ from —
3. Increase Resorption of Ca++ from —

A

intestine ; renal tubule ; bone

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835
Q

Complications of —:
1. Hypocalcemia
2. Parasthesias
3. Muscle spasm
4. Tetany
5. Laryngospasm
6. Bronchospasm
7. Apnea
8. Hematoma
9. Airway compromise
10. Pneumothorax

A

Parathyroidectomy

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836
Q

Major postop concern after Parathyroidectomy: 4

A
  1. Airway obstruction
  2. Laryngospasm secondary hypocalcemia
  3. Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve damage
  4. Hematoma
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837
Q

Ca > — mEq/L
Ionized Ca++ >— mEq/L

A

5.5 ; 2.5

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838
Q

— is a bone disease caused by hyperparathyroidism. Leaking of Ca out of bones= broken and brittle bones

A

Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica

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839
Q

— promotes the deposition of calcium in the bones and decreases [Ca++] in the ECF. (opposite of PTH)

A

Calcitonin

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840
Q

Clinically significant hypocalcemia: 2

A
  1. ECG changes (prolonged Q-T interval)
  2. decrease Myocardial contractility
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841
Q

S/S of — following parathyroidectomy:
1. Perioral parasthesias
2. Restlessness
3. Neuromuscular irritability

A

hypocalcemia

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842
Q

3 Neuromuscular irritability seen from hypocalcemia following parathyroidectomy:

A

Chvostek’s sign
Trousseau’s sign
Inspiratory stridor

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843
Q

Four effects of acidosis on CNS function:

A
  1. Depressed neuronal activity (coma)
  2. Cerebral vasodilation (increase CBF, increase ICP)
  3. Decrease Cerebral perfusion pressure (cerebral ischemia)
  4. Increase Seizure threshold
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844
Q

Anion Gap: = equation

A

[Na+] – [Cl-] + [HCO3-]

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845
Q

Anion Gap: Normal range = — mEq/liter

A

9-15

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846
Q

Anion gap: Used in the differential diagnosis of —

A

metabolic acidosis

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847
Q

Four causes of metabolic acidosis:

A
  1. Ketoacidosis
  2. Lactic acidosis
  3. Renal failure
  4. Toxic dose of salicylates
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848
Q

Three causes of Metabolic Alkalosis:

A
  1. Vomiting
  2. NG suctioning
  3. Hypokalemia secondary diuretics
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849
Q

Plasma K+ increase approximately — mEq/L for each 0.1 decrease in pH

A

0.6

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850
Q

The kidneys excrete H+ as titratable acids — & —

A

H2PO4 & NH4+

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851
Q

Six physiologic functions that require Ca++:

A
  1. Action potentials in smooth and cardiac muscle
  2. Blood coagulation
  3. Bone formation
  4. Muscle contraction
  5. Membrane excitability (Ca++ controls threshold)
  6. Neurotransmitter release- Ca is REQUIRED
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852
Q

A rapid decrease in plasma — leads to skeletal muscle spasm (laryngospasm) and tetany.

A

[Ca++]

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853
Q

Nine S/S of —:
1. Numbness
2. Circumoral paresthesia
3. Confusion
4. Seizures
5. Hypotension
6. Increase LV filling pressures (due to decrease contractility)
7. Prolonged QT interval
8. Skeletal muscle weakness
9. Fatigue

A

Hypocalcemia

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854
Q

— (contracture of facial muscle with tapping) monitors hypocalcemia

A

Chvostek’s sign

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855
Q

Three ECG changes with Hypocalcemia:

A
  1. Prolonged QT interval
  2. Increase ST segment duration
  3. Flat or inverted T-waves
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856
Q

7 Functions of Magnesium:

A
  1. Functions as a cofactor in many enzyme pathways
  2. Regulates the Na+/K+ pump
  3. Regulates adenylate cyclase
  4. Regulates slow Ca++ channels
  5. It antagonizes Ca++ (an endogenous Ca++ channel blocker) = vasodilatation
  6. Controls the threshold potential (membrane stabilizer)
  7. Regulation of the release of acetylcholine from nerve terminals
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857
Q

—: (It both resembles and antagonizes Ca++)

A

Magnesium

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858
Q

↑ Mg = — excitability

A

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859
Q

— Caused from: excess dietary intake of it, excess ingestion of oral antacids, hypothyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, Addison’s disease, & lithium therapy

A

Hypermagnesemia

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860
Q

Tx for hypermagnesemia: 2

A

forced diuresis with saline and loop diuretics

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861
Q

—: Impairs coagulation by causing platelet dysfunction. Impairs ventricular contractility & leukocyte function.

A

Hyperphosphatemia

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862
Q

Causes of —:
1. Ingestion of large # antacids containing aluminum & Mg
2. Severe burns
3. DKA
4. ETOH WD
5. Prolonged respiratory alkalosis

A

hypophosphatemia

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863
Q

hypophosphatemia Tx: 4

A

aluminum based antacids, Carafate, Ca citrate, dialysis

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864
Q

Eight signs of Hyponatremia:

A
  1. Arrhythmias
  2. Hypotension
  3. Pulmonary edema
  4. Mental changes
  5. Muscle cramps
  6. Weakness
  7. Myoclonia
  8. Edema
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865
Q

Hypernatremia = — is what hydration status?

A

dehydration

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866
Q

Treatment of hyponatremia: 2

A

diuretics and hypertonic saline

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867
Q

S/S develop with [Na ] < — mEq/L

A

120

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868
Q

Three factors that promote Hypokalemia:

A
  1. Alkalosis
  2. Insulin
  3. Beta-2 adrenergic stimulation
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869
Q

Seven ways to treat Hyperkalemia:

A
  1. Give calcium gluconate
  2. Give glucose/insulin
  3. Give sodium bicarbonate
  4. Give diuretics (to increase excretion)
  5. Give kayexalate (potassium exchange resins)
  6. Use hemodialysis
  7. Hyperventilate the patient
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870
Q

Plasma [K+] is decrease — mEq/L for each 10 mmHg decrease in PaCO2

A

0.5

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871
Q

Cardioplegia – — mEq/L of K+

A

15-40

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872
Q

— should be given to the hyperkalemic pt. when ventricular dysrhythmias appear. (↑ threshold away from RMP)

A

Calcium

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873
Q

5 Medications that cause an ↑ K:

A

Triamterene, spironolactone, NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, BB

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874
Q

ECG Δ with Hyperkalemia: 3

A

Prolongation of P-R interval
Widening of QRS
Peaked or tented T waves

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875
Q

ECG Δ with Hypokalemia 3

A

Prolongation of P-R & Q-T interval
Flattening of T waves
Appearance of prominent U wave

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876
Q

—: glucocorticoid & mineralocorticoid deficient

A

Addison’s disease

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877
Q

— - autoimmune destruct of the adrenal cortex

A

Hypoadrenocorticism

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878
Q

—: S/S
1. Hypotension
2. Hyponatremia
3. Hyperkalemia
4. Hypoglycemia (secondary decrease cortisol levels)
5. Hemoconcentration (d/t to ↑ H2O excretion 2nd to hyponatremia)
6. Skin pigmentation

A

Addison’s disease

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879
Q

2 electrolytes to indicate decrease in aldosterone:

A

Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia

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880
Q

Give — intraop for Addison’s disease

A

glucocorticoid

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881
Q

—- ↑ cortisol & ↑ ATCH in anterior pituitary

A

Hyperadrenocorticism

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882
Q

— disease: Hypoadrenocorticism

A

Addison’s disease

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883
Q

— disease: Hyperadrenocorticism

A

Cushing’s disease

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884
Q

— S/S:
1. HTN (secondary to Na retention)
2. Hypokalemia
3. Hyperglycemia (20 increase cortisol levels)
4. Moon face & buffalo hump
5. Skeletal muscle weakness
6. Skin pigmentation

A

Cushing’s disease

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885
Q

— Disease: Primary hyperadolteronism

A

Conn’s Disease

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886
Q

Conn’s Disease electrolytes :

A

↑ Na+
↓ K+

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887
Q

—: Tumor of the adrenal medulla chromaffin tissues which results in an ↑ catecholamine release

A

Pheochromocytoma

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888
Q

— S/S:
1. Paroxysmal HTN
2. Diaphoresis
3. Tachycardia
4. Headache

A

Pheochromocytoma

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889
Q

Pheochromocytoma Tx: 2

A

α block- phenoxybenzamine 20-30mg/day &↑to 60-250mg/day
β block- tx for tachy

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890
Q

3 drugs to Avoid in Pheochromocytoma:

A

Trimethaphan, droperidal, histamine

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891
Q

—: A group of syndromes characterized by tumor formation in several endocrine organs.

A

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia: (MEN)

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892
Q

MEN — = tumors in pancreas, pituitary gland, & parathyroid gland

A

I

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893
Q

MEN — = medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma, and hyperparathyroidism (type IIa) or multiple mucosal neuromas (type IIb or type III)

A

II

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894
Q

Kidney: —% CO

A

25-30

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895
Q

Kidney: 4 Functions:

A

1.ECF composition
2. Maintenance of EFV- NA & H2O excretion
3. Endocrine
4. Regulation of arterial BP

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896
Q

ECF composition:
Osmolality: — mOsm/kg
Urine osmolality — mOsm/kg H2O

A

285-305 ; 50-1200

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897
Q

Erythropoietin- CRF = —

A

anemia

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898
Q

— System- BP reg, Na/K excretion

A

RAA

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899
Q

Vitamin D: CRF = —

A

hypocalcemia

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900
Q

RBF = equation

A

(MAP- Venous Pressure) x Vascular resistance

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901
Q

Labs: — is single best indicator of renal status

A

Creatine Clearance

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902
Q

Creatine: — mg/dl BUN: —mg/dl

A

0.7-1.5 ; 10-20

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903
Q

GFR:
nml —ml/min, mild dsyfx —, mod dsyfx —, failure — ml/min

A

95-150 ; 50-80 ; <25 ; <10

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904
Q

Glomerulus: freely filters 4

A

Na, Cl, K & H2O

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905
Q

Proximal tubule: —% of glomerular filtrate

A

67

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906
Q

Proximal tubule: reabsorbed —, ONLY place permeable to —

A

H2O > Cl > Na = K ; glucose

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907
Q

Descending LOH: filters 2

A

Urea & H2O (no Na, Cl or K)

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908
Q

Descending LOH: Osmotic gradient via —

A

countercurrent multiplier

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909
Q

Ascending LOH: Filters 3

A

Na, Cl, K – No H2O in thick branch

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910
Q

Loop Diuretics – — inhibit reabsorption

A

Na+, K+, 2CL-

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911
Q

Lasix ↑ —= — = ↓BP

A

prostaglandins ; venodilitation

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912
Q

Loop Diuretics –Side effects: 4

A

↓ K, fluid volume deficit, orthostatic HoTN, reversible deafness (CNVIII)

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913
Q

Distal Tubule: Filters 2

A

Na & Cl (No K or H2O)

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914
Q

Distal Tubule: Early: drug —: — K

A

Thiazides: ↓ K

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915
Q

Distal Tubule: Late & CC: drug —: — K

A

Potassium Sparing Diuretic: ↑ K

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916
Q

5 drugs that affect late distal tubule:

A

Triamterene, amiloride Spiratalctone
ADH & Aldosterone

917
Q

CollectingDuct: filter 4

A

Na & Cl-out, K-In, Low perm H2O, (no urea)

918
Q

CollectingDuct: Site of Action — & —

A

ADH & Aldosterone (principle cells)

919
Q

6 Nephron Sections:

A
  1. Glomerulus
  2. Proximal tubule
  3. Descending LOH
  4. Ascending LOH
  5. Distal tubule
  6. Collecting duct
920
Q

3 nephrons sections in Cortex:

A

Glomeruli, Proximal Tubules, Distal Tubules

921
Q

2 parts of the nephron in Medulla:

A

loops of Henle, Collecting Ducts

922
Q

—= most vulnerable to ischemia of nephron

A

Inner stripe of the outer medulla

923
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor: —

A

Acetazolamide(Diamox)

924
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor: Acetazolamide(Diamox)-↓ — 2 to ↓ — formation

A

IOP ; aqueous humor

925
Q

Acetazolamide(Diamox)- Inhibit — in — tubule = — Na reabsorption = diuresis – — Metabolic Acidosis

A

carbonic anhydrase ; proximal ; ↓ ; Hyperchorlemic

926
Q

Mannitol:— Osmotic pressure in renal tubule= — reabsorption of H2O

A

↑ ; ↓

927
Q

Mannitol: S/E: —

A

↓ K +

928
Q

Renal Failure: S/S & lab findings normal until —% ↓ in Fx

A

40

929
Q

Anuric: UO —
Oliguric: UO —
NonOliguric: —

A

<100ml/day or < 0.5ml/kg/hr ; 100-400 ml/day ; UO >400ml/day

930
Q

Renal Failure: Electrolytes: —

A

↑ K, Mg, Phos, ↓Ca , Na , metabolic acidosis

931
Q

Renal Failure: — is # 1 issue and cause of death

A

Infection

932
Q

— DA1 agonist

A

Fenoldapam

933
Q

Fenoldapam DA1 agonist: — RBF (6x more potent than —)

A

↑ ; dop

934
Q

Renal Failure: Avoid — & —

A

Meperidine & Morphine (metabolite-6)

935
Q

—: (vasopressin)

A

ADH

936
Q

ADH: (vasopressin) : — Concentration

A

NA+

937
Q

ADH: (vasopressin) : Synthesized Periventricular and Supraoptic nuclei of the — , stored in and released from the — (neurohyposis).

A

hypothalamus ; posterior pituitary

938
Q

ADH: (vasopressin) : where does it work and effect 3

A
  1. Primary on collecting ducts in the nephron = passive water reabsorption
  2. Vascular smooth muscle and cardiac myocytes.
    3.Dramatic vasoconstriction and has an inotropic effect
939
Q

— Released in response to increase ECF osmolarity, decrease plasma volume, & drugs, stress, HoTN, Pain, CPAP, PEEP, VA, Trauma

A

ADH (vasopressin)

940
Q

ADH (vasopressin): Works in the — & — to increase H2O reabsorption

A

distal tubule & collecting duct

941
Q

In the absence of ADH the collecting duct and distal tubule are impermeable to — ie: excretion happens.

A

H2O

942
Q

ADH = — = — (concentration)

A

Osmolality ; increase [Na+]

943
Q

Extra Cellular Fluid Volume: — = ECFV

A

Na+

944
Q

Aldosterone: controls —

A

VOLUME

945
Q

Aldosterone: It controls — volume and works in the — & — tubule.

A

intravascular ; collecting duct and the late distal convoluted

946
Q

Aldosterone: — Na+ reabsorption, and K+ —.

A

Increases/conserved ; secretion/excretion

947
Q

—: Release is triggered by Angiotensin II and increase [K+]; also increase ACTH and low serum Na+. It also regulates the total amount of Na+.

A

Aldosterone

948
Q

— is secreted by the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex.

A

Aldosterone

949
Q

— (a mineralocorticoid)

A

Aldosterone

950
Q

— (a glucocorticoid)

A

Cortisol

951
Q

— is secreted by the zona fasciculata, the middle zone of the adrenal cortex.

A

Cortisol

952
Q

—, —, & — are catecholamines released from the adrenal medulla.

A

Epinephrine (80%), norepinephrine (20%), and dopamine

953
Q

Epinephrine (80%), norepinephrine (20%), and dopamine are catecholamines released from the adrenal medulla. This is controlled by — preganglionic neurons that release — to — receptors.

A

sympathetic ; acetylcholine ; nicotinic

954
Q

3 Stimuli for the release of Renin:

A
  1. Decrease Renal perfusion pressure
  2. Hyponatremia
  3. Sympathetic NS stimulation of beta-receptors in JG apparatus
955
Q

Normal GFR = — ml/min

A

125

956
Q

Clinical features of Diabetes Insipidus:
— - HALLMARK

A

Polyuria, > 2-15 L/day

957
Q

3 Clinical features of Diabetes Insipidus:

A
  1. Polyuria, > 2-15 L/day- HALLMARK
  2. Hypernatremia (plasma hyperosmolality)
  3. Dilute urine (osmolality < 200 mOsm/kg)
958
Q

S/S of —:
1. Polydipsia (increase thirst)
2. Polyuria – (2-15L/Day) HALLMARK
3. Hypernatremia
4. Hypovolemia
5. Hypotension
6. ↓ Urine osmol (<200 mosm/kg)
7. ↓ specific gravity (1.005 or less)

A

Diabetes Insipidus

959
Q

3 Diagnosis of SIADH: ↑ ADH

A
  1. Decreased plasma osmolality (< 270 mOsm/kg)
  2. Increase urine [Na+] (> 100-150 mOsm/kg)
  3. Hyponatremia d/t retention of H2O
960
Q

SIADH: Tx: —4

A

remove underlying cause, Limit H2O , 3% Saline, demecolcine

961
Q

Liver: —% CO

A

25

962
Q

Liver: Blood Flow:
—% Portal vein - splenic & mesenteric
—% Hepatic artery

A

70 ; 30

963
Q

“—”
An increase in hepatic arterial flow in response to a decrease in portal blood flow (1) to maintain hepatic O2 supply, and (2) to maintain total hepatic blood flow, which is essential for clearance of many compounds.

A

Arterial Buffer Response

964
Q

Hepatic Blood Flow
Arteries: —, —, —, & —

A

α-1, β-2, D1 &cholinergic

965
Q

Hepatic Blood Flow
Arteries: Blood flow receptors: —

A

Ohms

966
Q

Hepatic Blood Flow
Veins: — & —

A

α-1 & D1

967
Q

Hepatic Blood Flow
Veins: blood flow depend on — & —

A

GI & Spleen

968
Q

Hepatic Blood Flow
Arteries: — % of Blood flow, —% of oxygen supply

A

30 ; 50

969
Q

Hepatic Blood Flow
Veins: —% of blood flow, —% of oxygen supply

A

70 ; 50

970
Q

Seven functions of the Liver:

A
  1. Storage and filtration of blood (500ml)
  2. Metabolic functions such as carbo, fat, and protein metabolism
  3. Secretion of bile
  4. Storage of vitamins
  5. Blood coagulation
  6. Storage of iron
  7. Detoxification & excretion of drugs
971
Q

P450’s
Inducers: 7

A

chronic ETOH, barbs, ketamine, benzo’s, phenytoin, cigarette smoke, St. Johns wort

972
Q

P450’s
Inhibition: 4

A

cimetidine, chloramphemocel, fluoxetine, grape fruit Bile vomitus is usually alkaline

973
Q

Puke your acids = —

A

alkalosis

974
Q

Poop your bases = —

A

acidosis

975
Q

Alcoholic Hepatic Issues/Liver Disease: 4

A

Thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, anemia, megoblastic anemia d/t folate deficiency

976
Q

Maintain BP- ETOH depends on — FLOW

A

ARTERIAL

977
Q

Alcoholic Hepatic Issues/Liver Disease: —- agent of choice

A

Isoflurane

978
Q

Alcoholic Hepatic Issues/Liver Disease: — Vd= — loading dose, — main = prolonged Vec, Roc, Pan

A

↑ ; ↑ ; smaller

979
Q

Alcoholic Hepatic Issues/Liver Disease: prolonged —

A

Vec, Roc, Pan

980
Q

Alcoholic Hepatic Issues/Liver Disease: Labs: — total bilirubin,—AST/ALT (ALT more sensitive), — albumin & PT

A

↑ ; ↑ ; ↓

981
Q

Alcoholic Hepatic Issues/Liver Disease: Hemodynamics: —SVR, —CO, —circ blood volume, —portal blood flow, — plasma osmotic pressure

A

↓ ; ↑ ; ↑ ; ↓ ; ↓

982
Q

— Syndrome: (aspiration pneumonitis)

A

Mendelsons

983
Q

Mendelsons Syndrome: (aspiration pneumonitis)
Gastric pH < —
Gastric volume < —

A

2.5 ; 25 ml

984
Q

Seven conditions that delay gastric emptying:

A
  1. Obesity
  2. Pregnancy
  3. Opiods
  4. Diabetes mellitus
  5. Trauma
  6. Pain
  7. Anxiety
985
Q

Drugs that ↓ LES Tone: (↑ risk of aspiration)

A
  1. Anticholinergics
  2. Dopamine
  3. Thiopental
  4. Opioids
  5. Propofol
  6. Tricyclic antidepressants
  7. Sodium nitroprusside
986
Q

5 Patients who benefit from antiemetics:

A
  1. Eye surgery patients
  2. Gynecological patients
  3. Obese patients
  4. History of vomiting
  5. ECSW Lithotripsy
987
Q

Antiemetics:
Competitive Dopamine Antagonists; 3

A

Droperidal, Compazine, Metoclopramide

988
Q

Competitive Dopamine Antagonists; Droperidal, Compazine, Metoclopramide: Do not give to — Patients

A

Parkinson’s

989
Q

Droperidol:
1. An antiemetic (secondary — blockade)
2. Produces extrapyramidal signs (secondary — blockade)
3. May decrease BP (secondary weak — blockade)

A

dopamine ; dopamine ; alpha

990
Q

Treatment for droperidol-induced extrapyramidal symptoms is an 4

A

anticholinergic (Benadryl or benztropine, Cogentin).

991
Q

Droperidol:
Do not give to: — or —

A

Pheo or Parkinsons

992
Q

Metoclopramide: (NO Δ in — )

A

pH

993
Q

Metoclopramide:
1. — pyloric sphincter
2. — gastric motility = ↑ gastric emptying
3. — LES tone = ↓ reflux
4. — the small intestine
5. Has — actions

A

Relaxes ; Promotes ; Increase ; Relaxes ; antiemetic

994
Q

Metoclopramide: also inhibits —

A

plasma cholinesterase

995
Q

Metoclopramide: Used to treat: 4

A

Diabetic gastroparesis
Reflux esophagitis
Pts. at risk for aspiration pneumonitis (Mendelsons syndrome) Parturients

996
Q

Drugs that — gastric pH and — gastric volume: (H2 blockers)

A

Increase ; decrease

997
Q

3 H2 blockers:

A
  1. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
  2. Ranitidine (Zantac)
  3. Famotidine (Pepcid)
998
Q

Which H2 blocker inhibits p-450 the most?

A

Cimetidine (Tagamet)

999
Q

Which H2 blocker is the most potent?

A

Ranitidine (Zantac)

1000
Q

Proton pump inhibitors:
- inhibits the — pump
-—secretion of HCl into the lumen of stomach

A

hydrogen ; ↓

1001
Q

— : proton pump inhibitor

A

Omeprazole

1002
Q

most powerful agent for ↓ acid secretion

A

Proton pump inhibitor (omeprazole)

1003
Q

—: Raise gastric pH by neutralizing HCl also ↑ gastric volume

A

Antacids

1004
Q

How fast is antacids effect?

A

Immediate

1005
Q

How long does antacids loose effectiveness?

A

30-60min

1006
Q

Chemoreceptor Zone: —

A

4th ventricle (area posterema)

1007
Q

4 Neurotransmitters & Receptors in N/V:

A

Dopamine & DA-2
Serotonin & 5-HT
Acetylcholine & muscarinic
Substance P & NK-1

1008
Q

—: S/S caused by vasoactive substances released from enterochromaffin tumors or carcinoid tumors

A

Carcinoid Syndrome

1009
Q

Carcinoid Syndrome: Most carcinoid tumors are in —

A

GI tract- especially appendix

1010
Q

Carcinoid Syndrome: Cause overproduction: 5

A

serotonin-hallmark, bradykinin, histamine, kallikrein, prostaglandins

1011
Q

Carcinoid syndrome hallmark overproduction?

A

Serotonin

1012
Q

Carcinoid syndrome: Avoid activating tumor causing: 3

A

HoTN, catecholamine release, histamine releasing medications

1013
Q

Five clinical manifestations of nonintestional tumors:

A
  1. Cutaneous flushing
  2. Bronchospasm
  3. Diarrhea
  4. Large BP swings
  5. Supraventricular dysrhythmias
1014
Q

— used to blunt vasoactive and bronchoconstritive effects of carcinoid syndrome

A

Octreotide (somatostatin)

1015
Q

Pancreas:
Beta cells: —
Alpha cells: —
Delta cells: —

A

insulin ; glucagon ; somatostatin

1016
Q

Evaluation of pancreatitis: 3

A
  1. Malnutrition
  2. Abnormal liver FX
  3. ETOH WD (alcoholism frequent cause of pancreatitis)
1017
Q

Symptoms of pancreatitis: 4

A
  1. Dehydration
  2. Hypocalcemia
  3. Hyperglycemia
  4. ARDS
    Alcoholism is a frequent cause of pancreatitis.
1018
Q

5 “F’s” of Cholelathiasis:

A
  1. Fat
  2. Female
  3. Fertile
  4. Forty
  5. Fair
1019
Q

— is not needed by brain or RBC to utilize glucose

A

Insulin

1020
Q

—: Insulin secreting tumor causing massive insulin release.

A

Insulinoma

1021
Q

Insulinoma:
—- during resection
—- after resection
Check Blood sugar every — mins

A

Hypoglycemia ; Hyperglycemia ; 15

1022
Q

Diabetic Neuropathy: Anesthetic considerations: 3

A

orthostatic Hotn, Silent MI, Gastroparesis

1023
Q

Diabetic Neuropathy: HR response blunted w/ use of —

A

antimuscurinics - Atropine

1024
Q

Normal A1C = — %

A

6

1025
Q

DM with autonomic neuropathy: 6 Cardiac Concerns

A

Orthostatic Hotn, Resting tachycardia, absence of beat to beat variability in HR, dysrhythmias, silent MI, painless myocardial ischemia

1026
Q

DM with autonomic neuropathy: HR response blunted in these medications: 2

A

Antimuscarinics & Beta-Blockers

1027
Q

MOA of DM neuropathy: High concentrations of glucose are converted to — within nerve via the polyol pathway. The high levels of it (and fructose) that develop — ATP→ — NO levels. Because this acts as a vasodilator, the loss of it leads to unopposed vasoconstriction and ischemia of the nerve

A

sorbitol ; ↓ ; ↓

1028
Q

—: Where T-Lymphocytes mature

A

Thymus

1029
Q

— is most commonly removed d/t Thyoma & MG

A

Thymus

1030
Q

Thymus removal has Pneumo most likely on — side

A

RIGHT

1031
Q

Scoliosis: — curvature of the spine

A

Lateral

1032
Q

Scoliosis: — lung dz

A

Restrictive

1033
Q

Scoliosis: most likely to have this heart issue

A

Mitral valve prolapse

1034
Q

—: Painless degenerative & atrophy of skeletal muscles

A

Muscular Dystrophy

1035
Q

Muscular Dystrophy: — (most common & severe)- x-linked, recessive

A

Duchene’s

1036
Q

Muscular Dystrophy (Duchenne’s): EKG- — PR, QRS, ST abnormalities, BBB, Q waves, R waves (tall), CHF

A

prolonged

1037
Q

Muscular dystrophy (Duchene’s): Resp: —TLC & RV, recurrent pulm infections

A

1038
Q

Muscular Dystrophy (Duchene’s): NO — (↑MH)

A

succs

1039
Q

—: Random & multiple sites of demyelination of corticospinal tracts in brain & SC (NO PERIPHERY)

A

Multiple Sclerosis- MS

1040
Q

Multiple Sclerosis- MS: No — (may exacerbate)

A

spinals

1041
Q

Multiple Sclerosis- MS: Avoid – rises in —

A

temps

1042
Q

Multiple Sclerosis- MS: — in response to Succs

A

Hyperkalemia

1043
Q

—: Loss of dopanergic fibers basal ganglia (dop is a inhibitory NT)

A

Parkinson Disease

1044
Q

—: s/s: skeletal muscle rigidity, resting tremor, diaphragmatic spasm

A

Parkinson Disease

1045
Q

Parkinson Disease tx:

A

Levodopa

1046
Q

Parkinson Disease: Avoid: 3

A

droperidal, reglan, Compazine

1047
Q

—: Chronic inflammation disease w/cervical vertebral involvement

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

1048
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis:
-—lung disease, pulmonary fibrosis, FOB, pulm fx test
-Hoarseness or stridor – — involvement

A

Restrictive ; Cricoarytenoid

1049
Q

—: Cyanide binds to cytochrome oxidase resulting in inhibition of oxidative phosphorylation causing inhibition of cell respiration.

A

Cyanide Toxicity:

1050
Q

Cyanide Toxicity: caused by administration of —

A

Nitroprusside

1051
Q

—: Chronic autoimmune @ NMJ, weakness

A

Myasthenia Gravis- MG

1052
Q

Myasthenia Gravis- MG: Tx: 3

A

steroids, anticholinesterase meds, plasma phoresis

1053
Q

Myasthenia Gravis- MG: Avoid —

A

muscle relaxants

1054
Q

—: A disorder of neuromuscular transmission associated with carcinomas. An autoimmune disease in which immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies against voltage-gated sodium channels cross-react with calcium channels at the neuromuscular junction. The result is a decreased release of acetylcholine in response to nerve stimulation.

A

Lambert-Eaton Syndrome ~ Myasthenic Syndrome

1055
Q

Lambert-Eaton Syndrome (Myasthenic Syndrome): — sensitivity to NDMRs and succinylcholine is seen.

A

Increased

1056
Q

Lambert-Eaton Syndrome (Myasthenic Syndrome): ↓ Weakness with — activity

A

1057
Q

—: A familial d/o associated w/ histocompatibilityantigen HLA-B27. Low back pain associated w/ early morning stiffness young men progressively restricted movement of the spine.
Some patients develop arthritis of the hips and shoulders.

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

1058
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis: — dose if needed

A

Stress steroid

1059
Q

—: characteristic manifestations: antinuclear antibodies, nephritis, serositis, thrombocytopenia, or a characteristic rash

A

Lupus

1060
Q

Drug most likely to cause lupus like symptoms:

A

Hydralazine

1061
Q

4 Complications of TURB:

A

1.Blood Loss
3. bactermia
2. Hypothermia
4. Bladder perforation

1062
Q

TURP: Preference for —: ↓ blood loss, ↓ thrombus risk, atonic bladder, prevents postop bladder spasms, awake pt. can assist detecting issues

A

SAB

1063
Q

Bladder Perforation during TURP –Signs & Symptoms: 2

A

1.Abdominal pain & spasm
2. HTN & tachy—followed by sudden & severe HoTN

1064
Q

TURP Syndrome: Triad of S/S:

A

↑ PP, bradycardia, mental status Δ
Other symptoms: HTN, CV collapse, ↑ CVP, Dyspnea, N, anxiety

1065
Q

TURP Syndrome: Tx:

A

Give O2, notifiy surgeon, invasive monitors, blood to lab, 12-lead ECG,

1066
Q

— - complication from TURP syndrome- d/t the rapid tx of hyponatremia

A

Central Pontine Myelinolysis

1067
Q

TURP Syndrome: Management: stop resection, Labs, fluid restriction, Lasic, NS3%
Amount of NS 3% = Dose (mEq) = —
Stop NS 3% when NA > —

A

kg x (140-(Na)mEq/L) ; 120

1068
Q

Na+ levels: — mEq/L = restlessness & confusion, (psbl. wide QRS), N/V

A

120

1069
Q

Na+ Levels: — mEq/L = nausea, somnolence, ECG (wide QRS, ST elevation)

A

115

1070
Q

Na+ levels: — mEq/L = seizures & coma with VT, VF

A

110

1071
Q

Irrigating fluid = — ml/min of surgery time

A

20

1072
Q

Blood loss is ~ — ml/min of resection time

A

3-5

1073
Q

Gas Embolism – laparoscopic surgery
S/S: HoTN, Tachy, bilateral wheezing & ↓ ETCO2
Halt insufflation, eliminate N2O, release pneumoperitoneum, place in — lateral decub, aspirate gas via central venous cath

A

LEFT

1074
Q

Fat Emboli Syndrome – — hrs

A

12-72

1075
Q

Fat Emboli Syndrome 5 major signs:

A

axillary, subconjuctival petechial, hypoxemia,↓CNS, pulm edema

1076
Q

S/S of Intraop PE: 7

A
  1. Hypotension
  2. Tachycardia
  3. Hypoxemia, decrease SpO2
  4. Bronchospasm
  5. Hypocapnia, decrease ETCO2 (1st sign d/t dead space ventilation)
  6. PVR > 300
  7. +D-dimer
1077
Q

—: Skeletal muscle necrosis d/t tissue injury
Myoglobin: oxygen transport protein
Common causes: major crush injury, thermal or electrical injury, arterial occlusion, acute muscle injury, prolonged immobility, compartment syndrome, MH, extreme lithotomy, hyperlordotic position

A

Rhabomylosis

1078
Q

—: To improve blood flow to ischemic areas: causalgia, Raynaud’s, frostbite, gangrene, ischemic ulceration of lower extremities L2-L3

A

Surgical Lumbar Sympthathectomy

1079
Q

Cyanide Toxicity: Tx:

A

Na Thiosulfate 150ml/kg over 15 mins

1080
Q

— = muscle cell

A

Myocyte

1081
Q

—: ECG = peaked P waves in leads II, III, and aVF which are consistent with right atrial hypertrophy & right axis deviation and right bundle branch block which are consistent with right ventricular hypertrophy.

A

Cor Pulmonale

1082
Q

Surgical Stimulation: 6

A

Intubation > upper ab surgery > breast surgery = lower ab = skin incision > skin closure

1083
Q

ASA classes: Healthy

A

1

1084
Q

ASA class: mild systemic disease- HTN, DM, Anemia, age, obesity, chronic bronchitis

A

2

1085
Q

ASA class: severe systemic disease- Cardiac dz with limiting activity, Uncontrolled HTN, DM w/vascular issues, MI or Angina

A

3

1086
Q

ASA class: incapacitating systemic dz – CHF, persistent angina, advanced kidney or liver dz

A

4

1087
Q

ASA class: moribund pt. – Not expected to live 24 hours after surgery- PE, AAA, cerebral trauma

A

5

1088
Q

ASA class: brain dead- organ procurement

A

6

1089
Q

ASA class: not elective- i.e appy

A

E

1090
Q

Mallampati: Pillars, soft palate, fauces, uvula

A

Class I

1091
Q

Mallampati: Uvula, soft palate, fauces

A

Class II

1092
Q

Mallampati: Soft palate, uvula

A

Class III

1093
Q

Mallampati: Hard Palate

A

Class IV

1094
Q

Mallampati score mnemonic:

A

PUSH (from I to IV)

1095
Q

ECT: 1st response

A

parasympathetic- HoTN, ↓HR

1096
Q

ECT: 2nd response

A

sympathetic- HTN, ↑HR ↑CBF = ↑ICP

1097
Q

ECT: Medication of choice:

A

Brevital (0.5mg/kg)

1098
Q

ECT: Desired Duration

A

30-60 seconds, sz sec needed= 400-700

1099
Q

ECT: 6 Absolute contraindications:

A
  1. Pheo
  2. Recent MI (4-6 wks)
  3. CVA <3mos
  4. recent intracranial surgery- <3mos
  5. Intracranial mass lesion
  6. Unstable C-spine
1100
Q

ECT: 9 Relative contraindications

A

angina, CHF, Pacer/ICD, pulm dz, major bone fx, glaucoma, retinal detachment, thrombophlebitis, pregnancy

1101
Q

Fetal heart Circulation:

A

RA to foramen ovale and RV (foramen ovale to LA), RV to PA, PA to patent ductus and lungs (PDA to aorta)

1102
Q

Fetal circulation: — arteries-deoxygenation blood & — vein- oxygenated

A

2 ; 1

1103
Q

Hemoglobin levels are lowest at — of age —mg/dl

A

3 months ; 10-11

1104
Q

Basal metabolic rate is highest at — of age

A

2 years

1105
Q

Oxyhemoglobin curve: Newborn= — shift & — @ —

A

Left ; Right ; 3-4 mos.

1106
Q

Peds Inspiratory pressure more negative than — to open alveoli

A

25-40

1107
Q

—: hyaline membrane disease, 50-75% mortality rate d/t result of inadequate surfactant in the alveoli

A

Respiratory distress syndrome (RSD)

1108
Q

Premie: less than —

A

37 weeks

1109
Q

Neonate: less than — of age

A

30 days

1110
Q

Infant: — of age

A

1-12 mos.

1111
Q

Children: — of age

A

1-12 years

1112
Q

Post conceptual Age = equation

A

gestational age + post maternal age

1113
Q

Apgar scores: taken at — min & — min

A

1 ; 5

1114
Q

Apgar scores: 1 min = — & 5 min = —

A

survival ; neurologic outcome

1115
Q

Differences in body systems in Pediatrics:
Cardiac:
-CO is dependent on —
-fixed SV & noncompliant & poorly developed — (depends on —)

A

HR ; L vent ; Ca++

1116
Q

Differences in body systems in Pediatrics: Cardiac:
Innervation: — = SPARSE, —-complete

A

Sympathetic ; parasympathetic

1117
Q

Differences in body systems in Pediatrics: Respiratory:— RR, — Lung compliance + — chest wall compliance = — FRC (↑ IA induction), Deficient in Type — fibers, high closing volumes

A

↑ ; ↓ ; ↑ ; ↓ ; I

1118
Q

Differences in body systems in Pediatrics: Respiratory: larynx are — & — (@ —), Adult —

A

Anterior and cephalad ; C3-C4 ; C4-C5

1119
Q

Differences in body systems in Pediatrics: Respiratory: Obligate — breathers

A

nasal

1120
Q

— airway narrowest point in children less than 5 yrs.

A

Cricoid cartilage

1121
Q

MAC highest — of age

A

6 mos.

1122
Q

Differences in body systems in Pediatrics: Kidney:
— glomerular development, ↓ size of glomerulus ↓ perfusion pressure, ↓ ability to concentrate urine, obligate — losers

A

Incomplete ; Na

1123
Q

Differences in body systems in Pediatrics: Hepatic:
— hepatic biotransformation, ↓ protein binding, fetal liver = hematopoiesis, — risk of hypoglycemia, — LBF

A

Immature ; ↑ ; ↓

1124
Q

Peds spinal cord and dural sac end at:

A

Spinal cord: L2-L3 and dural sac: S3

1125
Q

Adult spinal cord and dural sac end at:

A

Spinal cord: L1-L2 and dural sac: S2

1126
Q

— cortex- unmylenated and poorly developed until 2 years

A

Motor

1127
Q

— cortex- mylenated @ birth, nerves poor develop until 3 mos.

A

Sensory

1128
Q

Peds CBF —ml/100g/min (adults 100/100/g/min)

A

40

1129
Q

Peds Neuro surgery: PaCO2 → — mmHg

A

20-25

1130
Q

Peds Non-shivering thermogenesis (inhibited by: 4 )

A

IA, BB, fent, prop)

1131
Q

Best way to maintain infants body heat = heat up OR to —

A

26C (78.8)

1132
Q

Peds O2 consumption — an adults

A

2x

1133
Q

Peds Large volume of distribution 2nd to higher — content

A

total body water

1134
Q

Peds Higher ratio of body — to body —

A

surface area ; weight

1135
Q

Hypotension: SBP NB <—

A

60

1136
Q

Hypotension: SBP 1year <—

A

70

1137
Q

Hypotension: SBP >1yr —

A

70+(agex2)

1138
Q

Peds ETT Diameter:

A

4 + Age /4 (uncuffed) = -.5(cuffed)

1139
Q

Peds ETT Length:

A

10 + age/2

1140
Q

Wt in kg NN-5: size LMA and ETT

A

LMA: 1 and ETT: 3.5

1141
Q

Wt in kg 5-10: size LMA and ETT

A

LMA: 1.5 and ETT: 4.0

1142
Q

Wt in kg 10-20: size LMA and ETT

A

LMA: 2 and ETT: 4.5

1143
Q

Wt in kg 20-30: size LMA and ETT

A

LMA: 2.5 and ETT: 5.0

1144
Q

Wt in kg >30: size LMA and ETT

A

LMA: 3 and ETT: 6

1145
Q

French Suction Catheter: neonate

A

8 Fr

1146
Q

French Suction Catheter: 2mths - 2yrs

A

10 fr

1147
Q

French Suction Catheter: 2-12 yrs

A

14 Fr

1148
Q

Precordial Stethoscope: — intercostal — of sternal border

A

3rd-4th ; left

1149
Q

Propofol
< 2 y.o = IV induction — mg/kg.

A

3-4

1150
Q

Propofol
>2 y.o. = — mg/kg

A

2.5-3

1151
Q

Peds Propofol
— mg/kg/min GA

A

200-300

1152
Q

Peds Midazolam
IV dose = —mg/kg
PO dose= — mg/kg

A

0.05 ; 0.5 to 0.75

1153
Q

Peds Flumazenil
IV — mg/kg → — mg total

A

0.05 ; 1

1154
Q

Peds thiopental
—mg/kg

A

4-6

1155
Q

Peds Succinylcholine = ↑ intubate dose
IV —mg/kg
IM — mg/kg

A

2-3 ; 4

1156
Q

Peds NDMR dose

A

Same dose as adults

1157
Q

Less than — weeks post conceptual = > risk of post anesthesia comp

A

60

1158
Q

Elective surgery: at least — weeks post conception

A

60

1159
Q

—: vasoconstriction of retinal vessels- leading to permanent scarring, blindness and retinal detach

A

ROP- retinopathy of prematurity

1160
Q

ROP- retinopathy of prematurity: most likely < — (post conception)

A

44 weeks

1161
Q

ROP- retinopathy of prematurity:
Causes: 4

A

Hyperoxia, hypercarbia, Hotn, Sepsis Maintain
PaO2 60-80mmHg O2 sats 89-94%,

1162
Q

—: Recurrent pauses in ventilation no longer 5-10 seconds. During REM sleep not associated with any physiologic disorder.

A

Periodic breathing

1163
Q

—: Unexplained cessation of breathing > 15 sec or shorter resp pauses w/ HR < 100, cyanosis, pallor or loss of muscle tone.

A

Central Apnea

1164
Q

Central Apnea has highest risk in premies. Most important risk of —.

A

Postop apnea

1165
Q

MOA of foramen ovale: 2

A
  1. Decrease PVR and increase pulmonary flow
  2. Increase SVR = increase L vent = increase LAP
1166
Q

MOA of ductus arteriosus: 2

A
  1. Increase PaO2 and decrease prostaglandins
  2. Increase SVR and decrease PVR
1167
Q

Function foramen ovale closure:

A

Rapidly after birth

1168
Q

Anatomical closure of foramen ovale:

A

3-12 mths

1169
Q

Functional closure of PDA:

A

2-4 days

1170
Q

Anatomical closure of PDA:

A

1-4 mths

1171
Q

Foramen ovale problem:

A

Cyanosis

1172
Q

Ductus arteriosus problem:

A

Increase work of L side of heart - L ventricular hypertrophy

1173
Q

Foramen ovale: IV induction time

A

Faster

1174
Q

Foramen ovale: inhalational induction time

A

Slower

1175
Q

Ductus arteriosus: IV induction time

A

Slower

1176
Q

Ductus arteriosus: inhalational induction time

A

Faster

1177
Q

RAP — LAP (causes of return or continuation of fetal circulation)

A

>

1178
Q

RAP > LAP: 5 problems

A
  1. Hypoxia
  2. Hypercarbia
  3. Acidosis
  4. Hypothermic
  5. Coughing, bucking & Valsalva
1179
Q

RAP>LAP: — underestimates AaCO2

A

ETCO2

1180
Q

RAP > LAP: Preductal Monitoring :

A

Right Hand or Finger

1181
Q

RAP > LAP: Postductal monitoring:

A

Left foot or toe

1182
Q

RAP > LAP: ABG’s best obtained from —

A

Right Artery

1183
Q

—: Narrowing of the descending aorta.

A

Neonatal Coarctation of the Aorta

1184
Q

Neonatal Coarctation of the Aorta: If severe – perfusion is dependent on open — shunt. — use to maintain patency

A

PDA; PGE1

1185
Q

Neonatal Coarctation of the Aorta: BP monitoring in —

A

Right Radial artery

1186
Q

—: Foramen of Bochdaleck or anterior foreman of Morgagni
Larger on left & 90% of diaphragmatic hernias on left.

A

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH)

1187
Q

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH): Larger on — & 90% of diaphragmatic hernias on —.

A

left ; left

1188
Q

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH): Maintain preductal saturation > — w/ PIP < — cm H2O

A

85 ; 25

1189
Q

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH):
Keep them —, — stomach and avoid barotrauma

A

breathing ; Decompress

1190
Q

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH): — shunt – monitor pre and post ductal perfusion

A

R to L

1191
Q

Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH): problems: 3

A

Cyanosis, Dyspnea & Dextrocardia

1192
Q

4 issues with Tetralogy of Fallot:

A
  1. Large single ventricular septal defect
  2. Aorta that overrides the right & left ventricles
  3. Obstruction to right ventricular outflow
  4. Right ventricular hypertrophy
1193
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot: — shunt

A

RIGHT to left

1194
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot Goals: 2

A

maintain volume status and SVR (need to ↑ = NEO)

1195
Q

—: Most common form ends in blind pouch & lower esophagus that connects to trachea – C (then B & E)
Associated with VACERTL syndrome
Principle cause of death = pulmonary complications

A

TEF: Tracheoesophageal Fistula

1196
Q

TEF: Tracheoesophageal Fistula: — secretions and No — prior to intubation

A

↑ ; PPV

1197
Q

—: Infants: projectile vomiting & visible peristalsis Adults: Peptic ulcer scarring

A

Pyloric Stenosis

1198
Q

Pyloric Stenosis: problems 3

A
  1. Hyperchorlemic metabolic alkalosis- ↓Cl, K, Na, Ca
  2. ↑ Aldosterone secretion
  3. Cleft palates & esophageal reflux
1199
Q

Pyloric Stenosis: Anesthetic Considerations: 3

A

correct electrolytes, rehydration, OG

1200
Q

Is pyloric stenosis a surgical or medical emergency?

A

Medical

1201
Q

Pyloric stenosis: post op complication

A

Respiratory depression

1202
Q

Down’s syndrome (trisomy 21) Concerns: 3

A
  1. Difficult intubation: use small than usual ETT
    (Large tongue Short neck Small mouth)
  2. Neck flexion- Cervical spine dislocation- antlanto-occipt (Instability & Weak ligaments)
  3. Congenital heart disease (40% incidence)
1203
Q

Which is more common: omphalocele or gastroschisis

A

Omphalocele

1204
Q

Location of omphalocele:

A

Base of umbilicus

1205
Q

Location of gastroschisis:

A

Lateral to umbilicus

1206
Q

Anomalies with omphalocele:

A

Yes, cardiac

1207
Q

Anomalies seen with gastroschisis:

A

No

1208
Q

Omphalocele presence of sac:

A

Yes

1209
Q

Gastroschisis presence of sac:

A

No

1210
Q

3 concerns with gastroschisis:

A

Infection, hypothermia, and hydration

1211
Q

Omphalocele and gastroschisis: steps 4

A
  1. Decompress stomach with tube
  2. No nitrous
  3. Hydrate 8-16ml/kg/hr
  4. If PIP >25-30 cmH2O
1212
Q

Which is emergency: epiglottis or croup?

A

Epiglottis

1213
Q

Onset of epiglottis:

A

Rapid, 24 hrs

1214
Q

Onset of croup:

A

Gradual 24-72 hrs

1215
Q

Radiograph sign of epiglottis:

A

Thumb (swollen)

1216
Q

Radiograph sign of croup:

A

Steeple (narrow)

1217
Q

Age with epiglottis:

A

1-7 year old

1218
Q

Age with croup:

A

Most < 2yrs

1219
Q

Cause of epiglottis:

A

Haemophilius B-flu

1220
Q

Cause of croup:

A

Cold (viral)

1221
Q

Fever with epiglottis:

A

Yes - high

1222
Q

Fever with croup:

A

Low grade

1223
Q

Respiratory with epiglottis:

A

Inspiratory stridor

1224
Q

Respiratory with croup:

A

Croupy cough “bark” with inspiratory stridor

1225
Q

Tube size with epiglottis:

A

1/2 size small with leak

1226
Q

Tube size with croup:

A

1/2 size smaller

1227
Q

Tx with epiglottis:

A

Ampicillin &/or vaccine before 2 yrs

1228
Q

Tx with croup:

A

Epi neb, O2, cool humid, steroids

1229
Q

Anesthesia with epiglottis: 2

A

-do not attempt to visualize glottis
-sedate while sitting

1230
Q

Anesthesia with croup: 3

A

-intubate if high PaCO2
-epi neb-2.25% in 3ml
-NS @ 0.05ml/kg up to 0.5ml/kg Q 1-4hr

1231
Q

—: Hereditary disease of exocrine glands of resp and GI

A

Cystic Fibrosis

1232
Q

Cystic fibrosis: Cl- transport — w/ — Na & H2O transport
— Thickness of secretions= avoid antisialogogues
— RV & airway resistance, — VC & exp flow rate

A

↓ ; ↓ ; ↑ ; ↑ ; ↓

1233
Q

Cystic fibrosis: No — secondary to increase secretions

A

ketamine

1234
Q

—: Most common surgical emergency in the neonate. Decreased mesenteric blood flow = ischemia → intestinal mucosal injury

A

Necrotizing enterocolitis

1235
Q

Necrotizing enterocolitis: — @ > risk for developing

A

Premature infants

1236
Q

— is most common pediatric surgical emergency

A

Foreign body aspiration

1237
Q

—- abn fusion of embryologic neural groove

A

Neural Tube Defect

1238
Q

—: herniation of brain & meninges through defect in skull producing a fluid filled sac

A

Encephalocele

1239
Q

—: hernia protrusion of a saclike cyst of meninges filled w/ CSF & no neurological deficits

A

Meningocele

1240
Q

—: (spina bifida) hernial protrusion of saclike cyst containing meninges, CSF & portion of spinal cord

A

Myelomeningeocele

1241
Q

Encephalocele, Meningocele, Myelomeningocele: — precautions & — is key

A

LATEX ; Positioning

1242
Q

—: Nerves blocked: ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric

A

Inguinal hernia

1243
Q

— is neuroprotective for global ischemia in neonates

A

Hyperglycemia

1244
Q

Tonsillectomy:↑ Blood loss- — ml/kg

A

4

1245
Q

Tonsillectomy: 3 complications:

A

bleeding, laryngospasm & emesis

1246
Q

NPO Guidelines: Solid Food

A

8

1247
Q

NPO Guidelines: Commercial Formula/Milk

A

6

1248
Q

NPO Guidelines: Breast Milk

A

4

1249
Q

NPO Guidelines: Clear Liquids

A

2

1250
Q

Mendelsons Syndrome: Volume > — ml/kg or pH <—

A

0.4 ; 2.5

1251
Q

Peds Regional Anesthesia: CSF volume — of adults = dilution of LA = — dosing & — DOA

A

x2 ; ↑ ; ↓

1252
Q

High spinal – decreasing — #1 sign

A

oxygen saturation

1253
Q

Caudal: tip of — to fix the midline & sacral — on either side of sacral —

A

coccyx ; cornua ; hiatus

1254
Q

— LA is not metabolize in the NN

A

Mepivicaine

1255
Q

Peds Regional Anesthesia: — determines height of block

A

Volume

1256
Q

Regional Anesthesia: Caudal: —ml/kg analgesia T4-T6- concentration no > 2.5 mg/kg

A

1.2-1.5

1257
Q

Regional Anesthesia: Epidural Blood Patch: —ml/kg

A

0.3

1258
Q

Laryngospasm: 3 steps in peds

A
  1. CPAP- 10-15cm H2O
  2. atropine 0.02mg/kg
  3. Succs 1mg/kg IV or 4mg/kg IM
1259
Q

Maternal Physiological & Physical Changes: Cardiac:
— CO, SV, HR, LVEDV, EF, Femoral venous pressure — PVR, MAP, SBP, DBP, SVR, PADP, PCWP

A

↑; ↓

1260
Q

Maternal Physiological & Physical Changes: Cardiac:
— ↑ the most immediately post-partum

A

CO

1261
Q

Maternal Physiological & Physical Changes: Cardiac:
↑ — & — x12

A

Renin & angiotensin II

1262
Q

Maternal Physiological & Physical Changes: Respiratory: ↑ Alveolar vent & ↓ FRC = — inhalation agent uptake & — MAC

A

↑ ; ↓

1263
Q

Maternal Physiological & Physical Changes: Respiratory: Respiratory — CO2 = —

A

Alkalosis ; 30

1264
Q

Maternal Physiological & Physical Changes: GI:
Metabolic — – HCO3 = —

A

Acidosis ; 20

1265
Q

Maternal Physiological & Physical Changes: GI: ↑ Gastric emptying time &↓ LES secondary to ↑ —

A

progesterone

1266
Q

Maternal Physiological & Physical Changes: Renal:
— RBF & GFR (50%) → — BUN & serum creatinine
↑ Kidney size & weight & ureters and renal pelvis dilates
— & — common

A

↑ ; ↓ ; Glucosuria & proteinuria

1267
Q

Relative — maternal anemia

A

hemodilutional

1268
Q

Maternal Physiological & Physical Changes: Hemostasis: Hgb > — w/PIH or HTN = low volume

A

14

1269
Q

Maternal Physiological & Physical Changes: Hemostasis: — Blood volume, plasma volume, RBC, Hbg — Hct —, ↑ Factors —, —, —, —, —, —

A

↑ ; Hbg 11.5 Hct 35.5 , 1, 7, 8, 9, 10,12

1270
Q

Maternal Physiological & Physical Changes: Hemostasis: No change in —, —, —, and —

A

2 & 5, platelets, bleeding time

1271
Q

Maternal Physiological & Physical Changes: Hemostasis: Shortened or ↓: 4

A

PT, PTT, AT, Factors 11

1272
Q

Maternal Physiological & Physical Changes: Hemostasis: —, —, and — that are greater than twice the normal value represents a high-risk state that should be corrected prior to initiating a neuraxial anesthetic.

A

PT, PTT, and bleeding times

1273
Q

Platelet < — too low to perform a neuraxial anesthetic

A

100,000

1274
Q

Maternal Physiological & Physical Changes: Anesthetic considerations w/ Δ: Do not — = ↓ maternal alkalosis = ↓ — blood flow

A

hyperventilated ; uterine

1275
Q

Maternal Physiological & Physical Changes: Anesthetic considerations w/ Δ: GA = RSI — gestation to — of postpartum

A

8 wk. ; 6 week

1276
Q

Most common cause of maternal death during GA =

A

Hemorrhage

1277
Q

Most common cause of maternal death with anesthesia =

A

Airway issues

1278
Q

Maternal Physiological & Physical Changes: Anesthetic considerations w/ Δ: — MAC & — sensitivity to LA

A

↓ ; ↑

1279
Q

DO NOT give — to PIH/HELLP parturient

A

esmolol

1280
Q

Maternal — & fetal — = ↑ fetal ion trapping

A

alkalosis ; acidosis

1281
Q

— receptors: relaxes smooth muscles & stops contractions via activation of adenylyl cyclase = ↑ cAMP = myometrial relaxation

A

β2

1282
Q

Tocolytics 2

A

Methergine
Hemabate

1283
Q

Uterine Blood Flow:

A

800ml/min (10% maternal CO)

1284
Q

Uterine Blood Flow:↓ Perfusion pressure: 6

A

supine, hemorrhage/hypovolemia, HoTN, contractions, sz, Valsalva

1285
Q

Uterine Blood Flow:↑ Uterine Vascular resistance: 2

A

catecholamines, vasopress

1286
Q

Maternal — is only factor influence blood flow through placenta

A

BP

1287
Q

uterine blood flow is — autoregulated

A

NOT

1288
Q

— receptors predominate uterine vasculature

A

α adrenergic

1289
Q

Greatest risk to fetus from Maternal issues: 3

A

Severe hypoxia, HoTN, acidosis

1290
Q

Three layers in placental membrane:

A
  1. Fetal trophoblasts
  2. Cytotrophoblasts
  3. Syncytiotrophoblasts
1291
Q

Placental Transfer of Drugs: 4

A
  1. Concentration gradient
  2. Molecular weight of drugs – MW < 500 = easier transfer
  3. Lipid solubility- lipids soluble drugs = easier crossing
  4. Ionization – ions inhibited
1292
Q

—: Compression inferior vena cava = ↓ venous return = ↓ SV & Hotn

A

Maternal supine hypotensive syndrome

1293
Q

Maternal supine hypotensive syndrome: tx:

A

LUD (i.e Right hip up) 15degrees

1294
Q

—: Regular uterine contractions until cervix fully dilated.

A

First stage

1295
Q

—- Cervical effacement 2-3 cm

A

Latent

1296
Q

— – frequent contractions 3-5 mins & dilatation is 4 cm in a primiparous patient & 3 cm in a multiparous patient.

A

Active

1297
Q

—: From the end of the first stage until the delivery of the baby is completed.

A

Second stage

1298
Q

—: From the delivery of the baby until the placenta and the membranes are expelled.

A

Third stage

1299
Q

—: excessive amniotic fluid around unborn infant

A

Polyhydramnios

1300
Q

First stage: uterine contractions & cervical dilatation. Pain travels via — fibers accompanying sympathetic nerves.

A

visceral afferent

1301
Q

Pain Pathways for Stages of Labor: First stage: Enter cord at —&— → —,—,—,— spinal segments. —-Fibers

A

T11 & T12 ; T10, T11, T12, & L1 ; C

1302
Q

Second stage: Caused by distention of lower vagina, vulva, and perineum. Pain travels via the — nerves

A

Pudendal

1303
Q

Pain Pathways for Stages of Labor: Second stage: enters the cord at —,—,— sacral segments. (— dermatomes)

A

S2, S3, & S4 ; T10-S4

1304
Q

NO —: they inhibit uterine contractions & promote closure of the fetal DA.

A

NSAID

1305
Q

Early Decelerations (Type —)

A

1

1306
Q

Late Decelerations (Type —)

A

II

1307
Q

—:
Etiology: head compression or stretching of neck during uterine contractions.
Start & end w/ contraction & UNIFORM

A

Early Decelerations (Type 1)

1308
Q

Early Decelerations (Type 1): Mild decrease in FHR < — BPM

A

20

1309
Q

—:
Etiology: uteroplacental insufficiency & fetal compromise w/ ↓ HR
Onset: begin or near end of contraction
Uniform in appearance + or - variability

A

Late Decelerations (Type II)

1310
Q

Late Decelerations (Type II): SEVERE: if FHR > — BPM

A

45

1311
Q

—:
Etiology: cord compression
Nonuniform with variable waveform
Typically associated with fetal asphyxia
when: > 60 bpm FRH, duration > 60
seconds or pattern persists > 30 mins

A

Variable Decelerations

1312
Q

Variable Decelerations: Severe: FHR ↓ — by BPM, FHR < — BPM or decels — secs +

A

60 ; 60 ; 60

1313
Q

Fetal bradycardia & late decelerations = —

A

fetal hypoxia (asphyxia)

1314
Q

Obstetrics & Regional Anesthesia:
SAB ↓ dose by —% d/t ↓ epidural space secondary to venous congestion &/or progesterone-induced sensitivity

A

25

1315
Q

Obstetrics & Regional Anesthesia:
Most common S/E = —

A

Hotn

1316
Q

—: used during 1st stage of labor when traditional neuraxial analgesia is contraindicated

A

Paravertebral lumbar sympathetic block

1317
Q

—: quickly metabolized no opportunity to accumulate in any significant amount.

A

Chloroprocaine

1318
Q

—: 1/3 less motor block than bupivacaine & causes less CNS & cardiac toxicity, 0.08-0.15% can be administered via an epidural catheter at a rate of 8-12 mL/hour to provide continuous analgesia during labor

A

Ropivacaine

1319
Q

— level sufficient for caesarean section

A

T4

1320
Q

Injuries:
Dorsiflex to foot= — nerve

A

common peroneal

1321
Q

Injuries:
Loss of sensation to lateral thigh = — nerve

A

lateral femoral cutaneous

1322
Q

Injuries:
Most common nerve injury during ab hyster= — nerve

A

femoral

1323
Q

Injuries:
Nerve injury most common w/ vaginal delivery= —

A

lumbosacral

1324
Q

Spotty spinal: 5 helpful things

A
  1. 2.5mg diazepam up to 10mg IV
  2. Fentanyl 1μg/kg IV
  3. 40% N2O
  4. 0.25mg/kg ketamine IV
  5. 10-20ml 0.5% lidocaine intraperitoneally
1325
Q

Morphine intrathecal and epidural dose:

A

Intrathecal: 0.5-1mg and epidural: 7.5-10mg

1326
Q

Meperidine intrathecal and epidural dose:

A

Intrathecal: 10-20mg and epidural: 100mg

1327
Q

Fentanyl intrathecal and epidural dose:

A

Intrathecal: 10-25 mcg and epidural: 50-100 mcg

1328
Q

Sufentanil intrathecal and epidural dose:

A

Intrathecal: 3-10mcg and epidural: 10-30mcg

1329
Q

—: Placed through sacrospinous ligament- via Transvaginal approach

A

Pudendal block

1330
Q

— block: 2nd stage of labor

A

Pudendal block

1331
Q

Pudendal block risk:

A

hitting the scalp

1332
Q

—: Anesthetizing nerve fibers innervate uterus, cervix, upper vagina. Submucosally in the vagina @ 3 & 9’oclock

A

Paracervical block

1333
Q

— block: 1st stage of labor

A

Paracervical block

1334
Q

Paracervical block risk:

A

Fetal Brady (33%)

1335
Q

Signs of Fetal distress: 7

A
  1. Repetitive late decelerations
  2. Loss of beat to beat variability associate w/ late or deep decels
  3. Sustained FHR < 80 BPM
  4. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
  5. Oligohydramnois
  6. Fetal Scalp pH < 7.2
  7. IUGR
1336
Q

—: Inadequate uterine contractions following delivery

A

Uterine Atony

1337
Q

Uterine Atony risk factors: 7

A

multiple gestations, fetal marosomia, prolonged/rapid labor, tocyotlitcs, VA, retained placenta, chorioamniotis

1338
Q

—: One of the most common infections during pregnancy

A

Chorioaminoitis

1339
Q

Chorioaminoitis: Based on S/S: Temp > — = CARDINAL symptom

A

38

1340
Q

—: May lead to fetal hypoxia

A

Uterine Cord Prolapse

1341
Q

—: Dx: sudden fetal bradycardia or profound decels w/ physical exam

A

Uterine Cord Prolapse

1342
Q

Uterine Cord Prolapse: tx:

A

immediate steep trendelenburg or knee to chest position

1343
Q

Placenta Previa:- is there pain?

A

No pain

1344
Q

Placental Abruption: is there pain?

A

Yes, pain

1345
Q

—: The partial or total covering of the cervical os by the placenta

A

Placenta Previa

1346
Q

Placenta Previa:↑ incidence of asymmetric —

A

IUGR (intrauterine growth restriction)

1347
Q

—: Separation of the placenta from deciduas basalias before delivery

A

Placental Abruption

1348
Q

Placental Abruption tx:

A

Delivery of fetus

1349
Q

—: placenta adheres to the surface of the myometrium w/o invasion or passage through uterine muscle

A

Placenta accrete

1350
Q

Placenta accrete is the most common indication for — surgery.

A

Hysterectomy

1351
Q

—: refers to placental implantation within the myometrium (confined to myometrium)

A

Placenta increta

1352
Q

—: refers to the condition where the placenta completely penetrates the myometrium or other pelvic structures

A

Placenta percreta

1353
Q

3rd cause of death in pregnant pts?

A

Amniotic fluid embolism (AFE)

1354
Q

—: Amniotic fluids into maternal circulation

A

Amniotic fluid embolism (AFE)

1355
Q

— S/S: tachypnea, cyanosis, shock, generalized bleeding, ↓ CO, acute PE, uterine atony, ARDS, arrhythmias, bleeding, SZ

A

Amniotic fluid embolism (AFE)

1356
Q

Amniotic fluid embolism (AFE) Tx: 3

A

aggressive cardioplulamony resuscitation, stabilization, fast delivery

1357
Q

—: Uterine wall defect resulting in fetal distress or maternal hemorrhage

A

Uterine Rupture

1358
Q

Uterine Rupture Risk Factors: 5

A

prior C-section, uterine scar, trauma, forces, hard labor

1359
Q

Most diagnostic sign for Uterine Rupture =

A

fetal distress- loss of fetal heart tones

1360
Q

Uterine Rupture s/s:

A

Continuous abdominal pain & Hotn (↑ in VBAC)

1361
Q

Uterine Rupture tx:

A

volume resuscitation & immediate laparotomy & hyster poss

1362
Q

Pregnancy Induced Hypertension: (↑ —)

A

thromboxane A2

1363
Q

Pregnancy Induced Hypertension: — = ↓ CI & ↓ blood volume

A

HTN

1364
Q

Pregnancy Induced Hypertension: —= HTN w/o edema or proteinuria

A

Gestational hypertension

1365
Q

Pregnancy Induced Hypertension: —= HTN w/proteinuria and edema during pregnancy

A

Preeclampsia

1366
Q

Pregnancy Induced Hypertension: —= preeclamptic patient w/ sz

A

Eclampsia

1367
Q

Pregnancy Induced Hypertension: —= form of preeclampsia characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and a low platelet count.

A

HELLP

1368
Q

S/S Severe pregnancy induced HTN:

A
  1. BP 160/110
  2. Proteinuria increase 5 g/day
  3. Oliguria, < 500 ml/day
  4. Pulmonary edema
  5. Hepatic tenderness or HELLP syndrome
  6. CNS: HA, visual disturbances, or seizures
1369
Q

Complications that necessitate pregnancy induced HTN delivery:
SBP >/= — or DBP >/= — – 24-48 hrs

A

160 ; 110

1370
Q

Complications of pregnancy induced HTN:
1. —- #1 death
2. Renal failure
3. DIC
4. —- #2 death
5. Cerebral edema
6. Airway obstruction

A

Cerebral hemorrhage ; Pulmonary edema

1371
Q

—: MOA: ↓ presynaptic release of AcH & ↓ post synaptic sensitivity preeclamptic patients & works @ NMDA → ↓ SVR & ↑ CI

A

Magnesium

1372
Q

—: Beneficial: Anticonvulsant, vasodilatation, ↑ UBF, ↑ RBF, ↑ prostacyclin, ↓ ACE, ↓ renin activity, tocolytic & bronchodilitation

A

Magnesium

1373
Q

Magnesium IV load = — over 15-20 mins → —g/hr IV gtt

A

4g ; 1-4

1374
Q

—: drug of choice sz prophylaxis in PIH

A

Magnesium

1375
Q

Tx for Mg overdose : —

A

Calcium Gluconate

1376
Q

—: useful in pregnancy—mainstay, decrease BP increase Uteroplacental BF

A

Hydralazine

1377
Q

Heart Disease in the Parturient:
—: -mitral valve dz, aortic insufficiency, L to R shunt -Regional Anesthesia: especially continuous epidural -NEO

A

Group One

1378
Q

Heart Disease in the Parturient:
—: AS, R to L shunt, primary pulm HTN, Regional anesthesia CONTRAINDICATED

A

Group Two

1379
Q

Four findings that suggest DIC:

A
  1. Thrombocytopenia
  2. Prolonged PT
  3. Prolonged PTT products
  4. Decrease Serum fibrinogen, increase Fibrin split
1380
Q

DIC is associate with 3 OB problems:

A
  1. retention of dead fetus
  2. Placental abruption
  3. AFE
1381
Q

Lab Tests for —:
Plasma fibrinogen <150 mg/dL
Plasma fibrinogen <50,000/mm3
Thrombin time >100 sec
Prothrombin time >100 sec
Partial thromboplastin >100 sec
Fibrin split products >200 mcg/ml
Red blood cell fragment Yes

A

DIC

1382
Q

Geriatrics:
Progressive loss of functional reserve in ALL organ systems
1 % decline each year after — years old

A

30

1383
Q

Geriatrics: A-A gradient: >/= —

A

20 (normal 8)

1384
Q

Geriatric System Changes
Cardiac: fx declines —% (20-80 y.o)

A

50

1385
Q

Geriatric System Changes
Cardiac: increase, decrease, or no change :
left ventricular wall thickness, LVH d/t chronic ↑ afterload, left ventricular wall tension (law of Laplace), afterload, cardiac workload 2nd to ↓ aortic compliance - AC, SBP, PVR, Circulation time, conduction fibrosis, dysrhythmias, SA node cell loss, Vagal tone – d/t ↓ sensitivity of adrenergic receptors, systolic

A

Increase

1386
Q

Geriatric System Changes
Cardiac: increase, decrease, or no change:
cardiac reserve, CO –d/t ↑ in AL, CI, HR, left ventricular compliance, chronotropic & inotropic responses, baroreceptor fx, adrenergic sensitivity

A

Decrease

1387
Q

Geriatric System Changes
Cardiac: increase, decrease, or no change:
DBP, resting systolic fx, excitation-contraction coupling, ionized Ca levels, contractile proteins, SV

A

No change

1388
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Respiratory: Obstructive or Restrictive

A

Restrictive

1389
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Respiratory: increase, decrease, or no change :
vocal cord stimulation for closure, airway obstruction, risk of aspiration, pulmonary complications, physiologic dead space, WOB, potential for hypoxia, FRB, Closing volume and Closing capacity, alveolar compliance, resp depression w/opioids, collagen PaCO2-PACO2 gradient d/t V/Q mismatch, VD/VT

A

Increase

1390
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Respiratory: increase, decrease, or no change:
elastin fibers, tissue elasticity, lung recoil, ability to cough, chest wall compliance – kyphosis, VC, ERV, IRV, response to hypoxia & hypercarbia, protective reflexed, cervical spine & TMJ mobility, ease of mask ventilation, PaO2 (0.4mmHg/yr. after 20)

A

Decrease

1391
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Respiratory: increase, decrease, or no change :
PaCO2, PAO2

A

No change

1392
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Respiratory:
CC—FRC @ 44 y.o
CC — FRC @ 66yo

A

= ; >

1393
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Respiratory: Closing volume is —% of VC in the young & —% in the elderly

A

10 ; 40

1394
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Respiratory: PAO2-PaO2 gradient = equation

A

0.21 (age +2.5)

1395
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Respiratory: PaO2 = equation

A

102-Age/3

1396
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Endocrine: increase or decrease :
Insulin resistance, heat loss

A

Increase

1397
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Endocrine: increase or decrease :
heat production, hypothalamic temp regulation

A

Decrease

1398
Q

Geriatric System Changes: GI/Hepatobiliary: increase, decrease, or no change :
gastric pH, AAG-1 (↑ binding of basic-LA, opioids)

A

Increase

1399
Q

Geriatric System Changes: GI/Hepatobiliary: increase, decrease, or no change :
liver mass, HBF, liver fx, biotransformation, albumin production, PCHE – MEN, gastric emptying, plasma clearance

A

Decrease

1400
Q

Geriatric System Changes: GI/Hepatobiliary: increase, decrease, or no change :
Hepatocellular fx

A

No change

1401
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Nervous System: increase, decrease, or no change :
skeletal muscle atrophy, degeneration of peripheral nerve cells, Threshold –proprioceptor, hearing, temp thresh, touch thresh, vision thresh, CSF, cerebral cortex neuron loss, SNS

A

Increase

1402
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Nervous System: increase, decrease, or no change :
CBF, intracranial volume, gray matter, brain mass, skeletal muscle steadiness-strength-control, conduction velocity, response to β

A

Decrease

1403
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Nervous System: increase, decrease, or no change :
Auto regulation

A

No change

1404
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Renal: increase, decrease, or no change:
BUN, ADH response to hypertonic saline load (caution w/fluids), ability to develop hyper/hypo kalemia

A

Increase

1405
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Renal: increase, decrease, or no change:
kidney mass, RBF d/t ↓CO (50%), renal plasma flow, GFR, renal fx, muscle mass, creatinine production, fluid handling (prone to fluid overload), Na handling, concentrating ability, response to ADH, response to aldosterone

A

Decrease

1406
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Renal: increase, decrease, or no change:
serum creatinine

A

No change

1407
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Pharmacology: increase, decrease, or no change:
circulation time, body fat, Vd for lipids, recovery of VA

A

Increase

1408
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Pharmacology: increase, decrease, or no change:
muscle mass, body head production, core body temp, basal metabolic requirements, MAC, Total body water, Vd for water soluble drugs, dosing for barbs– opioid antagonists– benzos

A

Decrease

1409
Q

— is most sensitive indicator of renal fx in elderly

A

Creatine Clearance

1410
Q

Creatine Clearance fx in elderly —ml/min @ y.o

A

70

1411
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Thermoregulation: > 80 shivering @ — vs. younger pt. at —

A

35 degrees ; 36.1 degrees

1412
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Pharmacology: increase, decrease, or no change
Atropine, Isoproterenol & other Beta agonists

A

Increase

1413
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Pharmacology: increase, decrease, or no change
Thiopental, Propofol, Etomidate, Midazolam, Opioids, remifentanil, pan, vec, roc, succ

A

Decrease

1414
Q

Decrease opioids and midazolam by —% in elderly pts.

A

50

1415
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Pharmacology: increase, decrease, or no change:
atracurium, neostigmine, Edrophonium

A

No change

1416
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Pharmacology: — responsiveness secondary to↓receptor affinity & alterations in signal conduction -↓cAMP

A

Beta receptor

1417
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Preoperative concern: 5

A

Heart> renal> hepatic > pulm > multi- DM

1418
Q

Geriatric System Changes: postop concern: 2

A

Heart and lungs

1419
Q

Geriatric System Changes: IV induction = —

A

SLOWER

1420
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Inhalation Induction= —

A

FASTER

1421
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Postop Delierum: @ risk: > — yrs, hx of delirium, etoh abuse, narcotic

A

70

1422
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Postop Delierum: greatest with — procedures.

A

Orthopedic

1423
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Geriatric & Regional:
— Cmin for LA

A

1424
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Geriatric & Regional: SAB
—DOA —Sensory block — Dose

A

↑ ; ↑ ; ↓

1425
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Geriatric & Regional: Epidural
— DOA, — Motor Block, — segment dose, — volume cephalad spread

A

↓ ; ↓ ; ↓; ↑

1426
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Geriatric & Regional: — for TURPS

A

T8

1427
Q

Geriatric System Changes: Geriatric & Regional: cysto SAB @ —

A

T10

1428
Q

Similarities of Neonates to Geriatrics:

A

1.↓ ability to ↑ HR 2nd to hypovolemia
2.↓ arterial O2 tension
3. impaired ability to cough
4.↓ renal tubular function
5.↑ susceptibility to hypothermia

1429
Q

— (Aka: —): premature aging

A

Progeria ; Hutchinson-Gilford Syndrome

1430
Q

Progeria (Hutchinson-Gilford Syndrome): average death is — y.o.

A

13

1431
Q

Progeria (Hutchinson-Gilford Syndrome): Airway effects: 3

A

mandibular hypoplasia, micrognathia, glottis opening is narrow

1432
Q

Progeria (Hutchinson-Gilford Syndrome): Anesthesia concerns: 2

A

organ systems fx, positioning

1433
Q

—: Deposition of amyloid beta peptides produces neuritic plaques & neurofibrillary tangles= ↓ NT fx & death of neurons.

A

Alzheimer’s

1434
Q

Alzheimer’s: The — system and — are most affected.

A

limbic ; cortex

1435
Q

Alzheimer’s: Tx:

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors: rivastigmine, donepazil, & Galantamine

1436
Q

Alzheimer’s: Anesthesia/Pharm:
-Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors may have a ↑ DOA w/ —
-Anticholinergic – Use — is blood brain
-May be resistance to — d/t use of acetylcholinesterase inhibiting drugs

A

succs; glycopyrrolate ; NDMR

1437
Q

Obesity
Values:
BMI < 18.5 = —

A

Underweight

1438
Q

Obesity
Values:
BMI 18.5 -24.9 = —

A

Normal

1439
Q

Obesity
Values:
BMI 25-29.9 = —

A

Overweight

1440
Q

Obesity
Values:
BMI 40-49.9 = —

A

Extreme obesity

1441
Q

Obesity
Values:
BMI 30-39.9 = —

A

Obesity

1442
Q

Obesity
Values:
BMI 50-59.9 = —

A

Superobesity

1443
Q

Obesity
Values:
BMI 60+ = —

A

Super super obesity

1444
Q

IBW = equation

A

ht in cm – 100 (m) or 105 (f)

1445
Q

1 in = — cm

A

2.54

1446
Q

BMI = equation

A

kg/m2

1447
Q

BMI > — is cut off for ambulatory surgery center

A

35- 40

1448
Q

Obesity: cardiac: increase, decrease, or no change:
CO, Blood Volume (50ml/kg), incidence of HTN

A

Increase

1449
Q

Obesity: cardiac: — ♥ effects: polycythemia, pulmonary & systemic vasoconstriction, ↑ risk for ischemic heart dz & cerebrovascular dz, & RHF, cardiomegaly, CHF

A

OSA

1450
Q

Obesity: cardiac: EKG changes: — ventricular hypertrophy and — atrial enlargement

A

Left ; left

1451
Q

Obesity: Extra — L/min of CO for each additional kilogram of fat.

A

0.1

1452
Q

Obesity: Respiratory: increase, decrease, or no change:
Diaphragm, O2 consumption, CO2 production, WOB, RR, Hypoxemia

A

Increase

1453
Q

Obesity: Respiratory: increase, decrease, or no change:
ERV, IC, FRC, VC, PaO2, chest wall compliance

A

Decrease

1454
Q

Obesity: Respiratory: increase, decrease, or no change:
PFT’s, lung compliance

A

No change

1455
Q

Obesity: obstructive or restrictive respiratory?

A

Restrictive

1456
Q

Obesity: renal: increase, decrease, or no change:
GFR renal tubular resorption, impaired Na+ excretion = worse HTN

A

Increase

1457
Q

Obesity: renal: increase, decrease, or no change:
RBF

A

No change

1458
Q

Obesity: Endocrine:
—- activates SNS = Na retention = ↑ HTN

A

Hyperinsulinemia

1459
Q

Obesity: — single best predictor of difficult airway

A

Neck circumference

1460
Q

Obesity: ↑ — nerve injury

A

Brachial plexus

1461
Q

Obesity: Appetite suppressant – — = catecholamine depletion

A

SSRI’s

1462
Q

Obesity: Regional:— LA dose by 20% secondary to vascular engorgement of the epidural space, the level and onset of an epidural block can be —

A

↓; unpredictable

1463
Q

Obesity: Pharmacology:
— Vd for meds

A

1464
Q

Obesity: Drugs distributed mainly to lean tissue dosed on — & include: Thiopental, propofol, rocuronium, vecuronium, atracurium, midazolam cisatracurium, fentanyl, sufentanil, & remifentanil

A

LBW

1465
Q

Obesity: Drugs distributed to lean & adipose dosed on — & include: Succinylcholine and Dexmedetomidine

A

TBW

1466
Q

Obesity: Hetastarch- 20ml/kg – based on —

A

IBW

1467
Q

—= males & females, awake PaCO2 > 45 mmHg, doesn’t exhibit nocturnal airway obstruction unless concomitant OSA, pulmonary HTN, somnolence, sleep apnea, hypercapnia, & hypoxemia,↓ alveolar ventilation, cyanosis Polycythemia, enlarged heart, hypoxemia – PaO2 < 65mmHg Rales

A

OSH (pickwickian): Obesity hypoventilation syndrome

1468
Q

—: males > females, normal awake PaCO2 ,sleep induced obstruction, normal paCO2, pH, pulm compliance

A

OSA: obstructive sleep apnea

1469
Q

—: 1ml of wetting solution per 1ml of fat. >5000 ml – fluid overload concern may promote- hypoxemia, HTN, & pulm edema

A

Liposuction

1470
Q

—: used to emulsify fat, provide anesthesia, create hemostasis – solution is dilute epi 1:100,000 & lidocaine 0.05- 0.1%

A

Wetting solution

1471
Q

— is # 1 concern = 25% of liposuction deaths

A

PE

1472
Q

Positioning: Lateral Position: ↑ risk of —

A

rhabdo

1473
Q

Ax roll/chest roll – to protect — = relief of pressure from axillary neurovascular bundle & prevent ↓ blood flow to hand

A

brachial plexus

1474
Q

lithotomy: 5 nerves that may be injured:

A

Common peroneal (most common), saphenous, sciatic, femoral, obturator

1475
Q

lithotomy: decrease —

A

FRC

1476
Q

Upright to prone = ↓3

A

SV, CO, FRC

1477
Q

Supine to prone = ↑ —

A

FRC

1478
Q

Trendelenberg position
— MAP, PCWP, SVR, venous return, CVP, ICP
— CI, oxygen delivery, O2 consumption, CO
— TLC, VC, FRC

A

↑ ; ↓ ; ↓

1479
Q

Sitting
90 degrees = —
45 degrees = —

A

sitting ; beach chair

1480
Q

Lawn chair ↓ — nerve injuries

A

sciatic

1481
Q

Prone: Large breast = positioning —and —

A

medial and cephalad

1482
Q

vision loss during prone procedures in — optic neuropathy and central retinal artery occlusion account for 89% of cases of postoperative vision loss in prone

A

Ischemic

1483
Q

—: Caused because air enters the cranium while the pt. is in a head up position at a time when the volume of intracranial contents has been reduced as a result of some combo of ↓ CO2, good venous drainage, osmotic diuresis, CSF loss from field.

A

Pneumocephalus

1484
Q

Pneumocephalus: Manifests: delayed — from GA, severe —

A

emergence ; HA

1485
Q

Bladder perforation
Awake- — pain

A

shoulder

1486
Q

Bladder perforation
Anesthetized – —, — or —

A

tachy, htn or hotn

1487
Q

Total parotidectomy: spares the — nerve

A

facial

1488
Q

Radical parotidectomy removes the — nerve

A

facial

1489
Q

— of neck = compression of ipsilateral and/or contralateral vertebral arteries

A

Hyperextension

1490
Q

Bone Cement: Methylmethacrylate toxicity = sudden —

A

hotn

1491
Q

— = MOA – transient fat/air embolism from bone marrow or causes vasodilatation & ↓ SVR

A

Methylmethacrylate toxicity

1492
Q

Radial prostectomy - complications: #1 is — and — nerve injury can happen

A

Hemorrhage ; obturator

1493
Q

8 causes of rhabdomyolysis

A
  1. Major crush injury
  2. thermal/electrical injury
  3. Acute muscle ischemia d/t arterial occlusion
  4. Acute muscle injury 2nd prolonged immobilization
  5. Compartment syndromes
  6. MH
  7. Extreme lithotomy
  8. Hyperlordotic position
1494
Q

6 Congenital syndromes associated with difficult intubation:

A

1.Downs
4. Pierre Robin
2. Goldenhar
5. Treacher Collins
3. klippel-fiel
6. Turner

1495
Q

—: Overwhelming generalization septic cellulites of submandibular region. Usually after dental procedures. S/S: chills, fever, drooling, ability to open mouth, difficulty speaking.

A

Ludwig’s Angina

1496
Q

Ludwig’s Angina : Caused by hemolytic —.

A

streptococci

1497
Q

Ludwig’s Angina: Airway management: preliminary — using LA in awake patient = Safest

A

tracheotomy

1498
Q

Contraindications for Cricothyrotomy: 2

A

Children < 6 years old
Laryngeal fractures

1499
Q

—: Severe jaw limitation

A

Scleroderma

1500
Q

Scleroderma: Decreased — = difficult ventilation

A

compliance

1501
Q

Scleroderma: — hypoxia secondary to decreased diffusion of O2 across alveoli

A

Arterial

1502
Q

Scleroderma: No RSI – — intubation with head up position= safer

A

awake

1503
Q

Mouth opening – —mm – — fingerbreadths

A

40 ; 2

1504
Q

Thyroidmental distance -
> — cm normal
< —= difficult airway

A

6.5 ; 6

1505
Q

ETOH – what kinda of 3 electrolytes

A

Hypomagnesium, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis

1506
Q

Medications to Hold before surgery: 2

A

Oral Glycemic & Diuretics

1507
Q

Postoperative — complications: with thoracic and upper Abdominal surgery = highest risk.

A

pulmonary

1508
Q

Post op complications: — in the PACU: hypoventilation & ↑ R to L intrapulmonary shunting secondary to ↓ — (#1)

A

Hypoxia ; FRC

1509
Q

Post op complication: — secondary to #1- Hypovolemia

A

HoTn

1510
Q

Post op complication: — 2nd #1 Pain

A

HTN

1511
Q

1 Postoperative Complication – —

A

PONV

1512
Q

High risk PONV = 10

A

children, women, previous hx, hx of motion sickness, anxiety, abd, gyn , laparoscopic, opioids, surgical duration

1513
Q

Carotid Endarterectomy: PaCO2 — mmHg – Avoid ↓ CO2 → —

A

35-45 ; vasoconstriction

1514
Q

Carotid Endarterectomy: Stump pressure transmitted pressure through the —, < — = shunting

A

circle of willis ; 50

1515
Q

Carotid Endarterectomy: Avoid —

A

hyperglycemia

1516
Q

Carotid Endarterectomy: Post-operative HTN = bc —

A

carotid sinus baroreceptors

1517
Q

Carotid Endarterectomy: Causes of morbidity & mortality #1- — & #2-—

A

MI ; Stroke

1518
Q

Carotid Endarterectomy: Nerves: Smile: — nerve, say “EEE”: — & — nerves, shrug shoulders: — nerve, swallow: — nerve, stick his tongue out: — nerve

A

facial ; superior and recurrent laryngeal ; spinal accessory ; glossopharyngeal ; hypoglossal

1519
Q

6 brainstem reflexes absent in brain death:

A
  1. Pupillary response to light
  2. Corneal reflex
  3. Oculocephalic reflex (dolls eyes)
  4. Oculovestibular reflex (caloric response)
  5. Gag & cough reflex
  6. Facial motor response
1520
Q

Goals of anesthetic management of organ donors:
*Maintain —
1. SBP > —
2. PO2 > —
3. Urine Output > —ml/hr
4. Hbg concentration —g/L
5. CVP —
6. FiO2 < —% (if tolerated)
7. Glucose < —mg/dl
8. Peak airway pressures < —

A

euvolemia ; 100mmHg ; 100mmHg ; 100ml/hr ; 100g/L ; 5-10mmHg ; 40% ; 200 ; 30mmHg

1521
Q

Absolute contraindications for transplants: —

A

active infection

1522
Q

Transplant: Intraoperative renal considerations:
1. SBP > — 2. MAP > — 3. CVP > —

A

90mmHg ; 60mmHg ; 10mmHg

1523
Q

Liver Transplant
Severe — – THAM – trishydroxymethl

A

acidosis

1524
Q

Pneumoperitoneum: Hemodynamic Δ’s: 3

A

↑SVR&MAP,↓CI

1525
Q

Eye Surgeries
Normal IOP: —mmHg based on rate of aqueous humor formation & rate of aqueous humor outflow

A

10-22

1526
Q

IOP ↑ with —
IOP ↓ with —

A

hypercarbia ; hypocarbia

1527
Q

—: cardio effects of ocular meds, oculocardiac reflex, MH, PONV

A

Strabismus

1528
Q

—- the single most effective means to increase PaO2 w/OLV

A

CPAP

1529
Q

OLV: —- non-dependent lung 5-10cm H2O

A

CPAP

1530
Q

OLV: —- dependent lung 5-10cm H2O

A

PEEP

1531
Q

OLV: Other actions: 2

A

periodically inflate collapsed lung, ligate PA

1532
Q

OLV: Greatest risk = —

A

hypoxemia

1533
Q

Inhibition of HPV: 6

A
  1. Hypocapnia
  2. Vasodilators
    3.VA
  3. High or low pulmonary artery pressure
  4. High or low mixed venous partial pressures
  5. Pulmonary infections
1534
Q

TRAM: Avoid —&— during abd closure

A

vasopressors and N2O

1535
Q

—: Surgical procedure where a mediastinoscope is inserted into the mediastinal space in order to view and biopsy lymph nodes.

A

Mediastinoscopy

1536
Q

Mediastinoscopy: Monitors:
Art-line & pulse ox - —
BP cuff – —

A

Right ; Left

1537
Q

Mediastinoscopy: The most common reason for doing this —

A

bronchogenic carcinoma

1538
Q

Mediastinoscopy: Compression: innominate or Right —

A

brachiocephalic

1539
Q

Mediastinoscopy: Complications: #1- — & #2 — tearing of great vessels, chylothorax,bronchospasm from airway manipulation, air embolism, arrhythmias, & esophageal laceration.

A

hemorrhage ; pneumothorax

1540
Q

—: Hypotension, tachycardia, cutaneous hyperemia, and hypoxia are signs caused by the release of vasoactive amines (principally prostacyclin) from the vascular bed of the mesentery. As a result, serum prostaglandin levels increase substantially

A

Mesenteric Traction Syndrome

1541
Q

Mesenteric Traction Syndrome: Tx: 4

A

H1 & H2, Ketorolac, Neo

1542
Q

Tourniquet
Inflated:
Arm —mmHg > SBP (—)
Leg —mmHg > SBP (—)

A

50 (250mmHg) ; 100 (300mmHg)

1543
Q

Tourniquet: Tourniquet times should not exceed —

A

1.5 to 2 hours

1544
Q

Tourniquet:
—CVP & SBP
— HR, ETCO2, PaCO2, serum K, & serum lactate

A

↓ ; ↑

1545
Q

Restrictive Lung Disease
Extrinsic: 7

A

pectus carinatum, pectus excavatum, kyphosis, scoliosis, and flail chest as well as obesity, neuromuscular disorders

1546
Q

Restrictive Lung Disease
Intrinsic: —

A

Sarcoidosis

1547
Q

Bowel Obstruction: — should never be administered to a patient suffering from a bowel obstruction due to the possibility of perforation from its prokinetic effects

A

metoclopramide

1548
Q

—: projects to the medial thalamic nuclei - associated with autonomic & emotional responses to pain.

A

Paleospinothalamic tract (medial spinothalamic tract)

1549
Q

— possesses fibers that ascend to the lateral cervical nucleus and then cross to the contralateral thalamus.

A

spinocervical tract

1550
Q

— projects to the midbrain reticular formation and may generate nondiscriminatory pain sensations

A

spinomesencephalic tract

1551
Q

—: and sends fibers to the posterior nuclei of the thalamus- location and intensity of pain.

A

Neospinothalamic tract (lateral spinothalamic tract)

1552
Q

— burn: consists of erythema w/ only microscopic damage to the superficial epidermis.

A

First-degree

1553
Q

— burn: (partial thickness), extend through the epidermis into the dermis. Spontaneous regeneration of the skin is possible

A

Second degree

1554
Q

— burn: total destruction of the skin, dermal appendages, & epithelial elements occurs with no spontaneous regeneration of the skin possible.

A

Third-degree

1555
Q

— burn: involve muscle, fascia, and bone

A

Fourth-degree

1556
Q

Burns: Fluids: first 24 hours is = equation

A

% body surface area X Kg X 2 to 4. (hct)

1557
Q

Rule of Nines: adults:

A

each arm 9%, each leg 18%, the entire trunk is 36%, head 9%, perineum 1%.

1558
Q

Burns; Hct & viscosity: — significantly

A

1559
Q

Burns: UO: Adults —ml/kg/hr < 30kg peds —ml/kg/hr

A

0.5 ; 1

1560
Q

Burns: Anesthesia: OR —C

A

28-30

1561
Q

Burns: most heat loss from burns = —

A

evaporation

1562
Q

Burns: Resistant to — d/t ↑ # of cholinergic nicotinic receptors

A

NDMB

1563
Q

Most common cause of trauma coagulopathy = —

A

Dilutional thrombocytopenia

1564
Q

Cardiogenic shock: —PAOP >15mmHg, —CI, —SVR

A

↑ ; ↓ ; ↑

1565
Q

Hypovolemic shock: —PAOP, — CI, — or—SVR

A

↓ ; nml ; nml/↑

1566
Q

Autonomic Hyperreflexia: 65-80% ↑— (unlikely below —)

A

T7 ; T10

1567
Q

—: Triggering stimuli: bladder, or bowel distention, heat/cold, uterine contractions, pyelonephritis

A

Autonomic Hyperreflexia

1568
Q

Autonomic Hyperreflexia: S/S: Hallmark – —&—

A

HTN & reflex bradycarda

1569
Q

Autonomic Hyperreflexia:
— level of injury – SNS activation = vasoconstriction & HTN

A

Below

1570
Q

Autonomic Hyperreflexia:
— level of injury- SNS blockade = vasodilatation

A

Above

1571
Q

— block for pancreatic cancer = most effective ; Blocked with alcohol or phenol

A

Celiac plexus block

1572
Q

— nerve block = relief from cluster headaches

A

Greater occipital

1573
Q

— fibers from the head are carried within the trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves.

A

Pain

1574
Q

— are the most common multipurpose coanalgesic used for cancer pain

A

Corticosteroids

1575
Q

Post-operative shivering medications: 4

A
  1. Clonidine
  2. Physostigmine
  3. Serotonin antagonists
  4. Propofol
1576
Q

— = large voltage applied to skin/tissue

A

Macroshock

1577
Q

— = small voltage/current directly to the ♥

A

Microshock

1578
Q

V-fib caused by — microamp-micro or — milliamp- macro

A

50 ; 100-2500

1579
Q

Grounded in OR: 3

A

Power supply, Patient, The floor

1580
Q

Units & Measurements
PO2 = —

A

760mmHg

1581
Q

Units & Measurements
1mmHg= —cm H2O

A

1.36cmH2O

1582
Q

Units & Measurements
1atm = —mmHg=— psi = — kPa = — bar

A

760 ; 14.7 ; 101 ; 1

1583
Q

CO2 Absorber
-Baralyme = 80% Ca(OH)2 + 20% Ba(OH)2 (no silica)
-—L of CO2/100g

A

10.2L

1584
Q

CO2 Absorber
-Soda Lime = 94% Ca(OH)2 + 5% NaOH + 1% KOH
-—L of CO2/100g

A

-26L

1585
Q

E cylinder: O2 = — Liters, — psi

A

660L ; 2200 psi

1586
Q

E cylinder: Air = — Liters, — psi

A

625L ; 1800 psi

1587
Q

E cylinder: N2O = — Liters, — psi

A

1590L ; 750 psi

1588
Q

Law of Laplace T=equation

A

P x r

1589
Q

When N2O < 745 psi= no more — & ~ —L of N2O remains

A

liquid ; 400L

1590
Q

—- Quick connectors indexed for specific gas- SAFETY & is a check Valve- Wall Hose to machine – pressor of 40-50psig

A

DISS

1591
Q

— value on back of gas machine at pressure of 1380 kPa (200 psi) or less. Closes if cylinder pressure is on & pipeline pressure is off.

A

free floating value

1592
Q

O2 pin index — & N2O is —

A

2,5 ; 3,5

1593
Q

1st stage regulator- —psig (intermediate)

A

40-50

1594
Q

2nd stage regulator- 40-50 to — psig

A

16

1595
Q

O2 Flush Valve- —L/min, —psig (intermediate)

A

35-75 ; 40-50

1596
Q

Pressure Sensor Shut-Off Valve: (only senses PRESSURE)
Senses O2@ 50 psig, shuts of N2O if O2 pressure falls O2 pressure @ —psig to keep open

A

25

1597
Q

Components of the High Pressure system of AM : > 55psig (4)

A

1.hanger yoke
2. yoke block w/ check valves (free floating)
3. cylinder pressure gauge
4. cylinder pressure regulators

1598
Q

Components of intermediate pressure system of AM: 40-50 psig (6)

A
  1. Ventilator power inlet
  2. pipeline inlets, check valves, pressure gauges
  3. flow meter valves
  4. oxygen pressure- failure devices
  5. oxygen second stage regulators
  6. flush valve
1599
Q

Components of the low-pressure system of AM: 16 psig (4)

A
  1. flow meter tube
  2. vaporizers
  3. check valves
  4. CGO
1600
Q

—: dual circuit, gas vapor blender, 39C & pressurized to 2 atmospheres (1300mmHg) @ high elevation – need to ↑ concentration to raise PP

A

Tec 6 vaporizer

1601
Q

Oxygen supply failure alarm: Sets off an alarm if the oxygen pressure falls below a standard set by the manufacturer typically —psig. Must engage within —seconds of the disconnect and cannot be disabled by the anesthetist.

A

30 ; 5

1602
Q

—: Prevent hypoxia from lack of oxygen flow, but does not prevent the flow of anesthesia gases (still possibly allow a hypoxic mixture of gases to be delivered).

A

Oxygen supply failure alarm

1603
Q

—: An intermittent back pressure caused by positive pressure ventilation or use of the oxygen flush valve results in ↑ vaporizer output. (not happening on newer machines)

A

Pumping Effect

1604
Q

Pumping Effect: —: flows, vapor dial settings, levels of anesthetic in vaporizer

A

Low

1605
Q

Pumping Effect: —: RR & PIP

A

High

1606
Q

Tipping of the vaporizer = — agent to the patient

A

most

1607
Q

— System- no mask on the face ie. NC

A

Open

1608
Q

— system: mask on face- no rebreathing = ↑ FGF

A

Semi-Open

1609
Q

— system: mask on face- some rebreathing w/ regular flows

A

Semi-Closed

1610
Q

— system: Mask on Face: - complete rebreathing APL closed & low flows (150-500ml/min physiological requirements)

A

Closed

1611
Q

Mapleson Systems: Prevention of rebreathing – spont ventilation: —> DFE > —

A

A ; CB

1612
Q

Mapleson Systems: Prevention of rebreathing Controlled vent: — > BC > —

A

DFE ; A

1613
Q

All Mapleson can ventilate the — patient

A

Apneic

1614
Q

Mapleson — modified = Bain → best for controlled vent

A

D

1615
Q

Mapleson — only one w/o reservoir bag

A

E

1616
Q

Mapleson — = Jackson Reese - peds d/t ↓ WOB but heat loss

A

F

1617
Q

Forced Air Warmer:
Maximum temp —C
Average contact —C

A

48 C ; 46 C

1618
Q

Blood Salvage Contraindications: 5

A
  1. Infection 2. malignant cells 3. Urine 4. bowel contents 5. Amniotic fluid
1619
Q

Blood Salvage Contraindications: 5

A
  1. Infection 2. malignant cells 3. Urine 4. bowel contents 5. Amniotic fluid
1620
Q

Pacemaker
Chamber — A,V,D
Chamber — A,V,D
— – Inhibit, Trigger, Double, O-none

A

paced ; sensed ; Response

1621
Q

Pulse Oximetry: — law

A

Beer Lambert

1622
Q

Pulse Oximetry:
Fx w/ 2 wavelengths:
Red light —nm – — Hbg
Infrared light —nm- — Hbg

A

660 nm ; Deoxygenated ; 940nm ; Oxygenate

1623
Q

— are one of the last places to showing desat (central first)

A

Fingers

1624
Q

Changes in Pulse Oximetry
False —: Caboxyhemoglobin & methemoglobin, severe anemia, SpO2 < 85%

A

High

1625
Q

Changes in Pulse Oximetry
False —: Methylene blue, prominent venous pulsations, injection (if dyes- indigo carmine, lymphazurin, nitrobenzene, indocyamine green, patent blue)

A

Low

1626
Q

5 monitors that can detect disconnection:

A

1.pulse oximetry
2. mass spectrometer
3. capnography
4. stethoscope
5. spirometer

1627
Q

Mass Spectrophy: Gases analyzed: —,—,—&— (Not —)

A

CO2, O2, N2 & inhaled agents ; PaO2

1628
Q

Mass Spectrophy:
— is ionized by an electron beam and passed through a magnetic field.

A

Gas sampled

1629
Q

Mass Spectrophy: —: measures gas concentrations by analyzing the intensity of light emitted when a gas sample returns to an unexcited state after being energized by a laser beam

A

Raman

1630
Q

Mass Spectrophy: —: they detect gases based on the amount of this light that is absorbed by the sample- can not detect oxygen content Most popular in the OR & based on beer lambert

A

Infrared

1631
Q

Mass Spectrophy: — drug= high false measurements

A

Isoproterenol

1632
Q

TOF – —Hz – — twitches per — second or — every — seconds

A

2Hz ; 2/1sec ; 1/.5

1633
Q

Tetany- — seconds @ —Hz

A

5 ; 50Hz

1634
Q

DBS- — trains of — impulses @ —Hz – separated by 750 ms

A

2 ; 3 ; 50Hz

1635
Q

—- best to determine fade

A

DBS

1636
Q

Post Tetanic- —Hz x — seconds – — second pause – stim @ —Hz

A

50Hz ; 5sec ; 3sec ; 1Hz

1637
Q

of visible post tetanic twitches correlates — to time required for return of single twin or train-of-four responses

A

inversely

1638
Q

— nerve = adductor pollicis- —

A

Ulnar ; abdomen

1639
Q

— nerve = orbicularis oculi – —

A

Facial ; laryngx

1640
Q

Twitches:
1. one visible twitch = —% blockade G
2. two visible twitch= —% blockade
3. three visible twitches= —%
4. four visible twitches = <—%

A

95 ; 80-85 ; 75-80 ; 75

1641
Q

— – based on HYPNOSIS

A

BIS

1642
Q

BIS:
—- Awake

A

100

1643
Q

BIS:
—- Light/Moderate Sedation

A

90-70

1644
Q

BIS:
—- Deep sedation (low probablility of recall)

A

70-60

1645
Q

BIS:
—- general anesthesia

A

60-40

1646
Q

BIS:
—- deep hypnotic state

A

40-10

1647
Q

BIS:
—- flat line EEG

A

10-0

1648
Q

BIS:
< — reflect burst suppression.

A

40

1649
Q

BIS: — can be produced by: Output from cardiac pacemakers, muscle activity such as twitching, shivering, or blinking, incorrect electrode placement, & high frequency electrical devices such as IV pumps and warming devices can all produce artifact.

A

Artifact

1650
Q

BIS: — waves may occasionally be seen during anesthetic maintenance and emergence.

A

Paradoxical delta waves

1651
Q

Blood Pressure Cuffs: —% of arms circumference

A

40

1652
Q

Blood Pressure Cuffs:
— if cuff: too loose, too small, or positioned below the level of the heart

A

Overestimation

1653
Q

Pacemakers
Most common indications = —&—

A

SSS & complete ♥ block

1654
Q

Pacemakers: ID codes
1st = chamber —
2nd= chamber — – eletrocautery affects
3rd= — to sensing
4th= programmability — modulation
5th= fx

A

paced ; sensed ; response ; rate ; antitachyarrythmic

1655
Q

Pacemakers: ID codes: —= eletrocautery affects

A

2nd

1656
Q

Pacemakers: ID codes: AICD affects which letters?

A

4th and 5th

1657
Q

Pacemakers: — can inhibit the pulse generator d/t fasiculations

A

Succs

1658
Q

Pacemakers: Avoid — if implanted within 1-2 days ago

A

nitrous

1659
Q

Magnet
—- converts to a fixed rate (asynchronous) mode

A

Pacer

1660
Q

Magnet
—- disables it – loud continuous high pitch sound

A

AICD

1661
Q

—: destroys most microorganisms- except SPORES

A

Disinfection

1662
Q

—: all viable forms of microbial life – yes to spores

A

Sterilization

1663
Q

7 —: quaternary ammonium, alcohols, glutaraldehydes (Cidex), hydrogen-peroxide, formaldehyde, phenolic compounds, chlorine ( bleach)

A

chemical disinfectants

1664
Q

—- for objects that can’t be heated in steam autoclave

A

Ethylene oxide

1665
Q

Glutaraldehyde (Cidex) & hydrogen peroxide = — destruct

A

SPORES

1666
Q

Quaternary ammoniums – WILL NOT kill —

A

tuberculosis

1667
Q

Lasers can be both long (—) and short (—) wavelengths.

A

CO2laser ; YAG laser

1668
Q

— laser risks: Thermal injury, eye injuries, electrical hazards, fire, transmission of viruses, and contaminants in the smoke plume

A

Major

1669
Q

Nd-YAG laser – OD(optical density) 5 or > for 1,064 nm/—

A

Green

1670
Q

—: Laser vaporization of condylomatous lesions d/t release toxic chemicals: benzene & formaldehyde as well as viable viruses capable of transmitting the disease

A

N-95 respirator mask

1671
Q

Gas Laws mnemonic:

A

“Can These Girls Possibly Be Virgins”

1672
Q

Boyle = equation

A

P1V1 = P2V2

1673
Q

Charles = equation

A

V1/T1 = V2/T2

1674
Q

Gay-Lussac = equation

A

P1/T1 = P2/T2

1675
Q

— = 1 mole of gas @ STP = 22.4 Liters

A

Avogadro’s Hypothesis

1676
Q

Avogadro’s Number: — = 1 mole

A

6.023 X 10^23

1677
Q

1 mole = 00 = 1 atm = 760 mmHg = —L

A

22.4L

1678
Q

Gases liquefy if: 2

A

(1) sufficient pressure is applied and
(2) temperature is below critical temperature

1679
Q

critical temperature:
N2O = —C
O2 = —C

A

39.5C ; -119C

1680
Q

—: (P1 –P2) (Area) (Solubility)/ (Membrane thickness) (square root Molecular Weight)

A

Fick Diffusion

1681
Q

Fick Diffusion: the — is the most important factor in determining the rate of diffusion of a drug across a membrane

A

concentration gradient

1682
Q

% Concentration = equation

A

(Partial Pressure/Atm) X 100

1683
Q

Partial Pressure = equation

A

(% Concentration X Atm)/100

1684
Q

Partial Pressure H2O @ 370 C = —mm Hg

A

47

1685
Q

Laminar Flow: —Law

A

Poiseuilles

1686
Q

Poiseuilles Law = equation

A

F=πr4ΔP/8nl Flow
F= flow, r = radius, n= viscosity, l= length

1687
Q

Poiseuilles : Doubling the radius = — the flow

A

16x

1688
Q

Tripling the radius = — the flow

A

81x

1689
Q

Angle < — degrees = laminar flow

A

25

1690
Q

— #- turbulent flow

A

Reynolds

1691
Q

— Reynolds # = turbulent flow

A

> 1,500-2000

1692
Q

— determines flow when turbulent flow present

A

Density (p)

1693
Q

—: Flow through constricted region of the tube = ↑ Flow & corresponding ↓ in pressure in area of narrowing

A

Venturi/Bernoulli

1694
Q

—: Law of mass action

A

LeChatelier’s

1695
Q

LeChatelier’s:
↑ concentration of reactant→ reaction to — products

A

1696
Q

LeChatelier’s: Law of mass action
↑ concentration of reactant→ reaction to — reactant (— products)

A

↑ ; ↓

1697
Q

—: Calculation of dissolved O2 & CO2 in blood

A

Henry’s Law

1698
Q

—: Total pressure in a mixture is = to the sum of pressures of each gas

A

Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressure

1699
Q

Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressure: of O2, N2, and total

A

O2: 160mmHg (21%)
N2: 600mmHg (79%)
Total: 760mmHg

1700
Q

—: A cylinder cools and condenses after opening a valve – Joule is cool

A

Joule-Thompson

1701
Q

—: The intensity of light is altered as transmitted through liquid. The intensity of the light falls exponentially as light passes through the liquid.

A

Beer Law

1702
Q

Law of Laplace; T= equation

A

P x r – cylindrically shaped structures thus ↑T = ↑ r

1703
Q

Law of Laplace: Applies to: 2

A

blood vessels, left ventricle (Frank-Starling)

1704
Q

Law of Laplace: Applies to alveoli – ARDS equation T=

A

(P x r) /2 – spherically- shaped structures thus ↑r = ↑ T, ↓r = ↑ P

1705
Q

Humidification
Relative Humidity (%) =

A

(actual vapor pressure/Saturated vapor pressure)
x 100

1706
Q

Humidification: ↓ T = — capacity to hold H2O → H2O condenses

A

1707
Q

— Law: SVR

A

Ohms

1708
Q

—: Solubility of a gas in a fluid

A

Ostwald Solubility Coefficient

1709
Q

Ostwald Solubility Coefficient:
-Amount of gas in solution is — proportion to temp
-—= ↑ solubility of VA in blood & tissue

A

inversely ; Hypothermia

1710
Q

—: Non-ideal gas behavior

A

Van Der Wals

1711
Q

—: Distance from source = amount of exposure

A

Inverse Square Law

1712
Q

Fires in OR:
Components needed for Fire: —,—&—

A

fuel, oxygen & ignition source

1713
Q

Fires in OR:
Steps if fire occurs: 6

A
  1. Stop ventilation
  2. Stop O2 Flow
  3. Extubate patient
  4. Extinguish the fire
  5. Mask ventilate
  6. Reintubate
1714
Q

—→ formed the AANA in 1931

A

Agatha Hodgins

1715
Q

— → ‘Mother of Anesthesia

A

Alice Magaw

1716
Q

— → first LA

A

Cocaine

1717
Q

—= an order by a court to force a party to commence some required action.

A

A writ of mandamus

1718
Q

—= refers to the doctrine of common law in which courts adhere to the prior decisions of other courts.

A

Stare decisis

1719
Q

—= (the thing speaks for itself) refers to an event that would not have occurred ‘but for actions of the defendant’.

A

Res ipsa loquitor

1720
Q

— = Civil Wrongdoing

A

Tort

1721
Q

— = Failure to use reasonable care, which is that level of care recognized as acceptable and appropriate given the circumstances.

A

Negligence

1722
Q

—= is a lawsuit to recover goods improperly taken by another.

A

Replevin

1723
Q

—= intentionally causing harmful or offensive contact with a person or to something close to them

A

Battery

1724
Q

—= intentionally causing the apprehension of an immediate and harmful contact

A

Assault

1725
Q

Four Elements of Malpractice:

A

1.Duty- prove defendant had a duty to the plaintiff
2.Breach of Duty- prove defendant failed to fulfill duty to defedant
3. Causation - reasonably close relationship proven to exist between breach of duty by defendant and the injury that resulted
4.Damages - prove some injury occurred due to the breach in duty

1726
Q

Informed Consent Includes: 4

A
  1. Risks
  2. Benefits
  3. Complications
  4. Alternatives
1727
Q

—: defines compressed gas standard

A

Department of Transportation

1728
Q

—: sets specification for compressed gas cylinder construction

A

Interstate Commerce Commission

1729
Q

—: defines compressed gas standard

A

Federal Food, Drug & Cosmetic Act

1730
Q

—: develops purity standards for gases

A

United States Pharmacopeia

1731
Q

—: recommendations for the construction and location of BULK oxygen containers

A

National Fire Prevention Association

1732
Q

—: sets standards of practice

A

Compressed Gas Association

1733
Q

—: performance & safety requirements for components of the AM, ETT, connectors,vacuum & gas pressure regulators

A

American National Standards Institute (ANSI)

1734
Q

—: promulgates standards for medical devices and gases

A

Food and Drug Administration

1735
Q

—: voluntary accrediting agency

A

Joint Commission

1736
Q

—: assess technology & revises standards

A

American Society for Testing Materials (ASTM)

1737
Q

—: standards to protect the health & safety of workers

A

National Institute of Occupational Safety & Health

1738
Q

—: When researchers, on the basis of a statistical test, erroneously concludethat there is evidence of an association between two variables when, in fact, there is not

A

Type I error

1739
Q

—: When researchers, on the basis of a statistical test, erroneously conclude that there is evidence of no association between two variables when, in fact there is

A

Type II error

1740
Q

Acute hypoparathyroidism & hypocalcemia usually presents w/in —hrs following surgery

A

24-96

1741
Q

Hypoalbuminemia, hypomagnesemia, hyperphosphatemia, vitamin D deficiency, PTH deficiency, pancreatitis, RF, massive blood transfusions, burns, & sepsis are all causes of —.

A

hypocalcemia

1742
Q

Factor — is the only clotting factor that decreases w/ pregnancy.

A

XI

1743
Q

— is active myocardial relaxation

A

Lusitropy

1744
Q

— or contractility

A

Inotropy

1745
Q

— is a genetic condition affecting a protein in the body called the fibroblast growth factor receptor. This protein begins to function abnormally, slowing down the growth of bone in the cartilage of the growth plate.

A

Achondroplasia

1746
Q

— syndrome is a disorder of your immune system identified by its two most common symptoms, dry eyes & a dry mouth. The condition often accompanies other immune system disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis & lupus.

A

Sjogren’s

1747
Q

— are the MOST SENSITIVE to anesthetic technique & are rarely ever used.

A

Visual evoked potentials (VEP)

1748
Q

The evoked potentials in order from least to most sensitive to anesthetic technique are:

A

BAEP < SSEP < MEP < VEP.
Another way to remember: BAEP=Barely affected, SSEP=Somewhat affected, MEP=Mostly affected, & VEP=Very affected.

1749
Q

ASA —-A normal healthy pt. (Healthy, non-smoker

A

1

1750
Q

ASA —-A pt w/ mild systemic disease w/o functional limitation. (Smoker, Pregnancy, Controlled Diabetes)

A

2

1751
Q

ASA —-A pt w/ severe systemic disease. (Morbid obesity, ESRD with regular dialysis)

A

3

1752
Q

ASA —-A pt w/ severe systemic disease, constant threat to life. (Recent (< 3mths) TIA or MI, ESRD not on regular dialysis)

A

4

1753
Q

ASA —-A moribund pt who is not expected to survive w/o the operation (Massive trauma, ICH with mass effect)

A

5

1754
Q

ASA —-A declared brain-dead pt whose organs are being removed for donor purposes.

A

6

1755
Q

— are associated w/ leukocytosis, increased Hb, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, mild hypernatremia, alkalosis, increased urinary uric acid, & increased urinary Ca+.

A

Corticosteroids

1756
Q

— act on the kidney to stimulate reabsorption of Na+ & excretion of K+ & H+ ions resulting in normal/slightly high plasma Na+, hypokalemia, & alkalosis (not causing uric acid & urinary Ca+).

A

Mineralocorticoids

1757
Q

— can result in decreased O2 delivery to the tissues through an impairment in the production of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate. Decreased ATP production will also tend to cause diaphragmatic weakness &, in severe cases, cardiac failure. Other sequelae include hemolytic anemia, neurologic deficits, seizure, & eventual death.

A

Hypophosphatemia

1758
Q

— is characterized by adrenal gland dysfunction manifesting as fatigue, weakness, anorexia, N&V, cutaneous mucosal hyperpigmentation, hypovolemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, HoTN, & metabolic acidosis.

A

Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease)

1759
Q

During prolonged fasting the brain uses — bodies as an alternate source of energy. The other organs use —.

A

ketone ; fatty acids

1760
Q

— syndrome is due to an excess secretion of serotonin into the systemic circulation. Diagnosis made by measuring 24hr urinary levels of 5-HIAA.

A

Carcinoid syndrome

1761
Q

The primary pathophysiology of MH is an uncontrolled release of — by the — that causes a profound hypermetabolic state.

A

Ca+ ; sarcoplasmic reticulum

1762
Q

— may be used as a 1st-line vasopressor for neurogenic diabetes insipidus following TBI.

A

Vasopressin

1763
Q

W/ morphine 10mg IV as the standard potency of “1”: — 1/8th as potent, — 8-10x as potent, — & — 100x as potent, — 1000x as potent, & — 10x as potent.

A

meperidine ; hydromorphone ; fentanyl & remi ; sufent ; alfent

1764
Q

Verapamil & diltiazem are the — & watch for —

A

Ca+ channel blockers ; hyperkalemia

1765
Q

— is a mast cell stabilizer that works to prevent the release of histamine, leukotriens, & other allergic mediators by preventing degranulation of mast cells.

A

Cromolyn Na+

1766
Q

— is an inhaled steroid useful in the prevention of attacks, & prednisone may be taken orally for the same purpose.

A

Fluticasone

1767
Q

— is a leukotriene modifier.

A

Montelukast

1768
Q

— is a long acting beta agonist that should be administered only w/ a rapid acting beta agonist inhaler available, as it has been linked w/ severe asthma attacks.

A

Salmeterol

1769
Q

Beta blockers that begin w/ letters after “—” are non-selective (— is an exception).

A

N ; labetalol

1770
Q

— is a degenerative disease caused by a loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra along w/ the presence of Lewy bodies.

A

Parkinson’s disease

1771
Q

— is a drug administered for Parkinson’s instead of dopamine, as dopamine cannot cross the —.

A

Levodopa ; BBB

1772
Q

— must be avoided as they worsen symptoms of Parkinson’s

A

Antidopaminergic drugs (metoclopramide & prochlorperazine)

1773
Q

demyelination & axon degeneration is —.

A

multiple sclerosis

1774
Q

The inherited autosomal dominant neurodegenerative disorder is — disease.

A

Huntington’s

1775
Q

immune response directed towards myelin or peripheral axons is —.

A

Guillain Barre

1776
Q

All — can cause spasm of the sphincter of Oddi & can lead to biliary colic when the gallbladder contracts against a closed sphincter

A

opioids

1777
Q

spasm of the sphincter of Oddi can be treated w/: 4

A

naloxone/other opioid antagonist, glucagon 1-2mg IV, nitroglycerin or atropine.

1778
Q

Pancuronium & hydralazine both cause an — in HR

A

increase

1779
Q

— syndrome may be heralded by sudden onset of refractory bradycardia, HLD, metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, RF, & rhabdomyolysis. >4 mg/kg/hr or 67 mcg/kg/min, long term propofol therapy, defined as >48hrs

A

Propofol infusion

1780
Q

— are contraindicated in decompensated HF pts & in the presence of AV conduction blocks greater than 1st degree.

A

Beta adrenergic antagonists

1781
Q

— is a potent antiHTN that also increases renal perfusion.

A

Fenoldopam

1782
Q

— is a non-selective beta blocker that is useful to treat HTN, anxiety disorders, & Grave’s disease/hyperthyroidism.

A

Propranolol

1783
Q

— is a thyroid hormone replacement for pts w/ hypothyroidism.

A

Levothyroxin

1784
Q

— is used in the treatment of Grave’s disease & hyperthyroidism.

A

Propylthiouracil (PTU)

1785
Q

Using — can cause suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis (HPA).

A

exogenous glucocorticoids (prednisone)

1786
Q

— is the most likely neuromuscular blockade agent to cause an allergic reaction of muscle relaxants.

A

Succ

1787
Q

— treatment of SVT & rapid rate a-fib due to its ability to block the Ca+ channels of the AV node.

A

Diltiazem (benzothiazepine Ca+ channel blocker)

1788
Q

ACE-I typically cause —kalemia

A

Hyper

1789
Q

— is broken down by Erythrocyte Esterase hence its short DoA. Anemic pts can experience a prolonged effect.

A

Esmolol

1790
Q

— for the treatment of carcinoid syndrome

A

octreotide

1791
Q

— is an opioid that blocks the neuronal re-uptake of serotonin in combo w/ MAOIs. This has lead to serotonin syndrome & caused seizures & deaths in pts when these are combined.

A

Meperidine

1792
Q

Treatment for beta blocker OD: 4

A

atropine, glucose & insulin, glucagon, Ca+ chloride

1793
Q

Liver failure decreases amount of acetylcholine that is being produced by the liver, thus — NDMB.

A

prolonging

1794
Q

— should be avoided in pts w/ sepsis. Adverse outcomes have been reported w/ its use in pts likely due to suppression of adrenal cortisol production.

A

Etomidate

1795
Q

— agonists (Spinal) provide for analgesia & also provide some of the negative side effects of opioids, including ventilatory depression, physical dependence, & constipation.

A

Mu2

1796
Q

— receptors activated by intrinsic endorphins & exogenous opioids.

A

Mu

1797
Q

Reversal of GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors (abciximab) can be accomplished w/ — transfusion, but is less effective w/ the smaller molecules of tirofiban.

A

plt

1798
Q

— is a selective phosphodiesterase inhibitor that decreases hydrolysis of cyclic AMP & cyclic GMP, leading to increased intracellular cAMP & cGMP. This increases inward movement of Ca+ ions, causing positive inotropic effects & relaxation of vascular & airway smooth muscles. It is thus a positive inotrope & preload & afterload reducer.

A

Amrinone (inamrinone)

1799
Q

— works upon the activation of beta 2 receptors after inhalation of the aerosolized drug. Beta 2 receptor activation causes relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscles through activating adenylate cyclase & thus increasing cAMP.

A

Albuterol

1800
Q

Drugs that can be administered through the ETT:

A

NAVEL or ALIEN V: A – atropine, L – lidocaine, I – Isoproteronol, E – epinephirine, N – naloxone, V – Valium (diazepam).

1801
Q

— work to strongly inhibit factor Xa (traditional heparin effects antithrombin III & inhibits Xa).

A

Enoxaprin & other LMW heparin

1802
Q

— is an alpha 1 agonist only at all doses.

A

Phenylephrine

1803
Q

Dobutamine has only — effects

A

beta 1

1804
Q

isoproterenol has — only

A

beta 1 & beta 2 agonisim

1805
Q

Dopamine:
Doses —mcg/kg/min activate dopamine 1 receptors which produces renal dilation (once believed helpful to pts needing renal protection but evidence does not support the usefulness of dopamine for this).
Doses —mcg/kg/min beta 1 receptors are activated.
Doses —mcg/kg/min to greater concentrations alpha receptors are activated causing vasoconstriction.

A

1-3 ; 3-10 ; 10

1806
Q

75% of initial dosage of fentanyl is removed from circulation on the first pass through the —, & repeated doses of fentanyl may cause saturation of the pulmonary sites leading to a prolonged DoA.

A

lungs

1807
Q

Ventilatory depression is not seen with activation of — opioid receptor activation.

A

Mu1

1808
Q

Remifent has the advantage of providing a rapid & dense analgesic response (w/in —min), w/ an equally quick termination of action in —min.

A

1-3 ; 3-10

1809
Q

— disease should not receive droperidol as it antagonizes dopamine receptors. Droperidol can cause extrapyramidal symptoms.

A

Parkinson’s

1810
Q

one of the greatest challenges in treating the pt on tricyclic antidepressants is the unpredictability of the patient’s —.

A

BP

1811
Q

— blocks ADP receptors on the surface of platelets, inhibiting platelet activation and aggregation.

A

Clopidogrel

1812
Q

— is a phenylalkylamine Ca+ channel blocker that blocks slow Ca+ channels of vascular smooth muscle & myocardium, greatly slowing conduction through the AV node. It also has negative chronotropic effects on the SA node (decreasing HR) & is a negative inotrope on cardiac muscle. It also relaxes the coronary vasculature & causes coronary vasodilation. used to treat supraventricular dysrhythmias such as SVT but should be avoided in pts with WPW syndrome.

A

Verapamil

1813
Q

— should be avoided in pts with WPW syndrome.

A

Verapamil

1814
Q

— should be avoided to decrease the chances of iatrogenic seizures. Morphine-3-glucuronide also has proconvulsant properties as a metabolite of morphine, but is not listed as a choice here. Morphine-6-glucuronide is the active pain relieving molecule derivitive of morphine.

A

Meperidine (Demerol)

1815
Q

— acts by decreasing hepatic production of glucose by decreasing gluconeogenesis through increasing hepatic sensitivity to insulin–thus it only works in the presence of insulin. It does NOT cause hypoglycemia.

A

Metformin

1816
Q

— NDMR is known to increase HR, MAP, & CO. SVR is not changed to a great degree. It produces a slight blockade at cardiac muscarinic receptors, inhibiting parasympathetic activity allowing for an increase in HR.

A

Pancuronium

1817
Q

A — in SVR may be seen w/ giving midazolam

A

decrease

1818
Q

Alfentanil is — metabolized extensively

A

heptically

1819
Q

Most anesthesia providers will use — mA as the goal of optimal position for nerve blocks

A

0.5

1820
Q

—, a derivative of PABA (para-aminobenzoic acid) & a popular preservative used in multi-dose LA, & is most commonly implicated in anaphylactic reactions from LA adminstration.

A

Methylparaben

1821
Q

LA w/ the highest amount of — binding have the longest anesthetic duration.

A

protein

1822
Q

—,—,—,— have high levels of protein binding & are long-acting LA.

A

Bupivicaine, Etidocaine, Ropivcaine & Tetracaine (BERT likes protein)

1823
Q

— fibers are preganglionic sympathetic neurons located at the outer most area of the nerve root. These fibers are small & myelinated.

A

B

1824
Q

Sympathetic — fibers are attenuated 1st so the sympathectomy is the 1st sign of the LA starting to work.

A

B

1825
Q

The — fibers are small & unmyelinated while the — fibers are also small but myelinated.

A

C ; A-delta

1826
Q

— and — fibers are involved in transmitting pain, temp, & touch w/ a subset of the — fibers, the — fibers, transmitting for various autonomic functions since they are postganglionic sympathetic neurons.

A

C & A-delta ; C ; sC

1827
Q

The large myelinated fibers —,—&—. These fibers are motor efferents involved in muscle movement, propioception, touch & pressure.

A

A-gamma, A-alpha & A-beta

1828
Q

— are the abnormal sensation of the skin (tingling, prickling, numbness, or burning) that has no objective cause.

A

Paresthesias

1829
Q

—&— are 2 LA that can cause methemoglobinemia.

A

Prilocaine & benzocaine

1830
Q

—: These pts are most often middle age females, but people of a broad spectrum of ages & genders have been diagnosed. Pts may complain of “fibro-fog,” a feeling of impaired concentration & memory problems, & to pain sensitivity. Times of emotional stress seem to bring on exacerbations, & exercise & antidepressants have been proven helpful to many pts w/ this condition.

A

fibromyalgia

1831
Q

— was the 1st FDA approved med for fibromyalgia. Other meds: —,—&—

A

Pregabalin (Lyrica) ; SSRI (citalopram) & SNRI (duloxetine) are useful, tricyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline).

1832
Q

Absolute contraindications to neuraxial anesthesia: 7

A

infxn at site of injection, severe mitral or aortic stenosis, severe hypovolemia, increased ICP, bleeding diathesis, coagulopathy, or pt refusal

1833
Q

Relative contraindications: 4

A

sepsis, severe scoliosis or kyphosis, demyelinating lesions, & valvular heart lesions

1834
Q

— means painful response to a typically non-painful stimulus. Seen in: migraines, cluster headaches, postherpetic neuralgia, complex regional pain syndrome, neuropathies & fibromyalgia.

A

Allodynia

1835
Q

Morphine is more likely to spread to — than fentanyl.

A

CNS

1836
Q

Due to its antagonism, — exhibits a “ceiling effect” & doses >30mg don’t produce further respiratory depression if no other depressants are present.

A

nalbuphine

1837
Q

Unlike atracurium, — doesn’t cause elevations in plasma histamine levels which may lead to urticaria.

A

cis-atracurium

1838
Q

— is still one of the most common meds to be implicated in OD & death, w/ its main area of destruction being the liver hence the high AST & ALT levels.

A

Acetaminophen

1839
Q

For elective surgery, warfarin should be discontinued at least —days prior to procedure if normal INR is desired.

A

5dys

1840
Q

— acts to inhibit the release of acetylcholine, & — decreases the release even more. It also competitively inhibits Ca+ influx into the presynaptic nerve channels at the Ca+ channel. Other drugs such as Ca+ antagonists also can interfere w/ neurotransmitter release.

A

Mg+ ; hypermagnesemia

1841
Q

4mg of — is equivalent to 20mg of cortisol or 0.75mg of dexamethasone.

A

methylprednisolone

1842
Q

—&— steroids both have characteristically low Na+ retaining abilities while providing adequate anti-inflammatory potency.

A

Methylprednisolone & prednisone

1843
Q

— steroid has no Na+ retaining ability & potent anti-inflammatory properties.

A

Dexamethasone

1844
Q

—&— steroids can be useful for a variety of inflammatory & immune conditions.

A

Both dexamethasone & methylprednisolone

1845
Q

All — cause an increased incidence of potential dangerous CV incidents which may include HF, MI, & stroke.

A

steroids

1846
Q

—: the risk of dyskinesia is elevated due to the presence of Parkinson’s disease & is best avoided

A

Promethazine (Phenergan)

1847
Q

— is a delayed dyskinesia due to prolonged use of drug.

A

tardive dyskinesia

1848
Q

— (drooping eyes) & — (double vision) are often the earliest & most commonly seen signs in MG

A

Ptosis ; diplopia

1849
Q

treatment of — is largely supportive, w/ particular attention to respiratory support. Autonomic dysfunction occurs in up to 70%, w/ tachycardia being the most common reported finding. These pts also need to have proper bowel & bladder care taken, & DVT prophylaxis should be undertaken w/ low molecular weight or unfractionated heparin.

A

Guillain-Barre

1850
Q

CMRO2 averages — mL/100g/min in adults.

A

3.5

1851
Q

Cerebral blood flow avg — mL/100g/min in peds (avg — mL/min in the adult pt).

A

50 ; 750

1852
Q

Cerebral blood flow is regulated b/n — mL/100g/min.

A

10-300

1853
Q

MG commonly affects — gender more.

A

females

1854
Q

Volatiles should be limited when evoked potentials are being conducted since they affect the amplitude (—) & latency (—) (below 0.5 MAC recommended).

A

decrease ; increase

1855
Q

Opioids have — on CMR or ICP.

A

no net effect

1856
Q

Volatiles — CMR & — ICP.

A

decrease ; increase

1857
Q

Nitrous — CMR & — ICP, but not as much as volatiles do.

A

decreases ; increases

1858
Q

Barbiturates profoundly — CMR & ICP w/ etomidate closely following suit.

A

decrease

1859
Q

CSF is produced at around — ml/hr, or approximately 0.3 cc/min.

A

20

1860
Q

The CSF is produced by the — in the lateral, third, & fourth ventricles. It circulates in the brain in the subarachnoid space.

A

choroid plexus

1861
Q

The normal CSF volume is — ml.

A

125 ml

1862
Q

Profound hypoxemia below tensions of 50mmHg will produce a significant — in CBF.

A

increase

1863
Q

Pts w/ Lambert-Eaton syndrome will have — sensitivity to succ & — sensitivity to NDMB.

A

increased ; increased

1864
Q

— is a condition resulting in impaired renal Na+ reabsorption in the proximal tubules leading to excessive urinary Na+ excretion. This leads to hyponatremia & a solute mediated diuresis of free water. The result is hyponatremia combined w/ hypovolemia. Can be caused by many CNS conditions & pathology including (Brain tumor, Tertiary syphilis, Meningiococcal Meningitis, Central nervous system surgery).

A

Cerebral Salt Wasting

1865
Q

— has had positive effects on pts w/ vasospasm after subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Nimodipine

1866
Q

—% of CO in adults is taken as cerebral blood flow.

A

20

1867
Q

Intracranial HTN is defined as a sustained increase in ICP >— mmHg

A

15

1868
Q

— is an autoimmune disease in which IgG antibodies act against the voltage-gated Ca+ channels to interfere w/ Ca+ influx required to release acetylcholine at the motor end plate.

A

Myasthenic syndrome (Lambert-Eaton syndrome)

1869
Q

Vasospasm after subarachnoid hemorrhage usually doesn’’t occur for — after the initial bleed

A

72hrs to upwards of 2wks

1870
Q

Cerebral blood flow — by approximately 3% or 1-2 cc/100g/min for every 1 mmHg decrease in PaCO2.

A

decreases

1871
Q

CPP is normally between — mmHg.

A

80-100

1872
Q

At — mL/100g/min an isoelectric wave is produced, & below — mL/100g/min is irreversible brain damage. <—ml/100g/min, there is slowing of the EEG demonstrating cerebral impairment.

A

15-20 ; 10 ; 25

1873
Q

Anticonvulsants (anti-epileptics) cross placenta & responsible for a — risk of birth defects when taken during pregnancy.

A

high

1874
Q

CO will eventually increase to —% greater than that of a nonpregnant female.

A

50

1875
Q

Terbutaline is a — agonist. Terbutaline’s — effects cause increases in cAMP levels leading to decreases in intracellular Ca+, causing the desired uterine smooth muscle relaxation. Side effects: HoTN, tachycardia, anxiety, chest tightening/pain, ECG changes, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, & pulmonary edema. It is relatively contraindicated in pts w/ CAD & RF.

A

beta 1 & beta 2 ; beta 2

1876
Q

Infants delivered to mothers on — may develop hypoglycemia secondary to hyperinsulinemia, & infants may also develop tachycardia & MI.

A

terbutaline

1877
Q

HELLP stands for: —.

A

Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, & Low Platelets (less than 100,000/mm3)

1878
Q

—is a prostaglandin E1 analogue that can be useful to decrease uterine hemorrhage by increasing uterine tone.

A

Misoprostol (Cytotec)

1879
Q

Mg+ — acetylcholine at neuromuscular junction

A

decreases

1880
Q

indomethacin (NSAIDs) — prostaglandin synthesis.

A

inhibit

1881
Q

Beta adrenergic blocking drugs have — role in tocolysis

A

no

1882
Q

Pain in the 1st stage of labor should be relieved by — epidural blockade & is — pain.

A

T10-L1 ; visceral

1883
Q

The 2nd stage of labor adds — fibers of the birth canal entering at —.

A

somatic ; S2-S4

1884
Q

in the infants of hyperglycemic/poorly controlled diabetics mothers,
-Congenital — lesions are increased (Transient subaortic stenosis due to ventricular septal hypertrophy)
-vertebral, skeletal, renal, & CNS anomalies.
-—is common & may be related to placental insufficiency & fetal hypoxia common to reduced O2 delivery.
-—, a birth weight >4000 gm, increases risk of Erb’s palsy or phrenic nerve palsy due to shoulder dystocia.
-—may be seen
-—is caused by delay in the normal rise of PTH.

A

cardiac ; Polycythemia ; Macrosomia ; Jaundice ; Hypocalcemia

1885
Q

—&— are peptides activated in response to increased ventricular volumes & pressures.

A

BNP & ANP

1886
Q

Increased oxytocin levels causes release of —.
-released in increased amounts w/ fluid loading, as done prior to administration of neuraxial anesthesia.
-decrease vasospasm seen in uteroplacental circulation & provide benefit in uteroplacental perfusion.
-promotes dilation of the vessels & excretion of Na+ by the kidneys.

A

ANP

1887
Q

— produces selective afferent arteriolar vasodilation & inhibits Na+ reabsorption in proximal convoluted tubule, but is not released by oxytocin–elevated.
-seen in pts w/ CHF among other causes. Risk factors associated w/ nausea in spinal anesthesia includes a block height of T5 or greater, omission of neuraxial opioids, & a hx of motion sickness.

A

BNP

1888
Q

— is seen in infants of poorly controlled diabetic mothers, — is most often seen in macrosomic infants; & respiratory — secondary to immature fetal lungs-fetal lungs are immature as high levels of insulin block lung maturation.

A

Macrosomia ; hypoglycemia ; distress ;

1889
Q

—,—,&— is considered safe to use during pregnancy to treat BP.

A

Labetalol, Hydralazine & methyldopa

1890
Q

The period of greatest susceptibility to teratogenic agents is from —wks after conception

A

2-8wks

1891
Q

— (highest risk of malformations if taken while pregnant) (carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, & valproic acid): neural tube defects & dysmorphic facial features, Cleft lip & palate, congenital heart disease.

A

Anticonvulsants

1892
Q

The grouping of orofacial, CV, & digital malformations is called fetal — syndrome.

A

anticonvulsant

1893
Q

— causes kid higher chance to have spina bifida at a rate of around 1-2%.

A

Valproic acid

1894
Q

— may increase the risk of cleft palate in 1st trimester exposure

A

Benzodiazepines

1895
Q

—&— depressants meds are thought to be safe.

A

Tricyclic antidepressants & SSRIs

1896
Q

— b/n 6-9wks gestation, can result in fetal — syndrome. It consists of nasal hypoplasia, mental retardation, growth restriction, & a depressed nasal bridge. It is not safe in any trimester, adverse effects in the 2nd & 3rd trimesters can result in microcephaly, deafness, blindness, & growth restrictions.

A

Warfarin

1897
Q

— doesn’t cross placenta & is the drug of choice for pregnant females requiring anticoagulation.

A

Heparin

1898
Q

— doesn’t cross placenta, but is cleared more rapidly in pregnancy than in non-gravid patients & dosing may need adjusting. Twice daily dosing should be considered.

A

Low molecular weight heparin

1899
Q

— antiHTN were shown to cause fetal renal dysplasia & oligohydramnios.

A

ACE inhibitors

1900
Q

If steroids are to be used, — is the drug of choice as only a small amount cross the placenta. — readily crosses the placenta & may be used as an aid to accelerate fetal lung maturity.

A

prednisone ; Dexamethasone

1901
Q

For nausea —,—&— are all considered safe during pregnancy.

A

promethazine, metoclopramide, & ondansetron

1902
Q

—&— Abx are safe for use during pregnancy.

A

Penicillins & cephalosporins

1903
Q

The — are probably safe the 2nd trimester, but must be avoided the 3rd trimester due to risk of neonatal pulmonary HTN & other negative outcomes, many recommend avoiding all pregnancy.

A

NSAIDs

1904
Q

During the 2nd stage of labor variable decelerations are the result of —.

A

compression of the fetal head

1905
Q

In the 1st stage of labor, variable decelerations are caused by —.

A

umbilical cord occlusion

1906
Q

— can cause fetus HR variability that is minimal (<5 BPM) to marked (>25 BPM). Variable decelerations are considered severe when they last >60sec or drop 60 BPM below the baseline rate. A healthy fetus can tolerate HR drops into the 80s in some cases

A

Hypoxia

1907
Q

The 1st trimester is considered the most risky due to the — that takes place during this period (3-8wks).

A

organogenesis

1908
Q

Due to lack of studies, risk can’t be ruled out in category — drugs.

A

C

1909
Q

Category — drugs are ones that controlled studies have shown no risk.

A

A

1910
Q

Category — drugs show no evidence of human fetal risks. These are typically animal reproduction studies w/o performing controlled studies in pregnant women.

A

B

1911
Q

Fetal abnormalities have been clearly demonstrated w/ administration of category — drugs, & these drugs shouldn’t be given in any pregnancy situation.

A

X

1912
Q

In Category — Evidence of human fetal risk exists, but the benefits may outweigh the risk in the pregnant woman (gentamycin, phenobarbital, ACE inhibitors (ACEIs are category C in 1st trimester only), & thiazide diuretics).

A

D

1913
Q

Amniotic fluid embolism resembles — shock.

A

anaphylactic

1914
Q

Amniotic fluid embolism: The — phase is caused an intense but temporary pulmonary vasospasm secondary to vasoactive mediators being released. This causes severe pulmonary HTN & right HF w/ sudden cardiopulmonary collapse. This collapse leads to the hypoxemia, cyanosis, & HoTN seen in these pts. Severe anxiety or a sense of impending doom may be seen early on as well. In some cases, the right HF will resolve & this phase generally lasts <1hr.

A

1st

1915
Q

Amniotic fluid embolism: The — phase shows a left HF & pulmonary edema. It is a hemorrhagic phase with massive hemorrhage, uterine atony, & coagulopathies or DIC.

A

2nd

1916
Q

Amniotic fluid embolism is diagnosed based on 4 criteria:

A

1) acute HoTN or cardiac arrest 2) acute hypoxia 3) coagulopathy or severe hemorrhage in the absence of other explanation 4) occuring during labor, c-section, or w/in 30min postpartum.

1917
Q

Amniotic fluid embolism coagulopathy should be treated w/ 3:

A
  1. FFP for prolonged PTT
  2. cryoprecipitate for fibrinogen levels <100 mg/dL
  3. plt transfusions certainly for plt counts <20,000/uL
1918
Q

The detrusor muscle is responsible for micturation & urine storage, & is innervated by the sacral roots —.

A

2-4

1919
Q

Chest compressions are indicated if HR falls <— after 30sec of assisted ventilation, & should be ceased if the HR >—BPM

A

60 ; 60BPM

1920
Q

—: # of pregnancies a woman has had.

A

Graviditiy

1921
Q

—: # of pregnancies beyond 20wks gestation.

A

Parity

1922
Q

Abortions is the # of pregnancies that ended prior to —wks gestation.

A

20wks

1923
Q

Preterm pregnancies are deliveries between —wks.

A

20-36

1924
Q

The format used for reporting pregnancies is GPPAL:

A

G = Gravida P = Para , followed by Preterm pregnancies, Abortions, & # of Living children.

1925
Q

Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) should be given to Rh negative mothers w/ Rh positive fetuses w/in —hr of delivery or abortion. This only protects for the D antigen of the Rh system & not any other of the possible blood system antigens.

A

72hr

1926
Q

Chronic untreated hyperglycemia from mom can cause fetal — is frequently due to reduced CO or hypovolemia.

A

bradycardia

1927
Q

— symptoms are characterized by slight to severe pain in buttocks & legs, & can develop w/in a few hrs up to 24hrs after the spinal anesthetic is administered. It lasts at most 2dys. Lidocaine is more likely to cause this than bupivacaine, prilocaine, & procaine.

A

TNS

1928
Q

suggested therapy is — ml/kg of 20% intralipid as an initial bolus for any pt suffering from significant LA toxicity, followed by — ml/kg for 30-60min.

A

1.5 ; 0.25

1929
Q

— cause the relaxation of uterine muscle, & are used to prevent or delay preterm delivery. As the administration of steroids to the mother can decrease the incidence & severity of fetal lung immaturity & respiratory distress, these are frequently used to delay delivery until steroids have had at least some time to work

A

Tocolytics

1930
Q

— should be avoided in these pts that labor pts who are abusing heroin bc they are relatively contraindicated as they can precipitate a withdrawal syndrome.

A

Mixed opioid agonist/antagonists (nalbuphine)

1931
Q

4 functional stages of labor.

A

1st stage occurs b/n the onset of labor & full cervical dilation (10cm). This includes 2 phases, the latent phase (cervical effacement & early dilation) & the active phase (begins around 4cm, more rapid cervical dilation).
2nd stage of labor encompasses complete cervical dilation through delivery of the infant.
3rd stage begins immediately after delivery of the infant & ends with delivery of the placenta.
4th stage is the immediate postpartum period of 2hrs after deliver of the placenta, when the patient undergoes significant physiologic adjustment.

1932
Q

The root cause of increased airway edema is due to an increased level of — & increased circulating —.

A

estrogen ; blood volume.

1933
Q

A lack of fetal alcohol dehydrogenase prevents alcohol from being properly metabolised in the unborn infant, contributing to the development of —.

A

fetal alcohol syndrome.

1934
Q

The pregnant female at term requires smaller doses of LA than a nonpregnant female due to —.

A

venous engorgement.

1935
Q

Normally the fetus has a — pH than the mother.

A

lower

1936
Q

—: The lower fetal pH allows basic drugs (lidocaine) to cross the placenta in their non-ionized state, mostly by diffusion. Once in the fetal circulation, the non-ionized weakly basic drug (lidocaine or other LA) will become — in the lower pH fetus.

A

Ion Trapping ; ionized

1937
Q

A normal vaginal delivery & the period immediately afterwards typically sees blood loss of around —ml while a C-section typically results in —ml blood loss.

A

600mL ; 1000ml

1938
Q

— prevent Ca+ entry into muscle cells by blocking voltage-dependent cell membrane channels that are selective for Ca+, decreasing uterine muscle tone & providing for —.

A

Ca+ channel blockers (nifedipine) ; tocolysis

1939
Q

—: the most common side effects in pregnancy are HoTN, headache, & flushing. Adverse effects: possible decreases in uteroplacental blood flow, fetal hypoxia, pulmonary edema & MI. Short term use doesn’t seem to cause the decrease in uteroplacental blood flow or negatively effect fetal oxygenation.

A

Nifedipine

1940
Q

Ca+ channel blockers may also — side effects of Mg+ sulfate.

A

potentiate

1941
Q

Uterine blood flow increases greatly during pregnancy, from the baseline of 50-100 ml/min before pregnancy to ~700-900 ml/min at term. The increase in uterine blood flow is achieved by a — in uterine vascular resistance.

A

decrease

1942
Q

Increased circulating — causes up to a 40% decreased MAC requirement during pregnancy as well as a decreased requirement for LA used in neuraxial blockade.

A

progesterone

1943
Q

Propofol requirements are — during pregnancy.

A

unchanged

1944
Q

Greater levels of circulating — act as a respiratory stimulant & increases CO2 receptor sensitivity. alveolar dead space is decreased. These factors combined w/ an increase in total body CO2 production cause an increase in resting minute ventilation. This leads to faster uptake of inhaled anesthetics lowering MAC requirements.

A

progesterone

1945
Q

Increased circulating blood volume will — the duration of other meds (thiopental) as the increased volume lowers clearance of the drug.

A

increase

1946
Q

Sensitivity to LA is — lowering doses required by about 25% in the term pregnant pt compared to non-pregnant pt.

A

increased

1947
Q

Mg+ sulfate competes with Ca+ entry into the cells, — intracellular Ca+. It also — release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, reduces sensitivity of end plate to acetylcholine, & decreases excitability of muscle membrane. Side effects: flushing & headaches, & pts on Mg+ may appear sedate.

A

decreasing ; decreases

1948
Q

Therapeutic Mg+ levels b/n 6-8 mg/dL, but these levels do not correlate well to adequate — for every pt. Mg+ levels should be titrated to desired results & side effects. At high blood levels Mg+ may cause respiratory depression (12-15 mg/dL) or cardiac depression (> 15 mg/dL).

A

tocolysis

1949
Q

Mg+ is contraindicated in pts with — or —, & is renally excreted (pts w/ RF should receive very cautiously).

A

hypocalcemia or MG ;

1950
Q

— presynaptically decrease sympathetic output from the CNS.

A

Alpha 2 agonists (clonidine)

1951
Q

There is a 40% increase of CO by the end of the — trimester, & CO continues to rise through the 2nd trimester. It will eventually increase to —% greater than that of a nonpregnant female.

A

1st ; 50

1952
Q

The greatest increase in — is seen just after delivery of the fetus when there is up to an 80% increase in CO.

A

SV

1953
Q

Terbutaline is a — agonist w/ — effects, being more selective for — effects. This drug works by increasing cAMP, & is not commonly used in modern medicine due to significant side effects. Plus, the use of this adrenergic agents has not been associated w/ a decrease in overall perinatal morbidity & mortality resulting from preterm labor & birth.

A

beta ; beta 1 & beta 2 ; beta 2

1954
Q

—: main undesired side effects seen are maternal HoTN, tachycardia, pulmonary edema, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, & other side effects. Glucose levels rise rapidly after start of beta-adrenergic therapy secondary to glycogenolysis, & fall w/in 24hrs of cessation. Hypokalemia is seen as increased levels of insulin causes greater transport of K+ & glucose into the cell, but there is no “loss of K+” & treatment is not necessary. Fetal side effects include increased fetal HR & neonatal hypoglycemia (secondary to maternal hyperinsulinemia secondary to maternal hyperglycemia), but no long-term fetal effects have been noted.

A

Terbutaline

1955
Q

Apgar scores are taken at —&— & continue every 5min until either 2 scores of 8 are obtained OR 20min time has elapsed.

A

1min & 5min

1956
Q

Apgar scores of — indicate an infant that requires no active resuscitation, & — show a mildly to mod depressed infant. Scores of — shows a severely depressed infant & requires immediate resuscitation.

A

7-10 ; 4-7 ; <4

1957
Q

—: a woman who is currently in labor

A

parturient

1958
Q

—: a woman who has just recently given birth

A

puerpera

1959
Q

—: a woman who is in or who has just experienced her 1st pregnancy

A

primagravida

1960
Q

—: a woman who has delivered 1 pregnancy that progressed beyond the gestational age of an abortion.

A

primapara

1961
Q

An infant who weighs <—g at birth is considered a low birth weight infant regardless of gestational age. An infant who weighs <—g at birth is considered a very low birth weight infant. <—g at birth is an extremely low birth weight infant.

A

2500g ; 1500g ; 1000g

1962
Q

During pregnancy, — levels & clotting factors (—,—,—,—,—) are all increased leading to a hypercoagulable state.

A

fibrinogen ; VII, VIII, IX, X, & XII

1963
Q

The axillary roll, placed just —, is designed to take the weight off the upper thorax & place it on the chest rather than the axilla itself. This decreases the likelihood of injury to the —.

A

caudad to the axilla ; brachial plexus

1964
Q

Pressure alopecia may occur where a pts hair falls out secondary to pressure on the head when a pt is —

A

supine

1965
Q

Overextension of the neck has not been associated w/ — injuries.

A

brachial plexus

1966
Q

Most inhalation agents decrease cerebral metabolic O2 requirements, — increases them. Like the other inhaled agents, nitrous oxide also — ICP through increases in cerebral blood flow & cerebral blood volume.

A

nitrous oxide ; increases

1967
Q

Sevoflurane, isoflurane, & desflurane will — blood flow through the hepatic artery to varying degrees.

A

increase

1968
Q

Increasing CO would — be of benefit sevo increasing level

A

not

1969
Q

During pregnancy, —,—,— decrease, while —&— increase.

A

Plt levels, albumin levels, & Hb levels ; white cell counts & blood volume

1970
Q

Hypothermic pts, on alpha 2 agonists, elderly, acutely alcohol intoxicated, pregnant pts, IV or neuraxial opioids, lidocaine, & pts w/ hyponatremia have — MAC requirements.

A

decreased

1971
Q

From least to most metabolized of the volatile anesthetic agents is —,—,—,—,—.

A

nitrous oxide, des, iso, sevo, & halothane

1972
Q

—&— are considered least irritating of inhaled anesthetics making them the recommended choices for inhaled inductions.

A

Halothane & sevo

1973
Q

Irritating Volatile Anesthetics =

A

DIE = Desflurane, Iso & Enflurane

1974
Q

— is by far the most potent trigger of MH of the volatile agents.

A

Halothane

1975
Q

— is a respiratory depressant, decreasing pts hypoxic drive, but its effects are < other volatile anesthetics.

A

Nitrous oxide

1976
Q

Nitrous oxide causes the — amount of overall CV change in an otherwise healthy, euvolemic pt. As nitrous oxide releases catecholamines to cause sympathetic stimulation, the net result of CO, BP, & HR is a largely — overall cardiac function. This is despite nitrous oxide causing a — in cardiac contraction.

A

least ; unchanged ; decrease

1977
Q

MAC requirements by age from highest to lowest MAC concentration needs: 5

A

infant, neonate, children, adults, geriatrics.

1978
Q

All volatile anesthetics produce a dose dependent — in the ventilatory response to hypercarbia & hypoxemia.

A

depression

1979
Q

Isoflurane will cause an increase in serum fluoride levels but does not lead to — even after prolonged exposure. Halothane does decrease GFR & overall renal blood flow, but not — does not occur due to its use – the decrease is likely due to the myocardial depressant activity of halothane with a fall in CO.

A

nephrotoxicity ; nephrotoxicity

1980
Q

Nonsmoking pts administered — will not have a great change in airway pressures or resistance. Smoking pts may see a transient increase in airway resistance that is typically mild.

A

desflurane

1981
Q

—,—,— w/ poor or no vascularization makes up the vessel poor group.

A

Bones, cartilage, & other connective tissue

1982
Q

The vessel rich group receives —% of the total CO & is the 1st group to take up the most volatile anesthetic agent. This is followed by the muscle group & then the fat group.

A

75

1983
Q

— is best avoided in pts w/ hepatic pathology. It is the greatest metabolized inhalational agent w/ ~20% being metabolized by the liver. It decreases CO to the greatest degree & causes decreased coronary blood flow as the output falls.

A

Halothane

1984
Q

Although — is a pungent, irritating agent that is ill-suited for inhalational induction, it is an effective bronchodilator.

A

isoflurane

1985
Q

— is best avoided due to the possibility of causing or worsening anemia.

A

Nitrous oxide

1986
Q

The mechanism of anemia & neurological changes is that — converts vitamin B12 (cobalamin) from the active form to the inactive form, leading to a megaloblastic (in this case B12 deficient) anemia. As vitamin B12 is a coenzyme of methionine synthase (& methionine synthase is required to develop DNA and RNA), symptoms such as paresthesias & other neurological findings may occur w/ it. Anemia & neurological symptoms are known to be caused by it when used for long durations or when it is used by pts w/ low amounts of B12 stores (elderly or chronically malnourished). While there are many causes of megaloblastic anemia & neuropathies, it induced causes are of particular concern to anesthesia bc they are causes that we directly affect.

A

nitrous oxide

1987
Q

— abuse or overuse can also lead to other problems related to low serum B12, including myeloneuropathies causing paresthesias & motor dysfunction. Bone marrow depression & aplastic anemia have also been reported, usually related to long term use at high concentrations. Other related problems :neurological deficits, including dizziness, inability to concentrate, & possible negative reproductive effects.

A

nitrous oxide

1988
Q

— should be avoided in pts w/ CAD or renal disease, but not necessarily in pts w/ a primary anemia (ie. not caused by RF).

A

Ketorolac

1989
Q

— should be avoided in diabetics but not in anemics.

A

Dexamethasone

1990
Q

—&— cause the least decrease in RBF.

A

Sevoflurane & desflurane

1991
Q

—,—&— cause the greatest degree of RBF reduction.

A

Halothane, isoflurane, & nitrous oxide

1992
Q

All inhaled agents cause a — in hepatic blood flow as well.

A

decrease

1993
Q

Young pts, chronic alcohol abusers, & those acutely intoxicated w/ cocaine or methamphetamine have — MAC requirements.

A

increased

1994
Q

Chronic methamphetamine abusers, people on barbs or benzos, those acutely intoxicated w/ alcohol, & hypothermics all will have — MAC requirements.

A

decreased

1995
Q

Thyroid disorders — effect MAC requirements.

A

do not

1996
Q

Nitrous oxide — provide skeletal muscle relaxation.

A

does not

1997
Q

Nitrous oxide & all volatile anesthetics do — skeletal muscle blockade caused by depolarizing & non-depolarizing drugs.

A

potentiate

1998
Q

All of the currently used inhaled anesthetic agents — tidal volume & — RR. Cerebral blood flow is also — in all of the inhaled agents & renal blood flow is — in all agents as well.

A

decrease ; increase ; increase ; decreased

1999
Q

Induction of anesthesia produces 15-20% reduction in —.

A

FRC

2000
Q

The hyoid bone is felt at level of — & used as attachment muscles of floor of mouth, tongue, larynx, epiglottis, & pharynx.

A

C3

2001
Q

— inhalational agent should be avoided in pts w/ long QT syndrome. Likely a dose-dependent prolongation of QT interval.

A

Sevo

2002
Q

—has the least impact on HR of all volatile anesthetics.

A

Sevo

2003
Q

— is not a very stable chemical compound, & as such it is stored in amber colored bottles & contains a thymol preservative (to prevent degradation by light).

A

Halothane

2004
Q

—causes least vasodilation. — causes most vasodilation, then —&— vasodilate about same extent.

A

Halothane ; Iso ; des & sevo

2005
Q

The muscle group receives —% of CO. The vessel rich group receives —% of CO. The fat group receives —% of CO.

A

20 ; 75 ; 5

2006
Q

— has some sympathomimetic properties & causes a slight increase or no change in CO.

A

Nitrous oxide

2007
Q

— may cause a decrease in HT along w/ CO as it blunts the normal increased HR response seen with a decrease in SVR.

A

Halothane

2008
Q

— may increase HR, & — does as well as volatile agent.

A

Des ; iso

2009
Q

External intercostal muscles can help augment —, & during labored breathing sterncoleidomastoid, pectoralis & scalene muscles also contribute to — effort.

A

inspiration ; inspiration

2010
Q

— dyspnea is a condition where a pt develops sudden severe shortness of breath & panic, often awakening the pt from sleep. may occur when a failing LV is being supplied by an adequately pumping RV, leading to sudden right sided HF & pulmonary congestion.

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal

2011
Q

—: where the pt has shortness of breath sitting up which is relieved by lying down.

A

Platypnea

2012
Q

—: is the term used to describe shortness of breath when laying flat.

A

Orthopnea

2013
Q

The trachea begins at the — cervical vertebrae in the adult. The level of the cricoid cartilage begins just below — & continues to — level.

A

6th ; C6 ; C7

2014
Q

During inspiration, unless it is max, the vocal cords will be found in positions in b/n —&—.

A

paramedian & lateral

2015
Q

Gas exchange begins at generation — (terminal bronchioles).

A

17

2016
Q

The avg adult minute ventilation in an adult pt is —L/min. Minute ventilation is measured as: Minute ventilation = RR x TV.

A

5-8

2017
Q

The — muscle is the only laryngeal muscle that is innervated by the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve. The function of this system is to tense the muscle to control phonation & pitch.

A

cricothyroid

2018
Q

One of the biggest issues w/ single lung ventilation is the iatrogenic — that occur, meaning that oxygenated blood from the ventilated, dependent lung, mixes w/ blood from the non-dependent, non-ventilated blood causing lowered FiO2 values. Even with 100% Fi02 PaO2 values may be lower than 80% in about 25% of the population, & <60mmHg in about 10% of pts under the best anesthetic management. Although increased FiO2 requirements are problematic, they are expected in nearly all cases due to the complex changes that occur in pulmonary blood flow & ventilation during these procedures. Right ventricular preload is not generally a major issue due directly to the one lung ventilation, & increased peak airway pressures are also expected in these cases by definition.

A

right to left shunt

2019
Q

A single abnormal pulmonary function test — contraindicate surgery.

A

does not

2020
Q

The — nerve is responsible for bronchoconstriction & increased bronchial secretions via muscarinic cholinergic receptors. As this nerve is responsible for bronchoconstriction, anticholinergic drugs (inhaled ipratropium bromide) can be used to block cholinergic mediated bronchoconstriction. Other anticholinergics (atropine & glycopyrrolate) are used to block the mediated bronchial secretions.

A

vagus

2021
Q

The avg adult airway contains ~— alveoli in the adult. This compares to — alveoli in the newborn. The alveoli are the primary units of gas exchange, & mark the very end of the respiratory tree.

A

300 million ; 20-50 million

2022
Q

Vital capacity is —mL/kg in a healthy adult pt.

A

60-70

2023
Q

The — nerves supply the cricothyroid muscles, causing tension of the vocal cords.

A

superior laryngeal

2024
Q

The hypopharynx is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve, a branch of the — nerve. The hypopharynx includes the area of the pharynx from the hyoid bone down to the cricoid cartilage.

A

vagus

2025
Q

Pulmonary embolism leads to a — pulmonary edema. This pulmonary edema is seen as fluid in the alveolar sacs that is not caused by a cardiogenic process.

A

non-cardiogenic

2026
Q

ARDS is a major cause of — pulmonary edema, & has causes including transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), pulmonary embolism, opioid overdose, eclampsia, & sepsis. SARS also causes a — pulmonary edema, as can high altitudes & neurologic injury that causes significant catecholamine release.

A

noncardiogenic ; noncardiogenic

2027
Q

Alcohol intoxication, cocaine overdose, myocarditis, & mitral & aortic regurgitation can lead to — pulmonary edema.

A

cardiogenic

2028
Q

—: located in the interstitial alveolar tissue & supplied by the vagus nerve are responsible for responding to edema & swelling of the tissues. Besides responding to pulmonary edema, these receptors also respond to pulmonary microemboli, overinflation of the lungs, & pneumonia & anything else that causes stretching of the alveoli. When these receptors are stimulated, inspiration is prematurely terminated which results in more rapid & shallow breathing & an increase in minute ventilation.

A

Juxtacapillary receptors (or “stretch receptors”)

2029
Q

— position of vocal cords is found when a pt has received paralytic or during rest. This position is also found during end expiration.

A

Paramedian or cadaveric

2030
Q

Type — pneumocytes produce surfactant which is required to reduce surface tension in the alveoli & preventing the alveoli from collapsing during expiration. Pulmonary cells are differentiated during development, & by 25wks These are beginning to produce enough surfactant for the fetus to survive outside of the body. This is not enough surfactant however to prevent infant respiratory distress syndrome, & it is not until the mid 30wks that adequate surfactant is produced to provide more ideal pulmonary function after delivery.

A

2

2031
Q

Type — pneumocytes are tight junction cells that prevent passage of materials into the alveolar sacs.

A

1

2032
Q

— are glial cells in the brain that help provide support to various brain cells & help control the cerebral physiological environment.

A

Astrocytes

2033
Q

— cells are found in the dermis & are antigen presenting cells with functions similar to macrophages.

A

Langerhans

2034
Q

— cells are made up of a variety of subtypes in the pancreas.

A

Islet

2035
Q

The more commonly referred to cells are — cells which secrete insulin, — cells which secrete glucagon, & — cells which secrete somatostatin.

A

beta ; alpha ; delta

2036
Q

The avg adult trachea is —cm in length.

A

10-15

2037
Q

Thoracic roots — provide sympathetic activation which leads to bronchodilation & decreased secretions via beta 2 receptors agonism.

A

T1-T4

2038
Q

The respiratory bronchioles are where gas exchange starts & corresponds to generation — in the airway.

A

17

2039
Q

Nitrous oxide is — at room temperature.

A

liquid

2040
Q

Cirrhotic pts produce increased levels of nitric oxide which cause chronic —, — vascular resistance, & — CO. Bc of this they may be chronically HoTN.

A

vasodilation ; decreased ; increase

2041
Q

— is the most common sign of pulmonary embolism occurring in up to 70% of affected pts. —&— are the next most commonly found objective signs. Acute onset of — is the most commonly elicited historical component occurring in up to 75% of pts. Keep in mind that the s/s of PE are non-specific & rarely can be diagnosed by history & physical exam alone.

A

Tachypnea ; Rales & tachycardia ; dyspnea

2042
Q

Remember that —&— are not helpful in excluding or diagnosing PE as they are frequently normal.

A

ABG readings & pulse ox

2043
Q

— is used in the treatment of hyperkalemia however but it does not directly reduce serum K+ concentrations. It has been shown to stabilize the cardiac membrane to the arrhythmogenic effects of the elevated K+ concentrations allowing more time for treatment prior to arrhythmia development.

A

Ca+ gluconate

2044
Q

All that reduce K+ serum levels: 4

A

bicarbonate, Stimulation of sympathetic beta receptors, insulin, kayexalate

2045
Q

Plasma osmolality is a measurement of ions in the blood & is normally — mOsm.

A

280

2046
Q

Oculocardiac reflex, also known as trigeminocardiac reflex, is a decrease in pulse rate or new onset heart block caused by traction applied to extra-ocular muscles or compression of the eye, secondary to stimulation of the — nerve.

A

trigeminal

2047
Q

The trigeminal afferent nerves synapse with the vagus nerve of the — nervous system’s motor nucleus. Vagal stimulation then travels to the heart causing bradyarrhythmias & heart blocks.

A

parasympathetic

2048
Q

— coma is a severe hypothyroidism that presents w/ decreased mental status & hypothermia. A history of hypothyroidism or Iodine 131 therapy to treat hyperthyroidism may be indicators. HoTN, bradycardia, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, & hypoventilation are often too.

A

Myxedema

2049
Q

— pts have severe & life-threatening symptoms of hyperthyroidism. HR can exceed 140BPM & CHF may be present. Temp of 104-106 degrees F are common, along w/ agitation, delierium psychosis & coma. Hepatic failure & jaundice can occur.

A

Thyrotoxicosis

2050
Q

— syndrome is a cause of sudden cardiac arrest & death in pts w/ apparently normal hearts. This syndrome is detected by obtaining an ECG on the effected pt. ECG will show ST segment elevation in leads V1 to V3.

A

Brugada

2051
Q

— syndrome is a cardiac condition in which a chronic left to right intra-cardiac shunt causes right ventricular (or atrial) hypertrophy eventually reversing the flow of blood through the defect. Due to the higher right side cardiac pressures systemic HoTN would cause an increase in deoxy blood flow through the defect causing hypoxemia. In these pts, conditions causing elevated PAP will increase the abnormal flow as well. Aggressive pulmonary physiotherapy post op to prevent atelectasis or pneumonia is indicated. Due to the dilation & hypertrophy caused by the syndrome these pts are at higher risk than avg for intraop arrhythmia & care should be taken to be prepared should such an event occur. In addition the risk of systemic air embolism is increased in these pts due to the abnormal right to left side blood flow. Air should be removed from all IV lines & air filter should be used.

A

Eisenmenger

2052
Q

Maintaining strict — is of key importance for MS pts.

A

temp

2053
Q

Droperidol is contraindicated in — disease, among other disease, due to its antagonism of dopamine receptors.

A

Parkinson’s

2054
Q

— meds (donepezil) (used commonly in Alzheimer disease) seem to help improve the cognitive function in pts w/ MS.

A

Anticholinesterase

2055
Q

— has no use in the treatment or management of a typical MS pt, & dehydration can cause stress leading to an exacerbation.

A

Fluid restriction

2056
Q

— deficiency is a congenital inherited disorder manifesting w/ early onset hepatic disease &/or early onset emphysema depending on the genotypic allele pattern present in the pt.

A

Alpha-1 Antitrypsin (AAT)

2057
Q

Propofol infusion syndrome are as follows: metabolic —, lipemia, rhabdomyolisis, HF, RF, hepatic dysfunction, elevated LFT, elevated troponins, elevated lactate. Recognize that these lab values represent hepatic, cardiac, renal, & muscular damage w/ lipemia & lactic acidosis. Treatment is w/ —,—,—

A

acidosis ; charcoal hemoperfusion, cessation of propofol, & supportive measures.

2058
Q

— is a disorder which occurs when a large amount of hypo-osmolar fluids are used in irrigation of the surgical field. Because this syndrome is caused by absorption of hypo-osmolar, non-electrolyte containing solutions, only 1.5% — solution holds a substantial risk of causing it. The reason is that the electrocautery devices used in these procedures are mono-polar. This leads to hyponatremia & serum hypo-osmolarity causing cerebral edema. The symptoms are thus confusion, nausea, & irritability, & in the case of associated glycine toxicity, temporary blindness.

A

TURP syndrome ; glycine

2059
Q

— occurs during an acidotic state bc the body attempts to normalize pH by exchanging extracellular H+ ions for intracellular K+. Peripheral — occurs because acidemia seems to augment peripheral responses to nitric oxide & other vasodilators & decrease responses to circulating catecholamines.

A

Hyperkalemia ; vasodilation

2060
Q

Glucose — affect the serum osmolal gap. Osmolal gap is a calculation to estimate excess osmotically active solutes in the blood.

A

does not

2061
Q

An elevated osmolal gap can be found in: 5

A

alcohol ingestions, excess glycine (during TURP), severe hyperlipidemia, DKA, severe RF.

2062
Q

Goiter is associated with —.

A

hypothyroidism

2063
Q

—&— slow the progression of CKD by lowering the glomerular filtration pressure in kidney.

A

ACE-I & angiotensin receptor blockers

2064
Q

The — # is used to test a pt for pseudocholinesterase deficiency.

A

Dibucaine

2065
Q

Classic pheochromocytoma triad: 3

A

1) sustained or paroxysmal HTN 2) headache 3) generalized sweating.

2066
Q

The mild release of K+ (—mEq) from muscle cells that normally accompanies the administration of succ is magnified & can result in life threatening hyperkalemia in pts w/ pre-existing neurologic & muscular disorders (—mEq increase). It has been well documented to happen in Guillain-Barre syndrome as well as chronic immobilization, spinal chord lesions, & other disorder resulting in muscle paralysis, disuse &/or chronic denervation. The phenomenon is likely due to over sensitization of the damaged myocytes to the depolarizing effects of succ.

A

0.5mEq ; 5-10mEq

2067
Q

3 stages of heat loss & movement during anesthesia:

A

1st phase (redistribution), 2nd stage (linear stage), 3rd stage (steady state)

2068
Q

— causes a drop of temp in the central core of the body w/in the 1st hr of anesthesia due to redistribution of heat from the core to the peripheral tissues. This is greatest loss of heat.

A

1st phase (redistribution)

2069
Q

— is that of combo of reduced heat production & increased heat loss to the environment. This 2nd phase starts at the beginning of surgery & lasts from 2-3 hours where there is decreased heat production due to anesthetic agents, decreased heat production due to limited muscle activity, & further loss of heat to the environment due to convection, radiation, evaporation & conduction. Cold IV fluids also contribute to this heat loss stage.

A

2nd stage (linear stage)

2070
Q

— is that of a thermal steady state where the body’s production of heat equals the loss of heat to the environment & core temp becomes stable. This stage often not reached during most surgeries, & occurs when the temp drops sufficiently to activate peripheral vasoconstriction & reduce loss of peripherally shunted heat.

A

3rd stage

2071
Q

Administration of excessive concentrations of normal saline (0.9%) can cause a — metabolic acidosis from the excess chloride concentrations administered & dilution of serum bicarbonate levels. Additional causes include disorders which cause a net loss of bicarbonate ions (diarrhea, renal tubular acidosis & early acute RF).

A

hyperchloremic

2072
Q

Hyperchloremic acidoses are — acidoses as the body is able to compensatory raise serum Cl- concentrations to maintain electrical neutrality in these examples.

A

non-anion gap

2073
Q

A rough estimate of renal function deterioration can be surmised by the rule that for every doubling of the — about 1/2 of renal function is lost.

A

creatinine

2074
Q

Severe — causes lab reports to falsely show low Na+ levels.

A

HLD

2075
Q

— is the greatest cause of heat loss in a pt & is estimated to be —% of heat loss.

A

Radiation ; 40

2076
Q

— is heat transfer by electromagnetic waves, which carry energy away from the emitting object. Keeping the body covered helps decrease the body’s area exposed to the energy into its environment.

A

Radiation

2077
Q

— is responsible for around 30% of heat loss.

A

Convection

2078
Q

— is the form of heat transfer in liquids & gases, caused by fluid flow around the pt. The ambient temp of the room being set below the pt’s temp is a cause of this heat loss.

A

Convection

2079
Q

— is responsible for an estimated 20% of heat loss.

A

Evaporation

2080
Q

—: Water takes heat to turn into a vapor, & the heat in our case is provided by the human body. As the pt breathes & sweat evaporates, the energy (heat) from the pt’s body provides the water the ability to take the water from liquid to vapor form. The heat is transferred from the body to the vapor that drifts away. The heat the body uses to warm the gas traveling to the lungs is not a major cause of heat loss in our pts. Once intubated, the ventilator assists w/ helping maintain humidity & temp, decreasing the rate of respiratory heat loss.

A

Evaporation

2081
Q

— is believed to be responsible for around 10% of heat loss in pts.

A

Conduction

2082
Q

— heat loss is caused by direct contact to a surface that is colder than the pt; ex.: laying a pt on a cold bed surface.

A

Conductive

2083
Q

— is generally believed to be the last sense to be lost before the unconscious state is reached, & may be the 1st sense regained upon your pt’s emergence.

A

Hearing

2084
Q

— interval is a manifestation of a congenital disorder or of Ca+ and Mg+ abnormalities.

A

Prolonged QT

2085
Q

Midazolam’s quick onset is due to it’s high — solubility.

A

lipid

2086
Q

— is useful for irregular narrow complex tachycardias at a dose of 0.25mg/kg initially, or 20mg as appropriate in this pt. In common practice for the adult pt, 15-20mg is typically used although it is technically a weight-based med. This initial dose is given over 2min & may be repeated at 0.35mg/kg after 15min.

A

Diltiazem (Ca Channel blocker)

2087
Q

— is frequently used for a-fib, however other choices such as —or— are also good depending on the clinical situation.

A

Diltiazem ; beta blockers or verapamil

2088
Q

— antiarrhythmic medications work to alter or block Na+ channels and inhibit Phase 0 of cardiac depolarization. They also have modest K+ channel antagonism.

A

Class I

2089
Q

Class I drugs are further subdivided into class IA, IB, & IC. Class IA drugs have an — time of onset & termination, class IB drugs have the rapid onset of action & termination, & Class IC drugs have the — onset & termination of action.

A

intermediate ; rapid ; slowest

2090
Q

The earliest sign of an ST elevation MI is — waves.

A

peaked (or “hyperacute”) T

2091
Q

pericardial tamponade will lead to:

A

lowered BP, muffled heart tones, & jugular venous distension (Beck’s triad)

2092
Q

Measurement of ST depression or elevation should occur at 0.08seconds (2 small boxes) past the — point.

A

J

2093
Q

The — is the point where the end of the QRS occurs, beginning the ST segment. It is where depolarization ends & repolarization begins.

A

J point

2094
Q

Defibrillation: Dosing for peds should start at —Joules/kg. If this fails to convert the rhythm, the 2nd dose should be at —Joules/kg or higher but not to exceed — Joules/kg or —J (the suggested adult dose).

A

2 ; 4 ; 10 or 200

2095
Q

— is indicated in the treatment of v-fib or ventricular tachycardia w/o a pulse, working by depolarizing the entire myocardium to allow restoration of normal electrical conduction. When possible, use ped adhesive pads instead of adult pads.

A

Defibrillation

2096
Q

A pt in pulseless v-tach or v-fib should be administered — at a dose of —mg in a bolus. After defibrillation & continued CPR, its dosing may be repeated at —mg if the 1st dose is unsuccessful.

A

amiodarone ; 300 ; 150mg

2097
Q

— is by far the drug of choice for ventricular & atrial dysrhythmias for any pt w/ an EF of <40% or CHF is otherwise present –drugs such as verapamil are contraindicated in these pts.

A

Amiodarone

2098
Q

The PR interval is measured from the beginning of the P wave to the 1st part of the QRS complex (Q wave or R wave). It is normally <— seconds. The PR segment includes the period of atrial depolarization & conduction through the His-Purkinje system. Any prolongation of the PR interval is typically caused by slowed AV node conduction.

A

0.20

2099
Q

A normal QRS complex lasts <— seconds (<— very small EKG strip boxes).

A

0.12 ; 3

2100
Q

For peds pt, the 1st cardioversion dose is — Joule/kg w/ the next doses at — J/kg if needed.

A

0.5-1 ; 2

2101
Q

— is indicated for pts w/ a reentrant electrical dysrhymia. It stops the reentrant electrical conduction, allowing normal depolarization from the SA node through to the Purkinje system to resume. Pts w/ unstable vital signs who are in cardiac rhythms such as SVT, ventricular tachycardia w/ a pulse, a-fib, & a-flutter

A

Cardioversion

2102
Q

Lidocaine for v-fib or v-tach & pulsatile stable v-tach should be dosed at — mg/kg. Dosing may be repeated every 5-10min as a bolus at a rate of 0.5-1 mg/kg if the rhythm doesn’t convert –the max dose is —mg/kg. After successful resuscitation, a drip of lidocaine should be started at a rate of 1-4 mg/minute (or 20–50 mcg/kg/min).

A

1-1.5 ; 3

2103
Q

Lidocaine: If there is no IV present, the same dosing schedule may be used through an intraosseous needle. ETT administration should be at — the IV dose diluted in 10mL of — (normal saline is adequate, but this has greater absorption).

A

2x ; sterile water

2104
Q

— provides K+ channel blocking (primary mechanism), Na+ blocking (class IB), Ca+ blocking, & sympathetic blocking properties. Blocking of K+ channels prolong the time of repolarization & the refractory period.

A

Amiodarone

2105
Q

Left ventricular hypertrophy causes — axis deviation.

A

left

2106
Q

Causes of — axis deviation: PE, COPD, cor pulmonale, lateral wall MI, & right ventricular hypertrophy.

A

right

2107
Q

ECG findings of ST elevation MI most likely seen in order: Peaked — waves, ST segment —, Q wave development, T wave —.

A

T ; elevation ; inversion

2108
Q

— at 1-2g should be administered to any pt w/ polymorphic v-tach (Torsades de Pointes) even if serum is thought to be normal. After initial dosing, an infusion drip of 0.5-1g/hr should be continued. It is also useful for pts w/ long QT syndrome who are at significant risk for conversion to polymorphic v-tach an excellent candidate for this is a pt w/ a QTc of >450millisecs who has a bradycardic rhythm & frequent PVCs.

A

Mg+ sulfate

2109
Q

— complicates diagnosis of MI, bc it changes how ventricles depolarize & leads to its own ST segment & T wave changes.

A

LBBB

2110
Q

— is not associated w/ QT prolongation & is useful to treat Torsades de Pointes & v-fib.

A

Lidocaine

2111
Q

Meds such as procainamide, amiodarone, methadone, droperidol, & ondansetron are known to — QT intervals. Antipsychotics (haloperidol) & tricyclic antidepressants also do to.

A

prolong

2112
Q

— is administered at 2.5-5mg IV for the treatment of irregular narrow complex tachycardic rhythms, including a-fib, multifocal a-tach, & a-flutter. Given over 2min & may be repeated in 15-30min at a dose of 5-10mg. It decreases SVR.

A

Verapamil

2113
Q

—: is absolutely contrainidacted in pts w/ WPW syndrome due to its ability to send the pt into v-fib.

A

Verapamil

2114
Q

ST-T wave changes seen in left ventricular hypertrophy are typically seen in — leads (—,—,—). These signs can be seen as T wave inversion & ST depression.

A

anterolateral leads (I, aVL, V4-V6)

2115
Q

Left axis deviation, left atrial hypertrophy, & increased amplitude of the QRS complex R wave in —&—.

A

aVL & V5-V6

2116
Q

Procainamide is dosed at —mg/min until rate controlled.

A

20

2117
Q

— is useful to treat hemodynamically stable v-tach & a-fib w/ an uncontrolled ventricular response. The dose is started at 20mg/min & continued until either the QRS widens by >50%, HoTN develops, or a max dose of 17mg/kg is administered. If an emergent situation is present, procainamide can be administered at 50mg/minute. After successful treatment of the dysrhythmia, a continuous infusion of 1-4mg/minute drip is administered.

A

Procainamide

2118
Q

— is not to be used for unstable v-tach or v-fib.

A

Procainamide

2119
Q

—&—, both useful for SVTs, should not be used in any pt w/ a QTc interval of >450 milliseconds.

A

Procainamide & sotalol

2120
Q

V-tach w/ a pulse should have an initial dose of —J, not —J.

A

100J ; 200J

2121
Q

A-fib dosing for cardioversion may start at —J biphasic, a-flutter —J biphasic, & v-fib or polymorphic v-tach (Torsades de Pointes) at —J.

A

50-100J ; 50J ; 200J

2122
Q

Use of antiarrhythmic agents can help result in more succesful cardioversion at lower doses. This has been successfully done by combining — or — w/ cardioversion in therapy for a-fib for instance.

A

amiodarone or sotalol

2123
Q

— drugs are the Ca+ channel blockers such as verapamil & diltiazem. Ca+ channel blockers slow firing of the SA node & slow conduction through AV node through increasing AV refractory period & prolonging AV conduction. On the EKG an increased PR interval may be seen.

A

Class IV

2124
Q

— rhythm is most often found during myocardial reperfusion. It is seen as a wide complex ventricular rhythm at a rate of 40-100 (typically 40-60). >100BPM it is referred to as v-tach. Reperfusion may occur as a pt comes off of cardiopulmonary bypass or after interventional cardiology procedures such as arterial stenting. In these cases beta blockers may be beneficial, but the rhythm typically should not be treated with anti-arrhythmics as the pt may convert to asystole.

A

Accelerated idioventricular

2125
Q

A pt w/ WPW syndrome must not be given certain — blocking drugs to control ventricular rate in the event of a-fib w/ a rapid ventricular response. The contraindicated drugs include —,—&—.

A

AV node ; verapamil, digoxin, & adenosine

2126
Q

Pts w/ — have their AV conduction travel through a path that bypasses the AV node, causing “pre-excitation” which is seen as rapid ventricular firing. Blocking AV nodal conduction further will cause the accessory tract to be favored. These drugs if given will enhance the ventricular rate & can lead to v-fib & death.

A

WPW

2127
Q

Pts with WPW syndrome, IV — is the most dangerous of these drugs to give. Not only does it block the AV node & increase its refractory period, it also has a direct effect in reducing myocardial contraction & SVR.

A

verapamil

2128
Q

— has lead to v-fib when given to a pt in a-fib w/ WPW syndrome.

A

Verapamil

2129
Q

— is contraindicated in a-fib in any situation.

A

Adenosine

2130
Q

When WPW is mentioned, — is the drug of choice according to current ACLS guidelines. See WPW, think this unless a contraindication to the drug exists.

A

procainamide

2131
Q

The vertical deflection on the ECG is a display of detected voltage. A 10mm deflection vertically equals — mV on the standard EKG. 10mm equals 10 of the small boxes.

A

1

2132
Q

Hypokalemia may lead to prominent - waves.

A

U

2133
Q

Although U waves may be normal in healthy individuals, certain conditions such as —,—, & certain meds such as — can also cause U waves.

A

hypokalemia, intracranial hemorrhage ; amiodarone

2134
Q

A pt in complete heart block can not be treated w/ —, which only increases the SA rate & is blocked from increasing the ventricular rate. AV dissociation can not be treated by increasing the SA rate due to the antimuscarinic effects of it only increasing the atrial contraction rate, which is not translated to increasing the ventricular rate. Interventions that are beneficial in this rhythm include transcutaneous pacing, epi infusion, & dopamine infusion which all work to increase the ventricular rate. These interventions can be used either until the situation resolves or until a permanent pacemaker is installed.

A

atropine

2135
Q

Anesthesia services typically use a minimum of —mm of ST segment depression as a sign of ischemia.

A

1mm

2136
Q

The auscultation of — prolapse is a mid-systolic click followed by a murmur through the remainder of the systolic cycle. The sounds represent the prolapsed valve reaching max prolapse, then, as the valve becomes incompetent, blood flow regurgitates into the left atria causing the murmur. The murmur has characteristics which can be changed by increasing or decreasing ventricular volume. The characteristic “click” of its prolapse will move closer to S1 when left ventricular volume is decreased such as w/ sitting, standing or valsalva. It will move further from S1 when left ventricular end-diastolic volume is increased such as w/ hand grip maneuvers, laying supine, or squatting. This murmur will be loudest heard over the apex.

A

mitral valve

2137
Q

“—” refers to cardiac contractile rate.

A

Chronotropy

2138
Q

“—” refers to cardiac muscle fiber relaxation.

A

Lusitropy

2139
Q

Pure — HF is is a condition in which the S/S of HF are present while there remains a preserved ventricular EF. The problem with this HF is w/ — of the ventricle.

A

diastolic ; filling

2140
Q

the problem w/ — HF is — which is directly correlated to EF.

A

systolic ; contraction

2141
Q

A dilated left ventricle w/ minimal EF & elevated end diastolic pressures best describes left ventricular — failure.

A

systolic

2142
Q

Low CO caused by decreased preload from hypovolemia & low left ventricular diastolic pressures is — shock.

A

hypovolemic

2143
Q

HoTN from an infectious cause w/ preserved CO & low end diastolic volume describes — shock.

A

septic

2144
Q

Elevated PAP w/ eventual decreased right ventricular EF describes a condition known as —.

A

cor pulmonale

2145
Q

— med (“coronary steal syndrome”) is useful for most indications

A

Nitroprusside

2146
Q

— med for cardiac ischemia or HF

A

nitroglycerin

2147
Q

— med for aortic dissection

A

beta blockade (esmolol)

2148
Q

— med for renal insufficiency

A

fenoldopam

2149
Q

— is a phenomenon w/ parenteral nutrition

A

Hyperglycemia

2150
Q

The — is the best test to determine the degree of anticoagulation present from heparin therapy.

A

activated PTT test (aPTT)

2151
Q

The PTT is used to assess the — pathway & the — pathway of clot formation. PTT evaluates factors —,—,—,—,—,—,—&—.

A

intrinsic ; common ; I (fibrinogen), II (prothrombin), V, VIII, IX, X, XI, & XII

2152
Q

— inactivates factor II (prothrombin) which prevents the formation of thromboplastin. These actions are present for about 4-6hrs after dosing of heparin.

A

Heparin

2153
Q

Activated PTT has additives to the testing reagents to shorten & narrow the time of results, where normal values should be between —sec. Traditional PTT’s normal range is —sec.

A

30-40sec ; 60-70sec

2154
Q

LR produces a metabolic — as the lactate is converted to bicarbonate in the liver.

A

alkalosis

2155
Q

— metabolic — may be seen after large amounts of Na+ Cl- being administered. It produces a non-anion gap metabolic acidosis.

A

Hyperchloremic ; acidosis

2156
Q

—,—,—&— are all found in cryoprecipitate.

A

Factor VIII, XIII, fibrinogen, & vWF factor

2157
Q

Administration of plts is not indicated typically unless the plt count is <— cells/mm^3.

A

50,000

2158
Q

— for plts, cryoprecipitate, & FFP are considered universal donors. This is the exact opposite of blood in which — is the universal donor. Likewise, — plts, cryoprecipitate & FFP are considered universal recipients for these products.

A

AB+ ; O- ; O-

2159
Q

Cirrhosis, Viral infection, B12 deficiency, Sepsis may cause a — plt count.

A

decreased

2160
Q

— is also seen in polycythemia vera, rheumatoid arthritis, & postsplenectomy syndrome.

A

Thrombocytosis

2161
Q

— TSH & — T4/T3 values will be seen w/ secondary hyperthyroidism.

A

Low TSH & high free T4/T3

2162
Q

Hyperthyroidism is almost always a — endocrine problem meaning that there is an overproduction of thyroid hormone (T4 & T3) from the thyroid gland itself. This will lead to a suppression of TSH from the anterior pituitary gland in a negative feedback loop, to suppress continued CNS signaling for thyroid hormone production.

A

peripheral

2163
Q

Hyperthyroidism (Graves Disease): —or— should be started 6 weeks prior to the procedure in order to achieve this state. — is very useful for ameliorating the symptoms of hyperthyroidism & the doses are titrated according to HR. — has a slight advantage for induction in hyperthyroid pts as it decreases the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 (a more active form of the thyroid hormone).

A

Propylthiouracil or methimazole ; Beta blockade ; Thiopental

2164
Q

Uncontrolled thyroid pts requiring prompt surgery can be quickly controlled by administering methimazole followed by high dose —. It reduces all stages of thyroid hormone production, IF given with a thyroid synthesis blocking agent (methimazole). It w/o premed will INCREASE thyroid hormone stores.

A

oral iodide

2165
Q

Preop, — 2mg IV Q 6hrs will decrease peripheral conversion of thyroid hormone to T3 (a more active from) allowing for better control.

A

dexamethasone

2166
Q

The most important step in the correction of DKA is adequate — followed by insulin administration. The insulin must be continued until the metabolic acidosis resolves to prevent further ketogenesis.

A

volume resuscitation

2167
Q

— anesthesia is preferred whenever possible in pts w/ Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy.

A

Regional

2168
Q

Pts w/ acromegaly suffer from narrowed upper airways and require — ETT.

A

smaller

2169
Q

Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS) is one of the 2 acute diabetic emergencies. Pts in HHS are usually older than 65 & suffer from —. They present with blood sugars >— & a serum osmolality of >—. Symptoms consist of lethargy, polyuria, & polydipsia, progressing to obtundation or coma over a matter of days (pts w/ DKA by comparison complain of severe abdominal pain & vomiting in the majority of cases that develops over 24-48hrs).

A

DM2 ; 600 ; 320

2170
Q

HHS pts generally suffer from a greater degree of — depletion than pts in DKA (9L on avg compared to 6L) as well as a greater deficiency in electrolytes such as —&—. Pts w/ HHS should not suffer from a — which can be useful in differentiating from DKA.

A

volume ; Na+ & K+ ; ketosis

2171
Q

Cricoid pressure must provide —lbs of force upon loss of consciousness (—Newtons) to be effective.

A

8-10lbs ; 30-40

2172
Q

Acute —, w/ its characteristic “millwheel murmur.

A

venous air embolism

2173
Q

Correction of severe hyponatremia should be done to cause an increase in serum Na+ of no more than — mEq/hr. Repletion rates too fast can cause shifts in cerebral cellular water concentrations causing cellular swelling leading to seizures & death. More aggressive treatment is required in pts w/ severe symptoms such as seizure, coma, or obtundation regardless of Na+ level due to the risk of brain herniation.

A

0.5

2174
Q

In pts w/ — as the primary cause of their hyponatremia, hypertonic saline (1ml/kg body wt/hr) must be used to correct the imbalance when these symptoms are present. If these symptoms are absent then more gradual measures may be taken (fluid restriction).

A

SIADH

2175
Q

Always monitor the serum Na+ every 2-3hrs during correction to avoid — from overly rapid correction.

A

central pontine myelinolysis

2176
Q

—coagulability is seen with hypothermia

A

Hypo

2177
Q

Hypothermia — the rate of emergence (both inhalational & TIVA). It can also — the rate of drug metabolism causing prolonged action or decrease blood blow preventing redistribution. Hypothermia also causes post-op shivering, — the risk of infection, & prolongs the total time for recovery.

A

slows ; slow ; increases ;

2178
Q

helium cylinders are colored —.

A

brown

2179
Q

Equation = Hourly Insulin infusion rate

A

Plasma Glucose/150

2180
Q

Administering 75% nitrous oxide will expand closed air spaces to — the original volume. The amount of nitrous oxide that will diffuse into a closed air space will be that which results in an equal concentration of nitrous oxide to the inspired level. To get the concentration in the pneumothorax to be 75% nitrous oxide, the original air would only be 25% of the total air. Thus, 600mL of nitrous oxide added to the 200mL of air would result in the desired concentration. The total amount of gas in the pneumothorax would be —ml.

A

4x ; 800 mL

2181
Q

The fail-safe device decreases/stops flow of all gases when pressure falls <—psi.

A

30psi

2182
Q

Soda lime can absorb —L for every 100g of absorbent, & barium hydroxide lime (BaraLyme) can absorb —L of CO2 per 100g of absorbent.

A

14-23 ; 9-18

2183
Q

— absorbents are designed to remove CO2 to prevent re-breathing of carbon dioxide which may lead to hypercapnia. Initially the pt’s exhaled CO2 combines with water (there is additional water contained w/in the soda lime) to create carbonic acid. This carbonic acid enters the carbon dioxide absorbent canister & interacts w/ the soda lime (or other absorbent) producing —,—,— carbonate.

A

Carbon dioxide ; water, heat, & Ca+

2184
Q

The actual VO2 is based on the pt’s —&—.

A

O2 content (CaO2 or CvO2) & CO.

2185
Q

The NMDA antagonism is non-competetive, & is likely the main mediator of the analgesia found in — use.

A

ketamine

2186
Q

Metformin can accumulate with renal insufficiency. It is believed to cause — by promoting the conversion of glucose to lactate in the splanchnic bed of the small intestine. It also inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis from lactate & pyruvate, which causes additional amounts of lactate.

A

lactic acidosis

2187
Q

metformin induced — almost always occurs in pts with renal or hepatic comorbidities or in the presence of sepsis or alcohol abuse. HF & any hypoxic or hypotensive states also increase the risk due to the increase presence of lactic acid.

A

lactic acidosis

2188
Q

metformin should be discontinued —hrs prior to surgery.

A

48 hours

2189
Q

— has been implicated in causing right vocal cord paralysis & laryngeal edema in a lupus-like syndrome (also known as drug-induced lupus erythematosus or DILE). Signs of drug-induced lupus erythematosus include arthralgias, fever, & development of rash on sun-exposed areas of skin.

A

Hydralazine

2190
Q

— is useful as an alkalinizing agent & given to pts at high risk for aspiration to quickly increase stomach pH, but also increases stomach volume.

A

Sodium citrate (Bicitra)

2191
Q

—or— which take significant time for the stomach pH to rise, sodium citrate provides immediate benefit.

A

proton pump inhibitors (omeprazole) or H2 blockers (famotidine)

2192
Q

— is a centrally acting alpha 2 agonist that works by presynaptically decreasing sympathetic output from the CNS.

A

Clonidine

2193
Q

Exaggerated responses to vasoactive medications may be seen in a patient taking — and under GA. Pts on this should not be administered —or—.

A

MAOIs ; meperidine or ephedrine.

2194
Q

— is an indirect thrombin inhibitor, forming a complex with AT III (antithrombin) causing deactivation of thrombin as well as factor Xa. It is the most efficacious drug to use in the treatment of pulmonary embolism.

A

Heparin

2195
Q

— mimics natural somatostatin by inhibiting serotonin release (carcinoid tumors release serotonin) along with the inhibition of gastrin, insulin, glucagon, & growth hormone. its actions in decreasing splanchnic BF.

A

Octreotide

2196
Q

— are rare, but are the most common GI neuroendocrine tumor. The ones that are local can be surgically resected, but others with metastasis require other therapy. Treatment of this syndrome is typically with octreotide, improving the symptoms of diarrhea & flushing in most pts. Extreme swings in BP with significant flushing, bronchoconstriction, dysrhythmias & altered mental status can last for hours or days.

A

Carcinoid tumors

2197
Q

— has some same side effects seen with all opioids, including causing nausea, vomiting & constipation. It is the opioid with antichoinergic effects. It causes orthostatic hypotension more so than other opioids, possibly due to alpha 2 agonism. Myocardial contractility is decreased by large doses. It causes an increase of HR rather than bradycardia that is typical of opioids. It can cause mydriasis (eye dilation) instead of miosis typically seen with opioids. Drying of secretions is also noted due to its anticholinergic effects.

A

Meperidine

2198
Q

—, a metabolite of meperidine, causes CNS effects including seizures in delirium – this is particularly seen in renal failure patients.

A

Normeperidine

2199
Q

The rate of absorption of any LA is dependent on the — of the location.

A

vascularity

2200
Q

The rate of absorption fastest to slowest w/ mnemonic:

A

In Time I Can Please Everyone But Susie and Sally
Intravenous>Tracheal>Intercostal>Caudal>Paracervical>Epidural>Brachial Plexus>Subarachnoid, Sciatic, Femoral>SubQ

2201
Q

The risk of toxicity with LA is directly related to —.

A

potency

2202
Q

The max safe dose of lidocaine is —mg/kg when used without epi. Due to the local vasoconstriction caused by epi, with less drug entering the systemic circulation, epi combinations with lidocaine raise the safe threshold of administrable drug to —mg/kg. Risks of toxicity generally are heralded by neurologic symptoms including paresthesias (circumoral numbness), dizziness, blurred vision, & tinnitus, followed by slurred speech, drowsiness, seizures & obtundation. If toxicity is great, cardiac effects may be noted including heart block, bradycardia, ventricular arrhythmias & hypotension. The doses needed for cardiac toxicity are about 3x that needed for neurologic manifestations making them less likely to be noted without a preceding neurologic symptoms.

A

5 ; 7

2203
Q

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve leaves the — roots & travels in a lateral/inferior direction anterior to the iliacus muscle.

A

L2-L3

2204
Q

Metoclopramide (Reglan) is contraindicated in — disease. Metoclopramide long term use is known to rarely cause tardive dyskinesia, which may not be reversable. Reports of tardive dyskinesia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, hallucinations & harmful psychological effects have been reported in this disease pts who are administered it.

A

Huntington’s

2205
Q

Upon removal of the pituitary gland (hypophysectomy), the endogenous hormones secreted from it are also removed including —. Therefore, — is most likely condition to ensue. Replacement — will abate the side effects.

A

antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ; diabetes insipidus ; vasopressin (desmopressin)

2206
Q

— is released by the posterior pituitary along with oxytocin. —,—,—&— are all released from the anterior pituitary.

A

ADH ; Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), Prolactin, & Growth Hormone (GH)

2207
Q

— is the only cerebral physiology that is increased by lidocaine administration. Lidocaine cerebrally decreases CMR, Cerebral blood flow, Intracranial pressure, & Cerebral blood volume.

A

Cerebral vascular resistance

2208
Q

A pH of >— is considered a good sign, & fetus with a pH <— is considered an abnormal sign & raises concerns of fetal well-being; fetal delivery should be done in an expedited fashion in this situation.

A

7.25 ; 7.20

2209
Q

— is added to increase the neutral, un-ionized fraction in order to quicken the onset of anesthesia.

A

Bicarbonate

2210
Q

— environments worsen the quality & prolong onset time of the anesthetic.

A

Acidic

2211
Q

All LA except for — are vasodilators, directly relaxing smooth muscle in arterioles.

A

cocaine

2212
Q

The greatest concern in pts having a vaginal delivery after a previous c-section (VBAC) is the possibility of —.

A

uterine rupture

2213
Q

— is the best means of detecting uterine rupture.

A

Nonreassuring fetal HR

2214
Q

Drugs that — variability of fetal HR include atropine, GA, magnesium, opiods, barbs, benzo, & ingested ethanol.

A

diminish

2215
Q

Terbutaline, a beta agonist tocolytic, — effect fetal HR variability. Other tocolytics such as nifedipine & nitroglycerine — alter fetal HR variability either, but magnesium as a tocolytic —.

A

does not ; does not ; does

2216
Q

— is the most common cause of bradycardia in the ped population. Other causes of bradycardia in the pediatric population include vagal stimulation, hypothermia, depression from anesthetic agent, and succ administration.

A

Hypoxia

2217
Q

The time from —mths is termed physiologic anemia of infancy, as it is a normal variant & is generally well tolerated by healthy term infants.

A

2-3

2218
Q

Soon after birth, erythropoietin synthesis greatly decreases & Hb levels slowly decrease. In 8wks, Hb reaches a low point of ~— mg/dL. In premature infants, this decrease also occurs more rapidly & will possibly fall as low as —mg/dL. Other factors, including frequent phlebotomy in sick neonates & the rapid growth of the infant compared to blood volume increases may also contribute to this anemia.

A

10 ; 7 or 8

2219
Q

After trachea, carina marks the — generation of the respiratory tree’s divisions. It then splits into bronchus (—) followed by the bronchioles (—).

A

1st ; 3rd ; 4th

2220
Q

— position is found during phonation or during effort closure, when the vocal cords are in an adducted position.

A

Midline

2221
Q

Expiration in humans is a — event that doesn’t require muscle effort.

A

passive

2222
Q

In pts that force expiration, the — muscles including —,—,— assist w/ forced expiration.

A

abdominal ; external & internal obliques & the rectus abdominis

2223
Q

The alveolar sac is the — generation (division) of the respiratory tree, which marks the end of the respiratory tree. This is the location where the alveoli begin. Actual gas exchange begins at generation — w/ the bronchioles.

A

23rd ; 17

2224
Q

Thyroid cartilage felt at — level. This cartilage forms the — wall of the larynx & provides anterior wall of the larynx.

A

C4-C5 ; anterior

2225
Q

— is the most potent coronary vasodilator volatile agent.

A

Iso

2226
Q

— has been shown to react w/ CO2 absorbents in anesthesia circuits to produce carbon monoxide. Baralyme that is dried (dessicated) is the most commonly implicated absorbent, however it can be seen w/ soda lime as well.

A

Des

2227
Q

Anesthesia hoses contain —L of gas in the adult circuit, & anesthesia absorbent containers hold —L of gas. An adult anesthesia bag can contain —L of gas, & ped bags can contain either —L of gas. The total wash-in volume of the anesthesia machine is —L.

A

2L ; 2L ; 3L ; 1 or 2L ; 7L

2228
Q

Cerebral vasodilation begins at >— MAC, at >1 MAC all modern volatile anesthetics actually begin to increase —.

A

0.6 ; ICP

2229
Q

— antiarrhythmic meds are the beta blockers. These meds work by antagonising sympathetic activity & slowing rate of SA or ectopic atrial discharges. They further slow conduction through primary 7 abberant accessory conduction pathways.

A

Class II

2230
Q

Lidocaine is a — antiarrhythmic drug

A

class IB

2231
Q

A QTc interval of >— seconds (— milliseconds) is considered prolonged.

A

0.45 ; 450

2232
Q

Most pts w/ a dissecting aorta will have a variation in BP of >— mmHg b/n arms. Pts may have a missing carotid pulse, depending on location of dissection.

A

20

2233
Q

In a pt w/ — syndrome, the incidence of having a dissecting aneurysm is greatly increased compared to the normal population.

A

Marfan’s

2234
Q

A pt in — is seen as having a progressively prolonged PR interval followed by a non-conducted (blocked) P wave. This condition can be due to a structural or electrical conduction problem, & is typically seen in pts w/ high vagal tone. If asymptomatic, no treatment is needed/indicated & the problem generally resolves itself. In symptomatic bradycardia (seen with a low atrial rate), atropine may be used temporarily & a permanent pacemaker may be indicated.

A

2nd degree AVB type I (Mobitz I/Wenckebach)

2235
Q

1 plt pheresis should raise plt count by — cells/microliter in a typical adult pt. 1 unit of plt concentrate should increase plt count by — mm3.

A

30,000-60,000 ; 5,000-10,000

2236
Q

A pheresis contains — the amount of 1 unit of plts.

A

6x

2237
Q

The — test is the best test to determine renal functioning.

A

creatinine clearance

2238
Q

> — mL/min is considered normal renal function on lab testing, but true normal is —mL/min so significant renal function decline can occur before a drop in GFR is noted in lab work. Mild renal insufficiency seen at GFR of —mL/min, & mod renal insufficiency is from —mL/min. A GFR of <—mL/min is seen in overt renal failure, while a GFR of <—mL/min is seen in end stage renal disease.

A

120 ; 180 ; 40-60 ; 25-40 ; 25 ; 10

2239
Q

— disease: avoiding meds that stimulate SNS due to a potential for an exaggerated CV response under increased thyroid activity including HTN & tachycardia. Ketamine is one such agent.

A

hyperthyroid

2240
Q

— induction may be preferred as it has thyroid hormone blocking activity.

A

Thiopental

2241
Q

— is the fluid of choice for pts in RF. Giving a pt in RF any K+ containing fluids increases the incidence of hyperkalemia due to their inability to excrete K+. Glucose free fluids should be used when possible due to the glucose intolerance caused by peripheral tissue insensitivity to insulin in uremic pts.

A

NS .9%

2242
Q

NS .9% is —, — free & doesn’t contain —.

A

isotonic ; K+ ; glucose

2243
Q

Lithotomy position places the legs into stirrups most often implicated in damage to — nerve.

A

common peroneal

2244
Q

A minimum of —L/min is required to provide an FiO2 that will approximate a 1.0 FiO2.

A

10

2245
Q

Alfentanil is a — potent & — acting analogue of fentanyl.

A

less ; shorter

2246
Q

— failure, but not —, can prolong the action of Alfentanil.

A

Liver ; RF

2247
Q

—&— have been demonstrated to cause significant drops in BP when given the morning of surgery. These meds should be w/held at least 1 dosing cycle prior to surgery.

A

ACE-I (lisinopril) & angiotensin receptor blockers

2248
Q

— inhibit the H+/K+ATP-ase pump of the gastric parietal cell. This is the last stage of gastric acid secretion, reducing acid secretion by up to 98%. These meds can decrease the risk of morbidity in the event of aspiration by increasing stomach pH, but must be given time to work prior to induction–they should not be w/held prior to surgery.

A

Proton pump inhibitors (omeprazole)

2249
Q

— is a antiHTN w/ B1, B2 & A1 antagonism properties that is used frequently in pts w/ HF, HTN, & left ventricular dysfunction after MI. It also decreases HR & improves CO. It also has been shown to slow progression of CHF & decrease risk of death. This med shouldn’t be stopped the morning of surgery, as sudden cessation of this med or any beta blocker can greatly increase the risk of MI & sudden death.

A

Carvediol (Coreg)

2250
Q

— is commonly used for mod pain on an outpt & inpt basis. Any pt w/ a hx of mod to severe pain shouldn’t have their narcotics withdrawn unless specific indications are present. Pts should also be dosed w/ adequate analgesia prior to emergence from anesthesia & may have increased needs of analgesics due to down regulation of opioid receptors.

A

Percocet (combo analgesic consisting of oxycodone & acetaminophen)

2251
Q

— (alpha 1 antagonist) was used primarily as an antiHTN. Due to the incidence of side effects (orthostatic HoTN) & the availability of better antiHTNs, it is not used for this purpose as frequently any more. But, it has found popularity as a drug used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) due to the presence of alpha 1 receptors on the prostate gland. Antagonizing alpha 1 receptors on the prostate allows muscular relaxation & eases the symptoms. May be taken on the morning of surgery.

A

Terazosin

2252
Q

—: drug used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) due to the presence of alpha 1 receptors on the prostate gland. Antagonizing alpha 1 receptors on the prostate allows muscular relaxation & eases the symptoms.

A

Terazosin (alpha 1 antagonist)

2253
Q

Should Terazosin (alpha 1 antagonist) be taken on the morning of surgery?

A

Yes

2254
Q

Should ACE-I (lisinopril) & angiotensin receptor blockers be w/ held prior to surgery?

A

Yes, at least 1 dosing cycle

2255
Q

Should Proton pump inhibitors (omeprazole) be w/held prior to surgery?

A

No

2256
Q

Should Carvediol (Coreg) be stopped the morning of surgery?

A

No

2257
Q

Should Percocet (combo analgesic consisting of oxycodone & acetaminophen) be taken prior to surgery?

A

Yes

2258
Q

drugs that should not be given morning of surgery: 8

A
  1. ACE inhibitors
  2. ARBs
  3. metformin
  4. most insulins (or reduce dose)
  5. oral antihyperglycemics
  6. niacin
  7. diuretics
  8. NSAIDs (unless surgeon advises to take)
2259
Q

Drugs to take morning of surgery:10

A
  1. Proton pump inhibitors
  2. H2 blockers
  3. pain med
  4. beta blockers
  5. alpha antagonists
  6. other antiHTNs that are not ACE/ARBs/diuretics
  7. steroids
  8. lithium
  9. antibiotics
  10. anti-depressants including MAOIs and SSRIs.
2260
Q

Triamterene is a — diuretic

A

K+ sparing

2261
Q

The common peroneal nerve is — anesthetized by the psoas block bc the — nerve is spared.

A

NOT ; sciatic

2262
Q

The —,—&— of the thigh are anesthetized in a Psoas block.

A

femoral n., obturator n., & the lateral cutaneous n.

2263
Q

The — block is a useful block for anesthetizing the medial aspect of the leg from groin to ankle via blockade of the femoral nerve & its branches. It also provides anesthesia to the upper lateral aspect of the thigh.

A

psoas

2264
Q

The — nerve provides motor innervation to the hamstrings & to all muscles distal to the knee.

A

Sciatic

2265
Q

If you are performing a Sciatic nerve block & produce evoked contractions of the hamstrings then you are at the main trunk of the sciatic nerve & your position is correct. You want distal evoked contractions (Foot & Toes). The reason is that if you only have evoked contractions of the hamstrings you could be stimulating the —or—.

A

muscle itself or just a branch of the Sciatic nerve

2266
Q

— is the most cardiotoxic

A

Bupivacaine

2267
Q

— is a racemic LA mixture w/ a high lipid solubility & protein binding profile.

A

Bupiv

2268
Q

— competitively replaces NorE at the presynaptic terminal & is mostly used in pain management, not in surgical anesthesia.

A

Guanethedine

2269
Q

Intracranial HTN is defined as a pressure of >— mmHg, & ICP is typically <— mmHg.

A

15 ; 10

2270
Q

CO returns to the pt’s normal baseline w/in —wks after delivery of the fetus, assuming no cardiac pathology such as HF had developed during pregnancy.

A

2wks

2271
Q

— is contraindicated in pts w/ hypocalcemia or MG, due to its inhibition of acetylcholine release.

A

Mg+

2272
Q

— is renally excreted, so pts w/ RF should receive it very cautiously & serum levels should be monitored.

A

Mg+

2273
Q

Pts with MG should be administered little if any — meds. Certain other drugs also may worsen weakness in pts w/ MG. These drugs are —,—,—,—&—.

A

neuromuscular blockade ; beta blockers, lidocaine, opioids, aminoglycosides, & phenytoin

2274
Q

— antibiotics in particular, when given during surgery w/ neuromuscular blocking agents, increase the risk of postoperative respiratory depression.

A

Aminoglycoside

2275
Q

Spinal analgesia is useful in providing optimal conditions for cerclage placement, but must cover levels from — to ensure anesthesia of both the cervix & vagina. GA may be used & may be preferred when membranes are bulging through the cervix. Volatile anesthetics relax uterine smooth muscle which is beneficial during this procedure, however, this must be weighed against the risks of phsyiologic reflexes to intubation. Coughing & vomiting will raise intrauterine pressure & can herniate more of the fetal membranes through the cervix. No matter the method of anesthetic care, ensure abdominal pressure is kept to a minimum.

A

T8-S4

2276
Q

Pts w/ — may have the following anesthesia relevant abnormalities: endocardial cushion defects, atlanto-axial instability, hypothyroidism, macroglossia, narrow hypopharynx, subglottic stenosis, choanal atresia, obesity. Although hyperthyroidism does occur at a greater rate than the general population, they are far more prevalent to have a hypothyroid function.

A

Down syndrome

2277
Q

—&— have decreased brown fat stores, & thus have impaired ability to regulate their own temp.

A

Neonates & premature infants

2278
Q

— is highly vascularized & is innervated w/ beta sympathetic receptors. Stress created by a cold environment increases sympathetic nervous activity & the release of NorE, causing a breakdown of it & release of heat through increased metabolism. One quarter of the CO may be sent to it to directly warm blood. Decreased NorE stores are not the reason for decreased non-shivering thermogenesis.

A

Brown fat

2279
Q

During normal —, the following occurs: when NorE release is stimulated by sympathetic activity, free fatty acids & glycerol are released from triglycerides. The increase in O2 consumption due to increased metabolism allows an infant to double the normal thermogenic rate. A larger surface to weight ratio will increase radiant heat losses, thus making the choice about a smaller surface area to weight ratio incorrect.

A

nonshivering thermogenesis

2280
Q

Infants are born w/ low glycogen stores, & thus are more prone to dangerous —.

A

low blood sugars

2281
Q

Half of all deaths in pregnant pts are related to —. The next most common causes of death are due to —,—or—.

A

HTN ; infxn, hemorrhage, or “embolic” events

2282
Q

Failure to — is the leading cause of anesthesia related death.

A

secure an airway

2283
Q

— is a competetive antagonist of Ca+ at the motor endplate, reducing Ca+ influx into the myocyte.

A

Mg+

2284
Q

— decreases acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction & reduces sensitivity of the end plate to acetylcholine. It shares similar side effects to beta adrenergic tocolytic agents such as terbutaline (terbutaline stimulates beta2 adrenergic receptors causing smooth muscle relaxation). It’s side effects include chest pain & tightness, palpitations, HoTN, sedation, diplopia, nausea, flushing, muscle weakness, lethargy, AV conduction blocks & QRS widening can occur as well. Pulmonary edema & cardiac arrest have been reported. Neonatal side effects: lethargy, hypotonia, & respiratory depression.

A

Mg+

2285
Q

— is another tocolytic that has been compared to Mg+. Compared to it, Mg+ has less incidence of therapy failure than the drug group. In addition the drug group had to have therapy stopped more often than the Mg+ group due to HoTN.

A

Nitroglycerin

2286
Q

— is associated w/ polymorphic v-tach (Torsades de Pointes), which has been seen even at normal therapeutic levels of the drug.

A

Procainamide

2287
Q

— has a short DoA & seems to have a very low risk of pro-arrhythmic effects.

A

Lidocaine

2288
Q

— also has a very low risk of pro-arrhythmic effects –Torsades de Pointes seen with its use is associated with low serum Mg+ levels.

A

Amiodarone