Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

3a paeds > Paeds Neuro + Psych (+ dev milestones) > Flashcards

Paeds Neuro + Psych (+ dev milestones) Flashcards

1
Q

What are 4 domains of developmental milestones

A

Gross motor
Fine motor
Language
Personal and social

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the developmental milestones for a 2 month old

A

Gross motor:
Fine motor: fix and follow w eyes
Language: cooing
Personal and social: smile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the developmental milestones for a 4 month old

A

Gross motor: keep head prone, roll over
Fine motor: rattle shake
Language: cooing
Personal and social: laugh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the developmental milestones for a 6 month old

A

Gross motor: maintain sitting position
Fine motor: palmer grasp
Language: noises with consonants
Personal and social: curious and engaged with people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the developmental milestones for a 9 month old

A

Gross motor: sit unsupported & start crawling
Fine motor: scissor grip
Language: babble sounds like talking
Personal and social: cautious about strangers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the developmental milestones for a 12 month old

A

Gross motor: stand on two legs (cruising)
Fine motor: pincer grip
Language: single words
Personal and social: waves bye claps hands, engages with others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the developmental milestones for a 18 month old

A

Gross motor: walk unaided, squat and pick things from floor
Fine motor: use spoon to bring food to mouth, tower of 4 bricks
Language: has 5-10 words
Personal and social: imitates activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the developmental milestones for a 2 year old

A

Gross motor: run kick a ball
Fine motor: tower of 8 bricks, draw line
Language: combine 2 word phrases
Personal and social: parallel play, dry by day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the developmental milestones for a 3 year old

A

Gross motor: climb stairs one foot at time
Fine motor: circle and build bridge
Language: basic sentences
Personal and social: seek other children to play

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the developmental milestones for a 4 year old

A

Gross motor: hop climb and descend stairs like adult
Fine motor: draw cross and square and build steps
Language: tells stories
Personal and social: best friend, dry by night, imaginative play, dresses self

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are red flags for developmental milestones

A
  • Lost developmental milestones
  • Not able to hold an object at 5 months
  • Not sitting unsupported at 12 months
  • Not standing independently, No words and No interest in others at 18 months
  • Not walking independently at 2 years
  • Not running at 2.5 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are two components of language

A

Expressive language
Receptive language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Dyslexia

A

specific difficulty in reading, writing and spelling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is Dysgraphia

A

specific difficulty in writing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is Dyspraxia

A

developmental co-ordination disorder

delayed gross and fine motor skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is auditory processing disorder

A

specific difficulty in processing auditory information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a Non-verbal learning disability

A

specific difficulty in processing non-verbal information, such as body language and facial expressions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a Profound and multiple learning disability

A

severe difficulties across multiple areas, often requiring help with all aspects of daily life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What IQ is a mild learning diability

A

55 – 70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What IQ is a moderate learning diability

A

40 – 55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What IQ is a severe learning diability

A

25 – 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What IQ is a profound learning diability

A

under 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are RF for learning disability.

A

Family history
abuse, neglect, psychological trauma and toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What conditions are strongly associated with learning disability

A
  • Genetic disorders such as Downs syndrome
  • Antenatal problems, such as fetal alcohol syndrome and maternal chickenpox
  • Problems at birth, such as prematurity and hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy
  • Early childhood meningitis
  • Autism
  • Epilepsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

who might be involved in management of child with a learning disability

A

Health visitors
Social workers
Schools
Educational psychologists
Paediatricians, GPs and nurses
Occupational therapists
Speech and language therapists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is Safeguarding

A

involves all aspects of ensuring the welfare of a child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Child protection

A

involves the process of protecting a child that is at risk of or suffering harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What provides the legal framework for child safeguarding

A

Children Act 1989

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is a “child is need”

A

refers to a child that is likely to need supportive services to maintain their health and development, or is disabled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are types of abuse

A

Physical
Emotional
Sexual
Neglect
Financial
Identity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are RF for abuse

A

Domestic violence
Previously abused parent
Mental health problems
Emotional volatility in the household
Social, psychological or economic stress
Disability in the child
Learning disability in the parents
Alcohol misuse
Substance misuse
Non-engagement with services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are possible signs of abuse

A
  • Change in behaviour or extreme emotional states
  • Dissociative disorders (feeling separated from their thoughts or identity)
  • Bullying, self harm or suicidal behaviours
  • Unusually sexualised behaviours
  • Unusual behaviour during examination
  • Poor hygiene
  • Poor physical or emotional development
  • Missing appointments or not complying with treatments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is available in NHS organisations to assist with safeguarding concerns

A

safeguarding team or safeguarding lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

where are safeguarding cases referred to

A

children’s services (social services)

If the child is in immediate danger the police may need to be involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What measures can be arranged to help support families of children with safe guarding concerns.

A
  • Home visit programmes to support parents
  • Parenting programmes to help parents develop parenting skills and manage their child’s behaviour
  • Attachment-based interventions to help parents bond and nurture their child
  • Child–parent psychotherapy
  • Parent–child interaction therapy
  • Multi-systemic therapy for child abuse and neglect (MST-CAN)
  • Cognitive behavioural therapy for children that have suffered trauma or sexual abuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is Global developmental delay

A

child displaying slow development in all developmental domains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What conditions are associated with global developmental delay

A

Down’s syndrome
Fragile X syndrome
Fetal alcohol syndrome
Rett syndrome
Metabolic disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What conditions are associated with gross motor delay

A

Cerebral palsy
Ataxia
Myopathy
Spina bifida
Visual impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What conditions are associated with fine motor delay

A

Dyspraxia
Cerebral palsy
Muscular dystrophy
Visual impairment
Congenital ataxia (rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What conditions are associated with language delay

A

Specific social circumstances, for example exposure to multiple languages or siblings that do all the talking
Hearing impairment
Learning disability
Neglect
Autism
Cerebral palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How is language delay managed

A

referral to speech and language, audiology and the health visitor.

Referral to safeguarding is required if neglect is a concern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What may personal and social delay indicate

A

Emotional and social neglect
Parenting issues
Autism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are febrile convulsions

A

type of seizure that occurs in children with a high fever

only in children ages of 6 months and 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are Simple febrile convulsions

A

generalised, tonic clonic seizures

last less than 15 minutes

only occur once during a single febrile illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are complex febrile convulsions

A

consist of partial or focal seizures

last more than 15 minutes

or occur multiple times during the same febrile illness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are DDx for febrile seizures

A

Epilepsy
Meningitis, encephalitis or another neurological infection such as cerebral malaria
Intracranial space occupying lesions, for example brain tumours or intracranial haemorrhage
Syncopal episode
Electrolyte abnormalities
Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the fever in febrile convulsions usually caused by

A

an underlying viral illness or bacterial infection such as tonsillitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How is febrile seizures diagnosed

A

diagnosis of exclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How are febrile seizures managed

A

ID & manage the underlying source of infection
first = trip to hospital for assessment
simple = do not require further investigations.

complex = further investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How are seizure episodes manahed

A

stay with the child
safe place
recovery position
don’t pout anything in mouth
call ambulance if >5 min seizure
show how to give PR diazepam or buccal midazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is prognosis for febrile seizures

A

no lasting damage
1/3 will have another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the risk of developing epilepsy in normal population, after a simple febrile seizure and after complex febrile seizure

A

1.8% for the general population
2-7.5% after a simple febrile convulsion
10-20% after a complex febrile convulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is Epilepsy

A

umbrella term for a condition where there is a tendency to have seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are Seizures

A

transient episodes of abnormal electrical activity in the brai

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are tonic clonic seizures

A

loss of consciousness and tonic (muscle tensing) and clonic (muscle jerking) movements

associated tongue biting, incontinence, groaning and irregular breathing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the peroid after seizure called and what are symptoms

A

post-ictal period

confused, drowsy and feels irritable or low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the Management of tonic-clonic seizures

A

First line: sodium valproate

Second line: lamotrigine or carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are focal seizures

A

seizure that starts in one of the lobes of the brain

temporal, frontal, occipital, parietal

59
Q

How do Temporal lobe focal seizures present

A

typically a rising epigastric sensation
Hallucinations
Déjà vu
automatisms (e.g. lip smacking/grabbing/plucking) are common

60
Q

What are Absence seizures

A

patient becomes blank, stares into space and then abruptly returns to normal

unaware of their surroundings and won’t respond

last 10-20 seconds

typically in children

61
Q

WHat is the management of focal seizures

A

First line:
Lamotrigine or Levetiracetam

Second line: carbamazepine

62
Q

What is management of absence seizures

A

ethosuximide

63
Q

What is difference between atonic and myoclonic seizures

A

Atonic = lapses in muscle tone

myoclonic = brief muscle contraction

64
Q

What are Febrile Convulsions NOT caused by

A

epilepsy or other underlying neurological pathology (such as meningitis or tumours).

65
Q

What is management for atonic and myoclonic seizures

A

men: sodium valproate

women: lamotrigine (tonic)
levetiracetam (myoclonic)

66
Q

How is epilepsy investigated

A

electroencephalogram (EEG)

ECG to exclude problems in the heart.
Blood electrolytes including sodium, potassium, calcium and magnesium
Blood glucose for hypoglycaemia and diabetes
Blood cultures, urine cultures and lumbar puncture where sepsis, encephalitis or meningitis is suspected

67
Q

When are children NOT investigated for epilepsy

A

Children are allowed one simple seizure before being investigated for epilepsy.

68
Q

When is MRI brain considered for epilepsy

A

The first seizure is in children under 2 years
Focal seizures
There is no response to first line anti-epileptic medications

69
Q

When is an EEG performed for epilepsy

A

after the second simple tonic-clonic seizure

70
Q

What is general advice for parents of children with epilepsy

A

Take showers rather than baths
Be very cautious with swimming unless seizures are well controlled and they are closely supervised
Be cautious with heights
Be cautious with traffic
Be cautious with any heavy, hot or electrical equipment

71
Q

What anti-epileptic drugs is teratogenic

A

Sodium Valproate

72
Q

When is Sodium Valproate not first line anti-epileptic drug

A

in focal seizures

73
Q

What are SE of Sodium Valproate

A

Teratogenic, so patients need careful advice about contraception
Liver damage and hepatitis
Hair loss
Tremor

74
Q

how does Sodium Valproate work

A

increases GABA levels by inhibiting the enzyme GABA transaminase, which breaks down GABA

75
Q

Are SE of Carbamazepine

A

Agranulocytosis
Aplastic anaemia
Induces the P450 system so there are many drug interactions

76
Q

What are SE of phenytoin

A

Folate and vitamin D deficiency
Megaloblastic anaemia (folate deficiency)
Osteomalacia (vitamin D deficiency)

77
Q

What are SE of Ethosuximide

A

Night terrors
Rashes

78
Q

What are SE of Lamotrigine

A
  • Stevens-Johnson syndrome or DRESS syndrome.
  • Leukopenia -> dec WCC
79
Q

What is Status Epilepticus

A

a seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or 2 or more seizures without regaining consciousness in the interim.

Medical emergency

80
Q

What is management of Status Epilepticus in hospital

A

Secure the airway
Give high-concentration oxygen
Assess cardiac and respiratory function
Check blood glucose levels
Gain intravenous access (insert a cannula)
IV lorazepam, repeated after 10 minutes if the seizure continues

ABCDE

81
Q

what is final step for management of Status Epilepticus

A

IV levetiracetam, phenytoin or sodium valproate

intubation and ventilation to secure airway

82
Q

What is management of Status Epilepticus in community

A

Buccal midazolam
Rectal diazepam

83
Q

What is cerebral palsy

A

non progressive permanent neurological problems resulting from damage to the brain around the time of birt

84
Q

What are antenatal causes of cerebral palsy

A

cerebral malformation and congenital infection (rubella, toxoplasmosis, CMV)

85
Q

What are perinatal causes of cerebral palsy

A

Birth asphyxia
Pre-term birth
Birth Trauma

86
Q

What are postnatal causes of cerebral palsy

A
  • Meningitis
  • intraventricular haemorrhage
  • Severe neonatal jaundice
  • Head injury
87
Q

what is spastic cerebral palsy

A

hypertonia (increased tone) and reduced function resulting from damage to upper motor neurones

88
Q

What are the 4 types of cerebral palsy

A

Spastic
Dyskinetic
Ataxic
Mixed

89
Q

what is dyskinetic cerebral palsy

A

athetoid (slow withering flexed) movements and oro-motor problems.

Damage to basal ganglia and the substantia nigra

90
Q

what is ataxic cerebral palsy

A

problems with coordinated movement resulting from damage to the cerebellum

91
Q

what is mixed cerebral palsy

A

a mix of spastic, dyskinetic and/or ataxic features

92
Q

what is another name for Spastic CP

A

pyramidal CP

93
Q

what is another name for Dyskinetic CP

A

athetoid CP and extrapyramidal CP.

94
Q

What is Monoplegia CP

A

one limb affected

95
Q

What is Hemiplegia CP

A

one side of the body affected

96
Q

What is Diplegia CP

A

four limbs are affects, but mostly the legs

97
Q

What is Quadriplegia CP

A

four limbs are affected more severely, often with seizures, speech disturbance and other impairments

98
Q

What are signs and symptoms of cerebral palsy during development

A

Failure to meet milestones
Increased or decreased tone, generally or in specific limbs
Hand preference below 18 months is a key sign to remember for exams
Problems with coordination, speech or walking
Feeding or swallowing problems
Learning difficulties

99
Q

What does a Hemiplegic / diplegic gait indicates

A

an upper motor neurone lesion

100
Q

What does a High stepping gait indicates

A

indicates foot drop or a lower motor neurone lesion

101
Q

What does a Broad based gait / ataxic gait indicates

A

indicates a cerebellar lesion

102
Q

What does a Waddling gait indicates

A

indicates pelvic muscle weakness due to myopathy

103
Q

How does a Upper Motor Neurone lesion present on expection

A

Inspection : muscle bulk preserved
Tone: hypertonia
Power: slightly reduced
Reflexes: brisk

104
Q

What does a Antalgic gait indicates

A

indicates localised pain

105
Q

How does a Lower Motor Neurone lesion present on expection

A

Inspection: reduced muscle bulk with fasciculations
Tone: hypotonia
Power: dramatically reduced
Reflexes: reduced

106
Q

What is a DDx for a UMN lesion

A

acquired brain injury or a tumour.

107
Q

What gait is associated commonly with CP

A

hemiplegic or diplegic gait

108
Q

How does CP gait present

A

The leg will be extended with plantar flexion of the feet and toes.

This means they have to swing the leg around in a large semicircle when moving their leg from behind them to in front

109
Q

How will CP present on examination

A

Like UMN lesion

good muscle bulk, increased tone, brisk reflexes and slightly reduced power

110
Q

What are complications and associated conditions with CP

A

Learning disability
Epilepsy
Kyphoscoliosis
Muscle contractures
Hearing and visual impairment
Gastro-oesophageal reflux

111
Q

What do athetoid movements indicate

A

extrapyramidal (basal ganglia) involvement

112
Q

What is the management for cerebral palsy

A

MDT team approach
Physiotherapy
Occupational therapy
Speech and language therapy
Dieticians
Orthopaedic surgeons
Paediatricians
Social workers
Charities and support groups

113
Q

What medication can be given to children with cerebral palsy

A
  • Muscle relaxants (e.g. baclofen) for muscle spasticity and contractures
  • Anti-epileptic drugs for seizures
  • Glycopyrronium bromide for excessive drooling
114
Q

What is ADHD

A

extreme end of “hyperactivity” and inability to concentrate (“attention deficit“).

It affects the person’s ability to carry out everyday tasks, develop normal skills and perform well in school.

115
Q

When is hyperactivity and attention deficit suggestive of an environmental problem rather than ADHD

A

ADHD = Features should be consistent across various settings

116
Q

What are features for ADHD

A

Very short attention span
Quickly moving from one activity to another
Quickly losing interest in a task and not being able to persist with challenging tasks
Constantly moving or fidgeting
Impulsive behaviour
Disruptive or rule breaking

117
Q

How is ADHD diagnosed

A

A detailed assessment should be carried out by a specialist in childhood behavioural problems

118
Q

How is ADHD managed

A

coordinated by a specialist in ADHD
Parental and child education
education about parental strategies to manage the child
healthy diet & exercise
Medication after conservative management has failed or severe cases

119
Q

What are medication options for ADHD

A

central nervous system stimulants.

  • Methylphenidate (“Ritalin“)
  • Dexamfetamine
  • Atomoxetine
120
Q

What is Autistic spectrum disorder

A

range of people affected by a deficit in social interaction, communication and flexible behaviour.

121
Q

What two previous diagnoses were grouped in Autistic spectrum disorder

A

Aspergers syndrome and autistic disorder

122
Q

What was Asperger syndrome

A

normal intelligence and ability to function in everyday life but displaying difficulties with reading emotions and responding to others

123
Q

What are autism social interaction features

A

Lack of eye contact
Delay in smiling
Avoids physical contact
Unable to read non-verbal cues
Difficulty establishing friendships
Not displaying a desire to share attention (i.e. not playing with others)

124
Q

What are autism behaviour features

A
  • Greater interest in objects, numbers or patterns than people
  • Stereotypical repetitive movements.
  • Intensive and deep interests that are persistent and rigid
  • Repetitive behaviour and fixed routines
  • Anxiety and distress with change in routine
  • Extremely restricted food preferences
125
Q

What are autism communication features

A

Delay, absence or regression in language development
Lack of appropriate non-verbal communication such as smiling, eye contact, responding to others and sharing interest
Difficulty with imaginative or imitative behaviour
Repetitive use of words or phrases

126
Q

How is autism diagnosis made

A

made by specialist in autism.

paediatric psychiatrist or paediatrician with an interest in development and behaviour.

diagnosis can be made before the age of 3 years.

involves a detailed history and assessment of the child’s behaviour and communication

127
Q

How is Autism managed

A

MDT team

Child psychology and child and adolescent psychiatry (CAMHS)
Speech and language specialists
Dietician
Paediatrician
Social workers
Specially trained educators and special school environments
Charities such as the national autistic society

128
Q

Name 3 eating disorders

A

Anorexia nervosa
Bulimia nervosa
Binge eating disorder

129
Q

What are eating disorders

A

psychiatric conditions involving an unhealthy and distorted obsession with body image and food

130
Q

Who are eating disorders more common in

A

women and young ppl

131
Q

What is anorexia nervosa

A

person feels they are overweight despite evidence of normal or low body weight

obsessively restricting calorie intake to lose weight

132
Q

What are features of anorexia nervosa

A
  • Weight loss (e.g., 15% below expected or BMI less than 17.5)
  • Amenorrhoea (absent periods)
  • Lanugo hair (fine, soft hair across most of the body)
  • Hypotension (low blood pressure)
  • Hypothermia (low body temperature)
  • Mood changes, including anxiety and depression
133
Q

What are complications of anorexia nervosa

A

Cardiac complications include arrhythmia, cardiac atrophy and sudden cardiac death.

Low bone mineral density is another complication.

134
Q

What is Bulimia Nervosa

A

binge eating, followed by purging by inducing vomiting or taking laxatives to prevent the calories from being absorbed.

often have a normal/flucuating body weight

135
Q

what are features of bulimia nervosa

A

Erosion of teeth
Swollen salivary glands
Mouth ulcers
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Calluses on the knuckles where they have been scraped across the teeth (called Russell’s sign)

136
Q

What blood gas may indicate bulima

A

alkalosis after repeated vomiting of hydrochloric acid from the stomach

137
Q

What are possible blood test findings in restrictive eating disorders

A

Anaemia (low haemoglobin)
Leucopenia (low white cell count)
Thrombocytopenia (low platelets)
Hypokalaemia (low potassium – due to vomiting or excessive laxatives)

anorexia –> G’s andC’s raised:growth hormone,glucose, salivaryglands,cortisol,cholesterol,carotinaemia

138
Q

What can reduced bone marrow activity cause

A
  • normocytic normochromic anaemia
  • leucopenia (with low neutrophils and low lymphocytes)
  • thrombocytopenia.
139
Q

what is first line treatment for anorexia

A

‘anorexia focused family therapy’ as the first-line treatment.

The second-line treatment is cognitive behavioural therapy.

140
Q

what is refeeding syndrome

A

occurs when someone with an extended severe nutritional deficit resumes eating

suspected in anyon w minimal intake over 5 days

During prolonged starvation, intracellular potassium, phosphate and magnesium are depleted.

During refeeding, various mechanisms shift magnesium, potassium and phosphate OUT of the blood and sodium INTO the blood

141
Q

what are the electrolyte effects in refeeding sydrome

A

Hypomagnesaemia (low serum magnesium)
Hypokalaemia (low serum potassium)
Hypophosphataemia (low serum phosphate)
Fluid overload (due to water following the extra sodium into the extracellular space)

142
Q

how is refeeding sydrome managed

A

according to the local protocol under specialist supervision:

  • re-feed at no more than 50% of requirements for the first 2 days.
  • Magnesium, potassium, phosphate and glucose monitoring
  • Fluid balance monitoring
  • ECG monitoring in severe cases
  • Supplementation with electrolytes and vitamins, particularly B vitamins and thiamine
143
Q

what is fatal risk of refeeding syndrome

A

arrhythmia and heart failure

144
Q

how is severity of anxiety assessed

A

GAD-7 anxiety questionnaire

3a paeds (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions