Paeds MSK Flashcards

1
Q

What is Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Genetic condition (auto dom) that results in brittle bones that are prone to fractures

affect formation of collage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what type of collagen is affected in MC form of Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

type 1 collage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how does Osteogenesis imperfecta present

A

Hypermobility
Blue / grey sclera (the “whites” of the eyes)
Triangular face
Short stature
Deafness from early adulthood
Dental problems, particularly with formation of teeth
Bone deformities, such as bowed legs and scoliosis
Joint and bone pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how is Osteogenesis imperfecta managed medically

A

Bisphosphates to increase bone density
Vitamin D supplementation to prevent deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do blood results for Osteogenesis imperfecta show

A

adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone and ALP results are usually normal in osteogenesis imperfecta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is Osteogenesis imperfecta managed by MDT team

A

Physiotherapy and occupational therapy to maximise strength and function
Paediatricians for medial treatment and follow up
Orthopaedic surgeons to manage fractures
Specialist nurses for advice and support
Social workers for social and financial support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is collagen

A

protein that is essential is maintaining the structure and function of bone, as well as skin, tendons and other connective tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is rickets

A

defective bone mineralisation causing “soft” and deformed bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what causes rickets

A

deficiency in vitamin D or calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are nutritional sources of Vit D

A

eggs, oily fish or fortified cereals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are nutritional sources of calcium

A

diary
leafy greens
nuts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is hereditary hypophosphataemic rickets

A

commonly x linked

genetic defects that result in low phosphate in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is Vitamin D

A

hormone (not technically a vitamin) created from cholesterol by the skin in response to UV radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what can lead to vitamin D deficiency.

A
  • Reduced sun exposure without vitamin D supplementation
  • Malabsorption disorders - IBD
  • CKD - kidney metabolize vit D to active form
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vit D is essential for absorption of what in intestine and kidneys

A

calcium and phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does low calcium and phosphate lead to

A

result in defective bone mineralisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does low calcium affect the parathyroid glad

A

causes a secondary hyperparathyroidism by secreting parathyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what does parathyroid hormone stimulates

A

increased reabsorption of calcium from the bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how does vit D def present

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are bone deformities associated with Rickets

A
  • Bowing of the legs, where the legs curve outwards
  • Knock knees, where the legs curve inwards
  • Rachitic rosary, where the ends of the ribs expand at the costochondral junctions, causing lumps along the chest
  • Craniotabes, which is a soft skull, with delayed closure of the sutures and frontal bossing
  • Delayed teeth with under-development of the enamel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what investigation establishes a diagnosis of vit D def

A

Serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D less than 25 nmol/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does rickets present on XRay

A

osteopenia (more radiolucent bones).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what investigations can be ordered for rickets and what would they show

A

Serum calcium may be low
Serum phosphate may be low
Serum alkaline phosphatase may be high
Parathyroid hormone may be high
Serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what addition investigations can be ordered to establish pathology in rickets

A

Full blood count and ferritin, for iron deficiency anaemia
Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP, for inflammatory conditions
Kidney function tests, for kidney disease
Liver function tests, for liver pathology
Thyroid function tests, for hypothyroidism
Malabsorption screen such as anti-TTG antibodies, for coeliac disease
Autoimmune and rheumatoid tests, for inflammatory autoimmune conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how is rickets managed

A

1st line = ergocalciferol -> vit D replacement

calcium lactate or calcium carbonat -> hypocalcaemia

ToUC
diet advice
sunlight exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the does of ergocalciferol for children 6months to 12 years

A

6,000 IU per day for 8 – 12 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

who si at higher risk of vit D def breastfed or formula babies

A

Breastfed babies

formula feed is fortified with vitamin D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is Transient synovitis

A

caused by temporary (transient) irritation and inflammation in the synovial membrane of the joint (synovitis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what age is Transient synovitis common in

A

3 – 10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is often associated with Transient synovitis

A

recent viral upper respiratory tract infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how does Transient synovitis present

A

within a few weeks of a viral illness

Limp
Refusal to weight bear
Groin or hip pain
Mild low grade temperature

otherwise well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how is Transient synovitis managed

A

symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is Transient synovitis prognosis

A

significant improvement in symptoms after 24 – 48 hours.

Symptoms fully resolve within 1 – 2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

when can a child with Transient synovitis be managed in primary care

A

aged 3 – 9 years with symptoms suggestive of transient synovitis may be managed in primary care if the limp is present for less than 48 hours and they are otherwise well,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

if children with Transient synovitis worsen what is management

A

followed up at 48 hours and 1 week to ensure symptoms are improving and then fully resolve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is septic arthritis

A

infection inside a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what age is septic arthritis mc

A

under 4 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how does septic arthritis present

A

Hot, red, swollen and painful joint
Refusing to weight bear
Stiffness and reduced range of motion
Systemic symptoms such as fever, lethargy and sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is kocher rules for septic arthritis

A
  • Fever higher than 38.6.
  • ESR > 40 millimeters per hour (mm/hour)
  • WCC > 12,000 cells/mm3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is MC causative organisms of septic arthritis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are DDx for septic arthritis

A

Transient sinovitis
Perthes disease
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How is septic arthritis investigated

A

joint aspiration for synovial fluid analysis, gram staining and culture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are other possible causative organisms of septic arthritis

A

Neisseria gonorrhoea (gonococcus) in sexually active teenagers
Group A streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes)
Haemophilus influenza
Escherichia coli (E. coli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

how is septic arthritis managed

A

Empirical IV antibiotics
1st line = Flucloxacillin (often first-line)
Clindamycin (penicillin allergy)
Vancomycin (if MRSA is suspected)

Abx for 3-6 weeks
surgical drainage and washout of joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is Osteomyelitis

A

inflammation in a bone and bone marrow, usually caused by bacterial infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is Haematogenous osteomyelitis

A

when a pathogen is carried through the blood and seeded in the bone
MC mode of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

where does Osteomyelitis typically occur

A

metaphysis of the long bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is MC causative organism of Osteomyelitis

A

staphylococcus aureus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is chronic Osteomyelitis

A

deep seated, slow growing infection with slowly developing symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is acute Osteomyelitis

A

presents more quickly with an acutely unwell child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are RF for Osteomyelitis

A

Open bone fracture
Orthopaedic surgery
Immunocompromised
Sickle cell anaemia
HIV
Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

how does Osteomyelitis present

A

Refusing to use the limb or weight bear
Pain
Swelling
Tenderness
Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

how is Osteomyelitis investigated

A

1st = XRay
GS = MRI
Blood test = raised CRP and ESR and WBC
Blood culture
BM aspiration and Bone Biopsy with histology and culture

54
Q

how is Osteomyelitis managed

A

Surgical debridement of the infected bone and tissues

Antibiotic therapy = 6 weeks of flucloxacillin, possibly with rifampicin or fusidic acid added for the first 2 weeks

55
Q

How does Osteomyelitis present on XRay

A

Can be normal

  • Periosteal reaction (changes to the surface of the bone)
  • Localised osteopenia (thinning of the bone)
  • Destruction of areas of the bone
56
Q

what is Perthes Disease

A

disruption of blood flow to the femoral head, causing avascular necrosis of the bone

57
Q

where does Perthes Disease affect

A

the epiphysis of the femur, which is the bone distal to the growth plate (physis)

58
Q

what age does perthes disease mc occur in

A

4 – 8 years

59
Q

what are possible causes of perthes disease

A

genetics vascular anomalies

60
Q

what are 4 stages of perthes disease

A

necrosis, fragmentation, reossification, and remodelling

61
Q

what is the main complication of perthes disease

A

soft and deformed femoral head, leading to early hip osteoarthritis

62
Q

how does perthes disease present

A

slow onset
Pain in the hip or groin
Limp
Restricted hip movements
There may be referred pain to the knee

no history of trauma, if trauma think SUFE

63
Q

What is 1st line investigation for Perthes

A

XRay - can be normal

64
Q

what are other investigations for perthes disease

A

Technetium bone scan
MRI Scan
Blood test - usually normal

65
Q

what can be seen on MRI for perthes

A

avascular necrosis, joint effusion, and marrow oedema

66
Q

how is perthes managed

A

initial = conservative to maintain healthy position and alignment of joint, reduce damage and deformity

Bed rest
Traction
Crutches
Analgesia

Physiotherapy is used to retain the range of movement

Regular xrays are used to assess healing.

67
Q

what is the aim of sugery in perthes

A

aim is to improve the alignment and function of the femoral head and hip.

68
Q

what is Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

A

the head of the femur is displaced (“slips”) along the growth plate.

69
Q

what is mc age for SUFE

A

8 – 15 years, with the average age of 12 in boys.

70
Q

what is RF for SUFE

A

obesity

71
Q

what are symptoms of SUFE

A

Hip, groin, thigh or knee pain
Restricted range of movement in the hip
Painful limp

72
Q

what is the typical SUFE patient

A

adolescent, obese male
undergoing a growth spurt.
may be a history of minor trauma

73
Q

How does SUFE present on examination

A

they will prefer to keep the hip in external rotation.

They will have limited movement of the hip, particularly restricted internal rotation.

74
Q

What is the 1st line investigation for SUFE

A

XRay

75
Q

what are other investigations that can used for SUFE diagnosis

A

Blood tests = normal –> used to exclude other causes of joint pain
Technetium bone scan
MRI scan
CT scan

76
Q

How is SUFE managed

A

Surgery is required to return the femoral head to the correct position and fix it in place to prevent it slipping further.

77
Q

What is Osgood-Schlatters Disease

A

inflammation of the patellar ligament at the tibial tuberosity

common cause of anterior knee pain

78
Q

when does Osgood-Schlatters Disease typically occur

A

d 10 – 15 years

79
Q

what is the pathophysiology of Osgood-Schlatters Disease

A

microtrauma causing inflammation and subsequent avulsion fracture of the secondary ossification centre

80
Q

how does Osgood-Schlatters Disease present

A

Visible or palpable hard and tender lump at the tibial tuberosity
Pain in the anterior aspect of the knee
The pain is exacerbated by physical activity, kneeling and on extension of the knee

81
Q

how is osgood-schlatter disease investiagted

A

mostly clinical
Xray = elevation or fragmentation of the tibial tubercle

82
Q

how is Osgood-Schlatters Disease managed

A

Reduction in physical activity
Ice
NSAIDS (ibuprofen) for symptomatic relief

stretching and physiotherapy can be used to strengthen the joint

83
Q

what is a complication of Osgood-Schlatters Disease

A

full avulsion fracture, where the tibial tuberosity is separated from the rest of the tibia

84
Q

What is Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip

A

a structural abnormality in the hips caused by abnormal development of the fetal bones during pregnancy

leads to instability in the hips and a tendency or potential for subluxation or dislocation.

85
Q

What can untreated Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip lead to in adulthood

A

weakness, recurrent subluxation or dislocation, an abnormal gait and early degenerative changes.

86
Q

when is DDH usually picked up

A

newborn and infant physical examination (NIPE)

87
Q

What are RF for DHH

A

First degree family history
Breech presentation from 36 weeks onwards
Breech presentation at birth if 28 weeks onwards
Multiple pregnancy

88
Q

What is looked for in DDH newborn and infant physical examination (NIPE)

A

symmetry in the hips, leg length, skin folds and hip movements

89
Q

what findings may suggest DDH

A

Different leg lengths
Restricted hip abduction on one side
Significant bilateral restriction in abduction
Difference in the knee level when the hips are flexed
Clunking of the hips on special tests

90
Q

what two special tests are used to check for DDH

A

Ortolani test
Barlow test

91
Q

What is Barlow test

A

test for dislocatable hip

adducting the hip (bringing the thigh towards the midline) whilst applying light pressure on the knee with your thumb, directing the force posteriorly

92
Q

what is Ortolani test

A

Flex the hips and knees of a supine infant to 90°.

place anterior pressure on the greater trochanters, gently and smoothly abduct the infant’s legs using your thumbs.

93
Q

what is positive sign in Ortolani

A

distinctive ‘clunk’ which can be heard and felt as the femoral head relocates anteriorly into the acetabulum.

94
Q

what is investigation of choice in suspected DDH

A

ultrasound

95
Q

How is DDH managed <6 months

A

<6 months = Pavlik harness

keeps the baby’s hips flexed and abducted.

96
Q

How is DDH managed >6 months

A

Surgery

After surgery a hip spica cast to immobilises the hip

97
Q

what is Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

condition affecting children and adolescents where autoimmune inflammation occurs in the joints

98
Q

when is JIA diagnosed

A

arthritis without any other cause, lasting more than 6 weeks in a patient under the age of 16.

99
Q

what are key features of JIA

A

inflammatory arthritis are joint pain, swelling and stiffness

100
Q

what are subtypes of Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

Systemic JIA
Polyarticular JIA
Oligoarticular JIA
Enthesitis related arthritis
Juvenile psoriatic arthritis

101
Q

what is Systemic JIA

A

systemic illness
idiopathic inflammatory

102
Q

what are features of Systemic JIA

A

Subtle salmon-pink rash
High swinging fevers
Enlarged lymph nodes
Weight loss
Joint inflammation and pain
Splenomegaly
Muscle pain
Pleuritis and pericarditis

103
Q

What should blood show for systemic JIA

A

Antinuclear antibodies and rheumatoid factors are typically negative

raised inflammatory markers, with raised CRP, ESR, platelets and serum ferritin.

104
Q

how does macrophage activation syndrome (MAS) present

A

acutely unwell child with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), anaemia, thrombocytopenia, bleeding and a non-blanching rash.

105
Q

what is a key complication of systemic JIA

A

macrophage activation syndrome (MAS)

106
Q

what is a key investigation finding of macrophage activation syndrome (MAS)

A

low ESR

107
Q

what are infective DDx for fevers for more than 5 days

A

Kawasaki disease, Still’s disease, rheumatic fever and leukaemia.

108
Q

what is Polyarticular JIA

A

idiopathic inflammatory arthritis in 5 joints or more

tends to be symmetrical

small and large joints

109
Q

how are Polyarticular JIA and systemic JIa differentiated

A

Polyarticular = Systemic symptoms are mild

110
Q

what would bloods for rheumatoid factor show for Polyarticular JIA

A

Most children are negative for rheumatoid factor and are described as “seronegative”.

seropositive - older children and disease more similar to adults

111
Q

what is Oligoarticular JIA

A

It involves 4 joints or less
MC knee or ankle
not rlly assoicated with systemtic symptoms

MC girls <6yr

112
Q

what is a classic associated feature of Oligoarticular JIA

A

anterior uveitis

113
Q

how does Oligoarticular JIApresent on bloods

A
  • Inflammatory makers will be normal or mildly elevated.
  • Antinuclear antibodies are often positive
  • Rheumatoid factor is usually negative.
114
Q

what is Enthesitis-Related Arthritis

A

male >6yrs

paediatric version of the seronegative spondyloarthropathy

Patients have inflammatory arthritis in the joints as well as enthesitis.

115
Q

what are seronegative spondyloarthropathy conditions

A

ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, reactive arthritis and inflammatory bowel disease-related arthritis.

116
Q

what is enthesis

A

point at which the tendon of a muscle inserts into a bone

117
Q

what can cause Enthesitis

A

can be caused by traumatic stress, such as through repetitive strain during sporting activities, or can be caused by an autoimmune inflammatory process.

118
Q

how can Enthesitis be investigated

A

MRI

119
Q

what gene is associated with enthesitis-related arthritis

A

HLA B27 gene

human leukocyte antige

120
Q

what associated conditions should a patient with enthesitis-related arthritis be checked for

A

psoriasis (psoriatic plaques and nail pitting)

inflammatory bowel disease (intermitted diarrhoea and rectal bleeding).

121
Q

how does enthesitis-related arthritis present on examination

A

tender to localised palpation of the entheses.

122
Q

where are entheses located in body

A

Interphalangeal joints in the hand
Wrist
Over the greater trochanter on the lateral aspect of the hip
Quadriceps insertion at the anterior superior iliac spine
Quadriceps and patella tendon insertion around the patella
Base of achilles, at the calcaneus
Metatarsal heads on the base of the foot

123
Q

what is Juvenile Psoriatic Arthritis

A

seronegative inflammatory arthritis associated with psoriasis

symmetrical polyarthritis affecting the small joints
or an asymmetrical arthritis affecting the large joints in the lower limb

124
Q

what are signs or symptoms of Juvenile Psoriatic Arthritis

A

Plaques of psoriasis on the skin
Pitting of the nails (nail pitting)
Onycholysis, separation of the nail from the nail bed
Dactylitis, inflammation of the full finger
Enthesitis, inflammation of the entheses, which are the points of insertion of tendons into bone

125
Q

how is JIA managed

A
  • NSAIDs, such as ibuprofen
  • Steroids, either oral, intramuscular or intra-artricular in oligoarthritis
  • Disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs)
  • Biologic therapy
126
Q

name Disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs

A

methotrexate, sulfasalazine and leflunomide

127
Q

name Biologic therapy such as the tumour necrosis factor inhibitors

A

etanercept, infliximab and adalimumab

128
Q

what is Torticollis

A

a painful neck.

129
Q

what causes Torticollis

A

minor local musculoskeletal irritation causing pain and spasms in neck muscles.

130
Q

what meniscus is affected in Discoid meniscus

A

lateral

131
Q

how does Discoid meniscus present

A

vague pain in the knee
“click” on the lateral side of the knee